1. The theory of sales (revenue) maximization subject to some predetermined amount of profit was advanced by

(1)K.W. Rothschild

(2)Herbert Simon

(3)O.E. Williamson

(4)William J. Baumol

2. Suppose the demand function for a commodity is given as

Q=500-5P

Where denotes quantity of demand and denotes price of the commodity. The point price elasticity of demand at price . 20 will be

-0.50

-0.25

-0.20



3. Suppose the demand and total cost functions for a monopoly firm are as follows

Q=100-0.2P
P=500-5Q
TC=50+20 Q+Q2

What will be the profit maximization output









4.

Statement The elasticity of factor substitution is formally defined as the percentage change in the capital-labour ratio divided by the percentage change in the marginal rate of technical substitution.

Statement :Q=5Ko5 Lo53 is a production function where output, K=units of capital and units of labour. This production function shows the application of increasing returns to scale.
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(1)Both statements are correct.

(2)Both statements are incorrect.

Statement is correct while statement is incorrect.

Statement is incorrect while statement is correct.

5. Which one of the following is not an investment appraisal technique to incorporate risk and uncertainty

(1)The Pay-off Matrix method

(2)Certainty Equivalent approach

(3)Marginal Efficiency of Capital approach

(4)The Decision Tree method

6. Which one of the following is not the component of economic environment of business

(1)Income and its Distribution

(2)Values and Ethics

(3)Business Cycles

(4)Interest Rates

7. Assertion Taylor stressed on revival of interest in human resources at work by focussing on increased production by rationalizing everything.

Reason He assumed that "workers want to earn maximum for minimum work".
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is incorrect is correct.

is correct and is the right explanation of

is correct but is not the right explanation of

(4)Both and are incorrect.

8. Give the correct order of stages in goal setting theory.

(1)Goal acceptance Goal definition Efforts Performance ->Reward Satisfaction.

(2)Goal definition Goal acceptance Efforts Performance Reward Satisfaction.

(3)Goal acceptance Goal definition Performance Efforts Rewards Satisfaction.

(4)Goal definition Goal acceptance Efforts Satisfaction Performance Rewards.

9. Consider the following statements

(a)The sensation thinking personalities are very emotional and focussed towards past. (b)The intuition thinking personalities are very futuristic, imaginative and creative. (c)The sensation -feeling personalities are very unkeen observers, non-methodical and problem creators.
(d)The intuition feeling personalities are very people-oriented, possessing personal charm and enthusiasm. In light of Myers Briggs Type Indicator Personality Test, which of the above statements are true

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(1)Only (b)and

(2)Only and

Only and

Only and

10. The theory of andragogy is related to the theory of .

(1)Adult learning

(2)Child learning

(3)Social learning

(4)Teacher learning

11. Match the items in List I and List II

List I(Individual Behaviour Models) List II (Contributory)

(a)Theory X and Y model Freud
(b)Economic model (ii)F.W. Taylor
(c)Behavioural model (iii)Douglas Mc Gregor
(d)Rational model (iv)Chris Argyris

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12.

Assertion The organizational structure should follow the organizational strategy.

Reason Structures are for achieving objectives and objectives are derived from organization's overall strategy.
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(1)Both and are correct.

is correct and is the right explanation of

is correct but is not the right explanation of

(4)Both and are incorrect.

13. Consider the following statements with reference to "employee referral" as a recruiting option by a company

(a)Referrals tend to generate lower yield ratio (hires/applicants)
(b)Current employees usually provide accurate information about the job applicants they are referring.
(c)Relying on referrals might be discriminatory.

(d)The new employees join with a more realistic picture of what the company is like.

Indicate the correct option

Statements and are true, others are false.

Statements and are true, others are false.

Statements and are true, but is false.

(4)All the statements are true.

14. Match the items given in List- I with the items of

List I List -II
(a)Programmed learning A development technique in which teams of managers compete by making computerized decisions regarding realistic but simulated situations.
(b)Case study (ii)Any attempt to improve current or future management performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes or increasing skills.
(c)Management Game (iii)A development method in which the manager is presented with a written description of an organizational problem to diagnose and solve.
(d)Management development systematic method for teaching job skills, involving presentation questions or facts, allowing the person to respond and giving the learner immediate feedback on the accuracy of his answers.


