1. Which of the following are the assumptions related to the theory of consumer behaviour as per the Cardinal utility approach

Consumer is rational.
No limit on money income.
Utility cardinally measurable.
Diminishing marginal utility of money.
Diminishing marginal utility of commodities.
Maximization of satisfaction.
For calculating total utility, individual utilities of commodities are to be multiplied.
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and

and

and

and

2. Which one of the following is not the property of Cobb-Douglas Production Function

The multiplicative form of the power function can be changed into its log-linear form.

Power functions are not homogeneous because the sum of the exponents is not equal to degree 1.

The parameters in the function a and b represent the elasticity coefficient of output for inputs (capital and labour) respectively.

Constants a and b in the function represent share of inputs capital and labour in total output.

3.

Statement I Costs which do not take the form of cash outlays, nor do they appear in the accounting system are known as opportunity costs.
Statement II Costs in the form of depreciation allowances and unpaid interest on the owner's own funds are known as sunk costs.

Both the statements are correct.

Both the statements are incorrect.

Statement I is correct while Statement II is incorrect.

Statement I is incorrect while Statement II is correct.

4. Which one of the following is incorrect combination with regard to the types of market structures Market Structure No. of firms and degree of product differentiation Control over price

Perfect competition Large number of firms with None homogeneous products

Monopolistic Many firms with real or perceived Some Competition product differentiation

Oligopoly Little or no product differentiation Some and many firms

Monopoly Single firm with close substitute Some

5. Which one of the following is not studied in Macro-Economics

General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money.

Market structure and Pricing decisions.

Foreign Trade.

Theories of economic growth.

6.
Statement I Although culture plays a significant role in personality development, a linear relationship cannot be established between culture and personality.

Statement II The existence of several sub-systems within the same culture cannot influence the personality.

Statement II is correct, but Statement I is incorrect.

Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

Both, Statement I and II are correct.

Both, Statement I and II are incorrect.

7. Match the items of List I with the items of List II and find the correct combination

List I (Thinker) List II (Popularly known for)

F.W. Taylor Generated interest in people at work place.
F.J. Roethlisberger Emphasized on human needs of employees.
Robert Owen Human problems were considered as main element of human relations. Elton Mayo Considered organization as a social system.
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8. The group formation theory explaining affiliation based on spatial proximity is called

Homan's theory

Propinquity theory

Balance theory

Exchange theory

9. Assertion Intra-individual conflict is perhaps the most difficult type of conflict to analyse, since it is internal to the person.

Reasoning Conflict arises within an individual whenever his drives and motives are blocked and/or he is confronted with competing roles and goals and he is unable to take decisions.
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Assertion and Reasoning both are correct, and Reasoning is correct explanation of Assertion

Assertion and Reasoning both are correct but Reasoning is not right explanation of Assertion

Assertion is correct, whereas Reasoning is incorrect.

Reasoning is correct, whereas Assertion is incorrect.

10. Match the items of List I with List II related to communication models

List I List II
Lasswell Model Communication process based on information theory.
Shannon-Weaves Model Different shapes of process depending upon situation.
Gerbner's Model Dynamic interactive process.
Berlo Model Communication is a persuasive model.
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11. Match the items of List I with the items of List II and select the correct code.

List I List II
Planning Getting others to get the job done.
Organizing Setting standards such as sales Quotas, quality standards, etc.
Leading Establishing goals and standards.
Controlling Giving each subordinate a specific task.
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12. Which one of the following media will be the most suitable when a company wants to limit recruiting to a specific area

Radio and Television

Magazines

Newspapers

Internet

13. Select the correct sequence of the job evolution process.
Select benchmark jobs.
Evaluate select benchmark jobs.
Analyse benchmark jobs.
Select the most appropriate method.
Prepare a project plan.
Communicate with employees.
Articulate the objectives.
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and

and

and

and

14. Consider the following statements

Statement I Grievance is like a 'headache' as it a symptom rather than a disease.

Statement-II The employee should be told of his line of appeal by employer/management, if he does not get satisfaction from his immediate superior.

Statement III Grievance Redressal Mechanism does not believe in the concept "Justice delayed is justice denied" as it gives more weightage on proper settlement.
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All the above statements are correct.

Statements I and II are correct; III is incorrect.

Statements I and III are correct; II is incorrect.

Statements II and III are correct; I is incorrect.

