Exam Details

Subject management
Paper paper 3
Exam / Course ugc net national eligibility test
Department
Organization university grants commission
Position
Exam Date June, 2015
City, State ,


Question Paper

1. The demand function for commodity is Q0=300-20P; where P is the price in rupees per unit and Q0 is the quantity demanded in units per period. Which of the following is the price level at which total revenue of a firm facing this demand function is maximised

8.0

7.5

10.5

12.5

2. Match the production functions List I with the return to scale List II.
List I List II
(Production function) (Return to scale)
Q=10 K0.5L0.4E0.15M0.1 increasing
Q=12 K0.5L0.5 constant
Q=100 K+15 L decreasing
Q=40 K0.3L0.5

Indicate the correct answer













3. It costs a firm 90 per unit to produce product and 60 per unit to produce B individually. If the firm can produce both products together at 160 per unit of product A and this exhibits signs of

economies of scope

diseconomies of scale

diseconomies of scope

economies of scale


4. In the context of Prisoner's dilemma, which one of the following is correct

rational choices can lead to bad outcomes

rational choices can lead to good outcomes

co-operation can lead to sub optimal results

none of the above


5. Find the most appropriate sequence of life-cycle of price for a product, from the initial stage to the mature stage.

Target price->penetration price->value based price->limit price->niche price

Penetration price->limit price->value based price->target price->niche price

Penetration price->target price->limit price->value based price->niche price

Penetration price->niche price->target price->limit price->value based price


6. A public works project is proposed that has total present worth benefits of 75 million and total present-worth cost of 55 million. In deliberating this proposal, some members of the Municipal Board have suggested that the project has a total present-worth disbenefits of 15 million; other members feel that 15 million should be treated as a cost. What will be the benefit cost ratio and net benefits value while considering the disbenefits as a cost

1.70 and 10 million

1.57 and 5 million

1.60 and 6 million

1.07 and 5 million


7. The ability to integrate new ideas with the existing processes and to innovate on the job is a for today's managers.

Conceptual skill

Human skill

Soft skill

Technical skill


8. An individual's involvement in work primarily indicates his/her

Attitude

Behaviour

Motivation

Perception


9. As per Lewin's Three -Step Change Model, changing to overcome the pressures of both individual resistance and group conformity is termed as

Movement

Refreezing

Restraining

Unfreezing

10. Out of the following, identify the four major functions which communication serves within a group or organisation
Control
Co-ordination
Emotional expression
Information
Motivation
Organisation
Codes

and

and

and

and


11. The conflict process usually has

Three stages

Four stages

Five stages

Seven stages

12. The proposes that the effective group performance depends on the proper match between the leader's style and the degree to which the situation gives the leader control.

Behavioural approach

Fiedler contingency model

Leader -member exchange theory

Trait Approach


13. a process of system wide change, designed to make an organisation more adaptive.

Change Management

Refreezing

Business Process Reengineering

Organisation Development



14. a profile of job holders department-wise and offers a snapshot of who will replace if there is a job opening.

Career plan

Replacement chart

Promotion graph

Selection plan


15. Following steps are undertaken for developing a workforce score card.
Identify critical and carefully defined outcome measures.
Translate the measures into specific actions and outcomes.
Identify high and low performing employees.
Develop and communicate detailed description of what is expected.
Develop supporting HRM and measurement systems.
What is the correct chronological order of these steps










16. Which of the following statements are not correct
Pay of an employee includes actual money that employee receives in exchange of his work.
Job evaluation provides a basis for measuring individual performance.
Human Relations Theory respects formal institutionalisation.
Minimum wages are not guaranteed under incentive plan.
Job enrichment amounts to expanding vertical and horizontal dimensions of a job.

and

and

and

and


17. Under which method of performance appraisal many evaluators join together to judge employee's performance in several situations with the use of a variety of criteria

Graphic Rating Scales

Critical Incident

Assessment Centre

MBO





18. According to 'The Hot Stove Rule' propounded by Douglas Mcgregor, a sound disciplinary system in an organisation does not includes

Advance warning

Immediacy of action

Immediacy in retrenchment

Impersonal


19. What is not required for termination of employees under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

Seek prior approval of the appropriate Government

Seek prior consent of the employees

Hold consultation with employees

Pay compensation to employees


20. Which one of the following is not a form of Government intervention in industrial relations

Assurance of decent working conditions

Provision of income security

Facilitating social dialogue

Protection of child labour




21. With respect to collective bargaining match the items in List I with those in List II, using the codes at the end of the items.
List I List II
Win Lose Winning is everything
Lose Win Nothing for nothing
Lose Lose (iii) Everything for everything
Win Win Relationship is paramount

Codes









22. fair day's wage for a day's work' is the motto of conceptualisation concerning Trade Union movement.