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15. According to the of industrial relations, it is the prerogative of the management to make decisions regarding how an enterprise is to be run and how the employees are to be dealt with.

(1)Radical perspective

(2)Trusteeship approach

(3)Unitary perspective

(4)Pluralistic perspective

16. provides for health care and cash benefits in cases of sickness, maternity and employment injury.

(1)The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961

(2)The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923

(3)The Employee's State Insurance Act, 1948

(4)The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972

17. Which one of the following is not a mandatory bargaining item of collective bargaining

(1)Scope of the bargaining unit

(2)Holidays

(3)Pensions

(4)Profit-sharing plans

18. Match the items of List I with the items of List II and choose the correct option.

List I List -II
(a)Stanford Binet Test (i)Finger/hand dexterity
(b)Minnesota Rate of Manipulation Test Personality
(c)Myers Briggs Test Memory

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19. Which of the following simulated task(s) is/are usually included in Management Assessment Centers

(a)In-basket exercises
(b)Leaderless group discussion
(c)Management games









20. Match the items given in List I with the items of List II

List I List -II

(a)Career management The lifelong series of activities that contribute to a person's career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfilment.
(b)Career development (ii)The deliberate process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests, knowledge, motivations and other characteristics and establishes action plans to attain specific goals.
(c)Career planning (iii)The process for enabling employees to better understand and develop their career skills and interests and to use these skills and interests more effectively

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21. Which of the following can be the ground for employee dismissal

(a)Unsatisfactory performance
(b)Misconduct
(c)Lack of qualifications

(1)Only





and

22. Assertion
Codes With most of the allowances, etc. linked to wages and the courts ruling work no wage' principle, workers are not usually prepared to lose earnings due to strikes.

Reason It is usually difficult to go on a legal strike due to restrictions on strikes in the form of notice and prohibition during the pendency of conciliation, adjudication, etc.

(1)Both and are correct and is the right explanation of

(2)Both and are correct but is not the right explanation of

is correct, but is not correct.

is correct, but is not correct.

23. If risk free rate of return is market return is 10% and the cost of equity is the value of beta (BETA) is

(1)1.2

(2)1.5

(3)1.6

(4)1.8

24. The company has been buying an item in lots of 2,400 units which is six months' supply, the cost per unit is 12, order cost is 8 per order and the carrying cost is 25%. The Economic Order Quantity is

(1)392



(3)160

(4)200

25. A company issues 11% debentures of 100 each for an amount aggregating 2,00,000 at 10% premium, redeemable at par after 5 years. The company tax rate is 40%. The cost of debt is









26. Determine the market price of a share using Gordon's model of Dividend, if total investment in asset is 10,00,000 number of shares is 50,000 with a total earning of 2,00,000. The cost of capital is 16% and payout ratio is 40%.

45

60

40

38

27. A company wishes to raise 30,00,000 through a right offering. It has 2,40,000 shares outstanding, which have been most recently trading between 106 and 116 per share. On the advice of the SBI caps, the company has set the subscription price for the rights at 100 per share. What will be the theoretical value of a right if the current market price is 109 with rights and the subscription price is 100

1.125

1.375

1.000

1.750

28. The public sale of common stock in a subsidiary in which the parent company usually retains majority control is called

pure play

spin off

partial sell off

equity carve out

29. The is especially well suited to offer hedging protection against transaction risk exposure.

(1)Forward Market

(2)Spot Market

(3)Transactions Market

(4)Inflation Rate Market

30. Match the following

List I (Items Methods) List II (Used /Application)
(a)Purchase Consideration Marketing
(b)Written Down Value Method (ii)Store Recording
(c)LIFO method Depreciation
(d)Rate of Return Method Capital Budgeting
(v)Merger

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31. Time value of an option is