15. Assertion The domestic enquiry, as a part of disciplinary action, is a quasi judicial process where the onus of proving the charges lies with the accuser.

Reasoning If the charges are not proved, then the employee is exonerated.
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is correct, but is incorrect.

is incorrect, but is correct.

Both and are correct, but is not the right explanation of

Both and are correct, and is the right explanation of

16. Frequently, maximization of profits is regarded as the proper objective of the firm, but it is not as inclusive a goal as that of maximizing shareholder wealth because

total profits are not as important as earnings per share.

earnings per share are more important than total profits.

maximization of earnings per share is not a fully appropriate objective because it does not specify the duration of expected returns.

maximization of earnings per share is not a fully appropriate objective because it does not specify the timing of expected returns.

17. Match the items of List I with the items of List II.

List I List II
IRR Process of analyzing potential fixed asset investment.
NPV is equal to zero. (Proportion of equity) × (cost of equity) (Proportion of debt) × (cost of debts).
Cost of capital Project is acceptable.
Capital budgeting NPV Zero.
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18. Which one is a false statement

Pure risks are risks that offer only the prospect of loss.

Speculative risks are situations that offer the chance of a gain but might result in a loss.

Liability risks are associated with product, and not with service, or with employee actions.

Environmental risks include risks associated with polluting the environment.

19. Which one is a correct statement

When the required rate of return is more than the stated coupon rate, the value of the bond will be less than its face value.

A bond is said to be selling at a premium when the required rate of return is less than stated coupon rate.

The value of the bond will equal to its face value when the required rate of return equals the stated coupon rate.

If interest rates rise so that the required rate of return increases, then the bond will increase in value.

20. Which one of the following statements is not correct

The return from holding a security is simply the change in market price, plus any cash payments received from the company, divided by the beginning price.

A key factor in the valuation of any financial instrument is an implied positive relationship between risk and expected return.

The risk that cannot be avoided by diversification of the securities one holds, is called unavoidable risk.

The slope of the security market line tells the degree to which investors are not risk averse.

21. Marketers should be aware of laws, government agencies, and pressure groups that influence or limit various organizations and individuals in a given society. This is most accurately described as which one of the following environment

Political

Legal-technological

Cultural

Social

22. Which one of the following is a consumer-goods market testing method in which consumers who initially try the product at no cost are reoffered it, or a competitors' product at slightly reduced price

Simulated Test Marketing

Controlled Test Marketing

Test Markets

Sales-Wave Research

23. Which of the following statements are correct

Statement-I Customer Relationship Management describes the Company's optimization of the value of its customer base.


Statement-II Customer Value Management(CVM) focuses on the analysis of individual data on prospects and customers to develop marketing strategies to acquire and retain customers and drive customer behaviour.

Statement-III CRM is the process of carefully managing detailed information about individual customers and all customer "touch points" to maximize loyalty.
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I and II

I and III

II and III

III

24. Consider the following statements related to different stages of PLC and

choose the correct code

Introduction A period of slow sales growth and low profit.
Introduction A period of slow sales growth and non-existent profit.
Growth A period of rapid market acceptance and substantial profit improvement. Growth A period of rapid market acceptance and slow profit improvement.
Decline Sales show a downward drift and profits stabilize.
Decline Sales show a downward drift and profits erode.
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and

and

and

and

25. Match the items of List I with the items of List II and select the correct code.

List I List -II
Coupons Using one brand to advertise another non-competing brand.
Tie-in Promotions Offers to consumers of savings off the regular price of a product.
Cross Promotions Certificates entitling the bearer to a stated saving on the purchase of a specific product.
Price Packs Two or more brands or companies team up on coupons, refunds, and contests to increase pulling power.
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26. Which of the following jobs/decisions of production/operations management are related to short time horizon

Product design
Product variations
Production scheduling
Design of jobs
Breakdown maintenance
Available materials allocation and handling
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and

and

and

and

27. Match the items of List I with the items of List II regarding Operations Research Models and their bases of Categorization and indicate the code of their correct matching.

List I List -II
(Type of Model) (Basis of Categorization)

Analogue Model Nature of environment
Descriptive Model Method of getting the solution
Deterministic Model Structure
Simulation Model Utility
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28. Which one of the following criteria is not used for decision-making under uncertainty

Maximin

Maximax

Minimax

Minimize expected loss

29. Which one of the following is used to know the average queue length when the arrival rate and service rate are demoted by . and µ respectively ..2

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30. X and R-charts are for which of the following

Charts for variables

Charts for number of defects

Charts for attributes

None of the above

31. Match the items of List I with the items of List II regarding sampling theory and indicate the code of their correct matching.