Karl Marxian notion of class conflict

Socialist pattern of society

American capitalist system

Gandhian concept of Trusteeship

23. In case where a company is likely to have the supernormal growth for a limited finite period and the normal growth thereafter, the value of the share can be computed as
<img src='./qimages/2093-23.jpg'>
Where gs =supernormal growth rate, n=number of years for supernormal growth rate
gN =normal growth rate, P0 =price of share at time t=year, D=Dividend, ke =cost of equity

Select the correct code

Only

Sum total of and

Sum total of and

Sum total of and


24. Select the correct statement/s from the following
Statement I The slope of the NPV profile reflects how sensitive the project is to discount rate changes.
Statement II To find total NPV of more than one projects, their NPV cannot be added.
Statement III The certainty equivalent coefficient applies adjustments to both, the cash flows (in the numerator) and the discount factor (in the denominator).
Statement IV The risk -adjusted discount factor applies adjustment for risk only to the discount factor (denominator).
Codes

Only statement I is correct

Statements II and III are correct

Statements III and IV are correct

Statements IV and I are correct


25. EBIT EPS indifference point is the level of

EBIT that produces the same level of EPS for two alternative capital structures.

EBIT that maximises EPS

EPS that optimises EBIT

Capital structure that does not affect Kd


26. Let the face value of commercial paper be denoted by F.V., net amount realised from the commercial paper be NAR, maturity period of commercial paper be MP. The effective pre tax cost of commercial paper shall be

F.V.- NAR

(F.V.- NAR)/NAR 1/MP

(F.V.- NAR)/NAR 360

(F.V.- NAR)/NAR 360/MP

27. When the target company uses the tactic of divestiture, to defend itself from a hostile takeover, it is said to sell the

Crown jewels

Green mail

Golden parachutes

White knight

28. The average spread between the cost of goods sold and the sales revenue is indicated by

Operating Expense ratio

Gross Profit ratio

Net Profit ratio

Return on Equity

29. If the rate of return on investment opportunity is likely to be 15 percent, the opportunity cost of capital is 10 percent, the earnings per share is 10 and if the pay-out ratio is 40 percent, the price of share according to Walter Model will be

40

130

148

400

30. If the total cash requirement of a company is 2 crore next year, the opportunity cost of funds is 15 percent per annum and the cost of conversion from securities to cash per transaction is 150, the optimum cash balance as per Baumol's Model will be

2 lakhs

4 lakhs

20 lakhs

40 lakhs

31. An Indian company is importing machine at a price of 5,00,000, payable after six months. The current exchange rate is 63 per US The forward contract for six months is available 64 per US If the rate turns out to be 64.25 per US the net gain to the importer in case he has entered into contract will be

1,25,000

2,50,000

5,00,000

6,25,000


32. If rp and r0 are the interest rates of a foreign country and domestic country, respectively, and if Sp/D and fp/D are spot exchange rate and forward exchange rate between the countries F and the interest rate parity is indicated by

rF)

rD)

rD)

None of the above

33. Consider the following statements
Brand equity is essentially the same as brand valuation.
Market segmentation and product differentiation are alternative marketing strategies.
Durable goods normally require less personal selling, after sales service and seller guarantees, than the non-durable goods.
Price discrimination in all forms is illegal in India.

Indicate the correct statements

and

and

Only

None


34. A consumer consults the company websites to gather information about various models of a car. Which type of source of information is he using

Commercial

Experimental

Personal

Public

35. Consider the following statements
All marketing strategy is built on segmentation, targeting and positioning.
A brand mantra must communicate both what a brand is and what it is not.
Goal incompatibility is one of the major causes of conflict among distribution channel members.
Physical goods, services and stores can have a brand name, but ideas and people cannot.
Which of these statements are true

All of them

and

and

and


36. The practice of selling below cost, with an intention to destroying the competitor is referred to as

Loss leader pricing

Predatory pricing

Price discrimination

Penetration pricing


37. After determining its pricing objectives, what is the next logical step a company should take in setting its pricing policy