List I List II

Law of Statistical Regularity Non-sampling errors
Law of Inertia of Large Numbers Sampling technique
Quota sampling Theoretical basis of sampling
Response errors
Non-response errors
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32.

Statement I Exponential probability distribution has the mean µ1 and variance µ12.

Statement II The mean, median and mode do not coincide in the normal distribution.

Statement III The binomial distribution is symmetrical for any value of p (probability of success).
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All the three statements are true.

All the three statements are false.

Statement I is true while Statements II III are false.

Statement III is true while Statements I II are false.

33. Which one of the following statements is correct

When both the variables X and Y are measured on an interval or ratio scale, Karl Pearson's coefficient of correlation is most appropriate. sP

The probable error of coefficient of correlation is . n

If the sign of two regression coefficients on and on is negative, the sign of correlation coefficient is positive.

If one of the regression coefficients is greater than one, the other regression coefficient must also be greater than one.

34. When a researcher wants to test whether two samples can be regarded as drawn from the normal populations having same variance by using variance ratio, which one of the following tests of hypothesis is appropriate

Z-test

t-test

Chi-square test

F-test

35. Which one of the following matrix graphically portrays differences among divisions in terms of relative market share position and industry growth rate

SPACE Matrix

BCG Matrix

SWOT Matrix

IE Matrix

36. Consider the following statements
The stage of industry's development (life cycle) cannot influence the nature of competitive rivalry.
As the industry starts to mature in terms of life cycle, rules are rejected, consumer expectations about quality and performance are blurred and industry standards are put for modification.
A major feature of maturing industries is the tendency for competition based on product pricing becoming similar.
In declining industries, only the most efficient firms can earn reasonable profits. In the light of Industry Life Cycle, which of the above statements are true
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Only and

Only and

Only and

Only and

37. According to Michael Porter's Generic strategies, the three different basis of gaining competitive advantage by an organization are which of the following

Integration, diversification and acquisitions.

Growing, building and sustaining.

Cost leadership, differentiation and focus.

Positioning, capturing and changing.

38. Match the items given in List I with the items of

List II. List I List II
Objectives Reveal priorities
Strategies Retreats
Policies Potential actions
Periodical conduct of strategic-(iv) Mainly address repetitive/recurring situations management meeting
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39. The forum which reviews the trade policies of all WTO member countries is which one of the following

DSB

TPRB

TRIPS

General Council

40. A working group set up by Reserve Bank of India on "Flow of Credit of SSI Sector" submitted its report in May 2004. One of the major recommendation was that the definition of the small and medium enterprises sector be based on its turnover. The working group was headed by

Shri Abid Hussain

Shri P.R. Nayak

Shri S.L. Kapur

Dr. A.S. Ganguli

41. Assertion Small-scale and Cottage industries ensure a more equitable distribution of the national income.

Reasoning The ownership of Small-Scale Industries is more widespread than ownership of large-scale industries and they possess much larger employment potential.
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is correct, but is incorrect.

is incorrect, but is correct.

Both and are correct, but is not the right explanation of

Both and are correct, and is the right explanation of

42. Match the items of List I with those of List II.

List I(Projects) List II (Classification)

Magnitude Oriented Classify projects on the basis of capital intensive and/or labour intensive projects.
Non-quantifiable Classify projects on the basis of availability of demand for goods and services, raw materials, skills and/or other inputs.
Causation Oriented Level of investment is generally used as a deciding criteria for project classification.
Factor Intensity Oriented Projects with social endowments like health, education, social welfare etc.
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43. Consider the following statements
Statement I An Intrapreneur is not sensitive to corporate hierarchy.

Statement II Risk and return trade-off is the main-basis for entrepreneurial behaviour.

Statement III Entrepreneurs seek autonomy and freedom in their decision-making process.

Statement IV Intrapreneurs are expected to sell their ideas to their own organizations at first.
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Only Statement I is true, others are false.

Only Statement I is false, others are true.

Statements I and IV are true, Statements II and III are false.

Statements II and III are true, Statements I and IV are false.