Analyse its competitor's cost, price and offer

Determine the demand of the product

Estimate the cost of the product

Select the pricing method


38. Marketers have traditionally classified products on the basis of three characteristics tangibility and use.

availability

affordability

durability

necessity

39. Which one of the following can be legally protected

Brand name

Trade Mark

Brand mark

Package

40. Which one of the following marketing practices is outside the purview of the Competition Commission

Exclusive dealing

Misleading advertising

Predatory pricing

None of the above


41. The major advantage of the direct mail marketing is

High target market selectivity

Low cost of transaction

Privacy of the buyer

Speedy delivery


42. In this attack strategy, the marketer must back it with a stronger attack to beat the opponent. Identify the strategy.

Encirclement

Flank

Frontal

Guerrilla


43. A 'defective raw material' causing major variation in quality characteristics is called

Chance cause of variation

Assignable cause of variation

Acceptable cause of variation

Tolerable cause of variation




44. Which of the following is the correct order for sequential design

Product concept performance specifications Design specifications Manufacturing specifications

Manufacturing specifications Product concept Design specifications Performance specifications

Product concept . Design specifications . Performance specifications Manufacturing specifications

Design specifications . Performance specifications . Product concept Manufacturing specifications


45. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of demand forecasting

The time frame indicates, how far into the future the demand is forecasted.

A trend is gradual, long-term upward or downward movement of demand.

A trend is intermittent, short term upward or downward movement of demand.

Random variations are movements in demand that do not follow a definite pattern.


46. Consider the following statements
In the Game theory, the saddle point is the largest value in its row and the smallest in its column.
The classical EOQ model is very sensitive to changes in the variables.
In LP problem, an optimal solution does not necessarily use all the limited resources.
In PERT, it is assumed that the distribution of completion time for a project is normal distribution.

Indicate the true answers.

Statements and

Statements and

Statements and

All are true




47. Consider the following statements
When there is no saddle point in a competitive game, the players adopt mixed strategies.
The EOQ model of inventory control can also be applied to the production process, with appropriate modifications.
If the price of an item of inventory increases, the EOQ will also increase proportionately.
an LP problem, an equation is more restrictive than an unequality.

Indicate the correct statements.

All of the above

and

and

None of the statements is true


48. Consider the following statements
In the single channel queuing model, if the queue length would be infinite.
In the simplex solution procedure for an LP problem, the shadow prices of the resources are identified with the variables which are included in the optimal solution.
In the case of gradual receipt of the ordered quantity, the EOQ will be larger than the EOQ in the case of instantaneous receipt.
Time is the only variable in PERT

Indicate the correct answer.

Statements and are true, others are not

Statements and are true, others are not

Statements and are true, but is false

All the statements are true


49. A Random variable X has the following probability distribution
-2 0 2
Probability 0.25 0.50 0.25
The mean and variance of X shall be

0.50 and 1

0 and 1

0.50 and 2

0 and 2


50. Match the following, considering the state of conclusion for each of the situation at a=0.05.
List I List II
H0 P1 -P2 Ha P1 -P2 P=0.0233 reject H0
H0 P1 -P2 Ha P1 -P2 P=0.0672 accept H0
H0 P1 -P2 Ha P1 P=0.0322 no decision
H0 P1 =P2 Ha P1-P2 P=0.0233

Codes










51. Which of the following is possible in a chi square goodness of fit test

The chi square statistic is 0.

The observed counts are not whole number.

The probabilities specified in the null hypothesis sum to less than one.

The degree of freedom are larger than the number of categories.


52. Match the following IT terminologies and functions supported by them.
List I List II
Four part numeric address indicating a unique computer location on the internet. DNS
A hierarchical system of servers maintaining databases enabling the conversion of domain names of their IP address. Gopher
Tool for retrieving and transferring files from a remote computer. IP
A tool that enables the user to locate information stored on Internet Servers through a series of easy-to-use hierarchical menus.
FTP

Codes











53. The language used to develop interactive 3D modelling on World Wide Web is called as

XML

JAVA

HTML

VRML

54. Software that stores credit card and other information to facilitate payment for goods on the web

Electronic Cash

Digital Wallet

Smart Card

Electronic Cheque


55. Pan Amsat developed a joint venture with Jsat Corporation to develop and send into orbit a small satellite. Which type of alliance the above statement represents

Diversifying Alliance

Franchising

Synergistic Alliance

None of the above


56. Which of the following alternatives represents the Five -Forces Model of Competition developed by Michael Porter

Suppliers, buyers, competitive rivalry among firms in industry, product substitutes and potential entrants.