44. Match the items of List I with List II with regard to models of Corporate Social Responsibility.

List I(Projects) List II x (Emphasis and Models)

Mahatma Gandhi Voluntary commitment by companies to public welfare. (Ethical Model)
Jawaharlal Nehru State ownership and legal requirements determine corporate responsibilities. (Statist Model)
Milton Friedmen Corporate responsibilities limited private owners. (Liberal Model)
Edward Freeman Companies respond to the needs of stakeholders. (Stakeholder Model)
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45. Which among the following are Kohlberg's three basic levels of ethical principles
Social Responsibility
Moral Development
Organisational Ethics
Organisational Formal Structure
Moral Values
Work ethos
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46. Assertion In a widely reported instance in Wipro Technologies, a very senior executive who had put in long years of service in the company and had contributed significantly to its growth had to be dismissed because he claimed in his travel expenses more than his dues.

Reasoning Most companies in advanced countries and some even in developing countries have developed their own codes of conduct which provide some ethical standards for their employees.
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is correct, but is incorrect.

Both are correct and is the right explanation of

Both are correct, but is not the right explanation of

Both and are incorrect.

47. As per Indian Companies Act, 2013, a qualified Indian Company is required to contribute at least of its net average profit towards Corporate Social Responsibility. In which of the following situations the company is required to follow the provisions

Company's net worth is 100 crore or more.

Company's net worth is 500 crore or more.

Company's net worth is 1,000 crore or more.

Company's net worth is 2,000 crore or more.

48.

Statement I Employee orientation provides new employees with basic background information they need to perform their jobs satisfactorily.

Statement II Orientation is actually part of the employer's new employee socialization process.
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Statement I is correct.

Statement II is correct.

Both Statements are correct.

Both Statements are incorrect.

49. When an employee is transferred to another country and is assigned a salary based on the base salary for that position in the country where he will work, the employer has used a salary plan.

host based

home based

transfer

cost-of living

50. Select the correct sequence of steps followed in the development of an induction programme.
Identify the audience.
Define the new employee notification process.
Seek feedback.
Identify the objectives of the induction programme.
Design the induction programme content and mode of delivery.
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and

and

and

and

51. Assertion Every company should have a grievance redressal mechanism.

Reasoning Grievance is a feeling that should be expressed mandatorily, arising out of anything connected to company that employee thinks is inequitable or unfair.
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and both are correct and is the right explanation of

and both are correct, but is not the right explanation of

is correct and is incorrect.

is incorrect and is correct.

52. Assertion Integrative Bargaining is a type of win-loose strategy.

Reasoning In integrative bargaining, productivity aspects are considered in mutual­problem solving to increase gains.
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is correct, but is incorrect.

is incorrect, but is correct.

is correct and is right explanation of

is correct, but is not the right explanation of

53. Match the List I with List II relating to approaches to Industrial Relations.

List I List II
Systems approach Peaceful co-existence of capital and labour.
V.V. Giri approach Developed by John. T. Dunlop.
Gandhian approach Preference to voluntary arbitration.
Socio-ethical approach Assuming moral responsibility of understanding each other.
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54. Consider the following statements

Statement I Union grievance procedures can differ from firm to firm.

Statement II Peaceful picketing during a strike of workers is lawful.

Statement III The National Labour Relations Board (NLRB) is an agency created by the Wagner Act to investigate about the minimum wages in all business units.
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Only statements I and II are correct.

Only statement I is correct.

Only statement II is correct.

Only statement III is correct.

55. Assertion General business conditions can greatly modify the number and type of middlemen available.

Reasoning Technological advances have made a significant effect on increase in online purchase and vending machines.
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is incorrect and is correct.

and both are incorrect.

and both are correct and is the right explanation of

and both are correct, but is not the right explanation of

56. Which of the following describe the four set of variables determining buyer behaviour as per Howard Sheth Theory

Physical input variable, external variable, exogenous variable, output variable.

Personality attitudes, perception of consumer, learning variable of consumer, brand variable.

Social input variable, purchasing attitudinal behaviour, selection behaviour, Brand effect variable.

Stimulus input variable, internal behaviour of buyer, exogenous variables, response output variables.

57. Which of the following is the consumer behaviour model which conceives the person (consumer) as a system with outputs (behaviour) in response to inputs

The Thorndike's Theory

The Engel Kollet Blackwell Theory

Buying Theory by Drucker

Comprehensive Theory of consumer behaviour

58. The Face book, popularly used for on line marketing, was founded in which year and by whom

2004, Peter Corbett

2005, Peter Corbett

2004, Mark Zuckerberg

2005, Mark Zuckerberg

59. Which of the following is a form of online word of mouth that encourages consumers to pass along company developed products and services or any other information on line

Viral Marketing

Micro sites

Interstitials

Contextual placements

60. Consider the following statements relating to on line marketing

Statement I On line communities and forums come in only one shape and size.

Statement II In paid search, marketers bid in a continuous auction on search terms that serve as a proxy for the consumer's product or consumption interest.

Statement III Marketers must recognize that only some consumers want to engage with some brands.
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Only statements I and II are correct.

Only statements II and III are correct.

Only statements I and III are correct.

All the statements are correct.

61. Which one of the following is informal workplace, sometimes garage, where intrapreneurial teams work to develop new products

Garage teams

Venture teams

Skunk works

Communities of practice

62. Match the items of List I with the items of List II.

List I List II
A moderate approach to Continually recurring short-term liabilities. current asset financing.
Short-term credit. Some permanent current assets and even some fixed assets, are financed with short­term debt.
Accrued liabilities. Involves matching the maturities of assets and liabilities.
Aggressive approach to Any liability originally scheduled for current assets financing. payment within one year.
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63. Debt management ratios do not include

Times-interest-earned ratio

EBITDA coverage ratio

Debt ratio

Price/Cash flow ratio

64. The current market price of a company's share is 90 and the expected dividend per share next year is 4.50. If the dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate of the share holder's required rate of return is

8.88%

13%



4.5%

65. A project costs 3,000 now is expected to generate year-end cash inflows of 500, 1,000, 1,000 and 1,100 in years first through four. The discounting factor for these 4 years at project's opportunity cost of 10% is 0.91, 0.83, 0.75 and 0.68 respectively. The Net present Value of project is.

310

310

217

600

66. Which one is false statement

Net operating working capital is the difference between the current assets necessary to operate the business and those current liabilities on which no interest is charged (generally accounts payable and accruals).

Operating assets are current assets and fixed assets necessary to operate the business.

Economic value added is the difference between after-tax operating profit and the total cost of capital, including the cost of equity capital.

Economic value added does not differ from accounting profit.

67. Which statement is false

Capital Asset pricing Model (CAPM) is based on the proposition that any stock's required rate of return is equal the risk-free rate of return plus a risk premium that reflects only the risk remaining after diversification.

The relevant riskiness of an individual stock is its contribution to the riskiness of a well-diversified portfolio.

A stock's relevant risk is greater than its stand-alone risk.

Different stocks will affect the portfolio differently, so different securities have different degrees of relevant risk.

68. From the following particulars, determine funds from operations Salaries Wages expenses 7,000 Profit on sale of land 25,000 Loss on sale of building 13,000 Net loss as per P L a/c. 3,200 Depreciation on machinery 16,000 Amortization of goodwill 8,000 Stationery expenses 5,000

77,200

8,800

3,200

25,000

69. The stand point of Exchange rates which seeks to define the relationship between currencies based on relative inflation, is called

Fixed Rate

Floating Rate

Purchasing Power

Interest Rate

70. Changing Global Marketing Communication for each local market is called

International Marketing

Communication Linkage

Communication Adaption

International Deal

71. In a market economy, when consumers influence the allocation of resources through their demand for products, it is popularly called as what

Cultural dynamics

Customer psychology

Consumer sovereignty

Principle of maximization

72. How to enter in the Global Market Arrange serially. A Deciding wether to go abroad. B Deciding on the marketing organization. C Deciding how to enter the market. D Deciding on Marketing programme. E Deciding in which market to enter.
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B

E

B

A

73. When the two countries are having the gold standard, their currency units are either made of gold specified purity and weight or freely convertible into gold of given purity at fixed rate, this theory known as

Purchasing power parity

Mint parity theory

Balance of payment theory

Stable Foreign Exchange Rate

74. Which among the following is associated with high-income economic and Human Development Index

TRID

TRIM

GATT

OECD

75. In commodity market, the foreign exchange rate is determined as per

Equilibrium Rate of Foreign Exchange

Comparative Price of Foreign Currency

Demand and Supply of Foreign Currency

SDR