Employees, buyers, competitive rivalry among firms in industry, product substitutes and potential entrants.

Suppliers, buyers, employees, product substitutes and potential entrants.

Buyers, employees, suppliers, product substitutes and potential entrants.


57. Who among the following has given the statement "transition from single function focus to a multi function focus is essential for successful strategic management"?

Robert Grant

J.B. Barney

Igor Ansoff

Edgar Schein

58. a strategic inflection point necessitating a radical strategic shift.

Ambidexterity

Strategic Dissonance

Stretch Targets

Organizational Adaptation




59. Grand Strategy Matrix refers to

development of analysis for the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats of organisation

development of strategic position and action evaluation

development of strategy for plotting organization division in a schematic diagram

development of a popular tool for formulating alternative strategies


60. Which one of the following is not an entrepreneurial competency

Tolerance of ambiguity and uncertainty

Motivation to excel

External locus of control

Self-efficacy


61. As per the RBI guidelines (November 2012), a MSE would be considered sick if any of the borrowal account of the enterprise remains non-performing assets for

Three months

Six months

Nine months

Twelve months

62. Which one of the following idea generation methods focusses on developing new ideas when the individuals are unaware of the problem

Gordon method

Checklist method

Creative problem solving

Brain storming


63. Which one of the following is not a part of the industry analysis for a business plan

Analysis of competitors

Market segmentation

Distribution of the products/services

Industry and market forecasts


64. Which one of the following is an apex organisation under the union ministry of MSME engaged in Training, Consultancy, Research and Publication to promote entrepreneurship

NIESBUD

NIMSME

IIE

MGIRI

65. Which one of the following is true in case of an Intrapreneur

He is a job provider

He is independent in his operations

He assumes risk and uncertainty

He does not raise funds required for the enterprise


66. Which one of the following is not a principle of corporate Governance

Transparency

Accountability

Feasibility

Responsibility

67. Match the items given in the List I and List II and suggest the correct code List I List II
Ethics Right code of behaviour for a group or profession
Morality Prescribes right conduct for everyone
Moral standard Needs some inclination to follow morality
Meta Moral Standard Practical and pragmatic

Codes










68. An approach to managing, where managers are guided by organisations shared values in their management practices, is called

Greening of management

Value-based management

Socially responsible management

Social impact management


69. The Gaia hypothesis was propounded in 1999 by

James Lovelock

Friedman

Lord Keynes

Jean -Jacques Rousseau


70. Assertion When a corporation acts ethically and socially responsible in its business decisions and strategic planning, then the corporation will be more sustainable.
Reason Socially responsible corporate behaviour is increasingly seen as essential to long-term survival of companies.

Both and are true and is the correct explanation

Both and are true but is not the correct explanation

is true, but is false

is false, but is true


71. Match the items given in List I and List II.
List I List II
Beggar thy Neighbour Trade Policy Having low factor of interdependence
Mercantilism Theory Having an advantage of earning a return on knowledge assets
Multi-Domestic Strategy Alleviating some domestic economic problem by exporting to foreign countries
Turnkey Project Propagates encouragement of exports and discouraging imports

Codes










72. The Most Favoured Nation status doesn't necessarily refer to

Non-discriminatory treatment

Same and equal economic treatment

Same tariff rates applicable

Uniform civil code


73. Which of the following organizations play an active role to prevent the contagion situation of crisis, such as the Greek Sovereign debt crisis

IMF

World Bank

WTO

UNCTAD

74. The whole channel concept for International Marketing is represented as

Seller Seller's International Marketing Headquarters Channels within foreign nations Channels between nations Final Buyers

Seller Seller's International Marketing Headquarters-> Channels between nations Channels within foreign nations Final Buyers

Seller Channels between foreign nations Seller's International Marketing Headquarters-> Channels within nations Final Buyers

Seller Channels between foreign nations Channels within nations Seller's International Marketing Headquarters-> Final Buyers

75. As a part of the WTO Guidelines, the Agreement on Agriculture does not include

Direct payments to farmers are permitted.

Indirect assistance and support to farmers including R and D support by Government are not permitted.

Domestic policies which directly affect production and trade have to be cut back.

Least developed countries do not need to make any cuts.


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