(1)Price of the option -Intrinsic value of option

(2)Intrinsic value of option -Price of the option

(3)Current market price -Exercise price

(4)Exercise price -Current market price

32. According to the CAPM, overpriced securities have

(1)Zero Betas

(2)Negative Betas

(3)Zero Alphas

(4)Negative Alphas

33. Match the items of List I with those of List II

List I List II
(a)Customer-segment pricing Pricing products differently but not proportionately to their costs
(b)Product-form pricing (ii)Pricing products differently even though the cost of offering at that arena is the same
(c)Location pricing (iii)Pricing differently even though the products are same
(d)Time pricing (iv)Pricing differently for the different seasons

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34. Which of the following is not primarily a responsibility of producers for their channel members

(1)Establishing price policies

(2)Condition of sales

(3)Distributors' territorial rights

(4)Establishing distribution efficiencies

35. An aspect of personality which is responsible for dealing with reality. functions in conscious, preconscious and unconscious mind and where the reality principle weighs the costs and benefits of an action before deciding to act upon or abandon impulse is called



(2)Ego

(3)Superego

(4)Innerself

36. Which of the following is not a parameter for Servqual Model given by Parasuraman etc.

(1)Tangibles

(2)Reliability

(3)Empathy

(4)Insurance

37. Which of the following is not a deciding factor for Advertising Budget out of the given options

(1)Competitive Parity

fixed percentage of turnover

(3)Affordability

(4)Competitor's Advertising Policy

38. Match the items of List I with those of List II

List I List -II
(a)Standards Gap Difference between what is, in fact, delivered and what customers perceive they have received
(b)Knowledge Gap (ii)Difference between what a service provider's communication efforts promise and what a customer thinks, was promised by these communications
(c)Perception Gap Difference between what service providers believe customers expect and customer's actual needs and expectations
(d)Interpretation Gap Difference between management's perception of customer expectations and the quality standards established for service delivery

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39. Match the items of List I with those of List II

List I(States of PLC) List II (Critical factors)
(a)Introduction Cost efficiency
(b)Growth (ii)Marketing effectiveness
(c)Maturity Advertising and Distribution
(d)Obsolescence Product Development and Design

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40. Match the items of List I with those of List II

List I List -II
(a)Customer Penetration Purchases from the company by its customers expressed as a percentage of their total purchases from all suppliers of the same products.
(b)Customer Loyalty (ii)The average price charged by the company expressed as a percentage of the average price charged by all companies.
(c)Customer Selectivity (iii)Percentage of all customers who buy from the company. (d)Price Selectivity (iv)Size of the average customer purchase from the company expressed as a percentage of the size of the average customer purchase from an average company.

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41. Match the items of List I with those of List II

List I List II (Pattern of PLC) (Product category)
(a)Growth Slump Maturity Pattern Pharmaceutical products
(b)Cycle -Recycle Pattern (ii)Nylon for parachutes, hosiery, carpeting etc.
(c)Scalloped Pattern (iii)Small kitchen appliances

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42. The principles of Deferment, Autonomy of object, use of Common place, Involvement/ detachment and use of metaphor are used for idea generation technique.

(1)Attribute listing

(2)Brainstorming

(3)Synectics

(4)None of the above

43. In solving a facility location problem in which there are two possible locations being considered, the transportation algorithm may be used. In doing this

(1)Two rows (sources) would be added to the existing rows and the enlarged problem would be solved.

(2)Costs of zero would be used for each of the new facility.

(3)Two separate transportation problems will be solved.

(4)The MODI method must be used to evaluate the empty cells.

44. Five jobs are to be scheduled in two machines in a production unit. All the five jobs undergo processing in both the machines (shop floor). The table given below provides information on the processing time in both the machines Table Processing time Job No. Machine 1 Machine 2 14 7 26 3 32 3 47 7 58 6 Identify the best sequence using Johnson's rule.

<img src='./qimages/3399-44.jpg'>

45. Marginal analysis should be used instead of a payoff table to determine how many units of a perishable product to store

the number of states of nature is very low

the number of alternatives is very low

the number of alternatives is very high

the marginal profit is greater than the marginal loss

46. Design professionals brainstorm various options and raise several questions while doing value engineering, which of the following questions shall be included for brainstorming
(a)Can we eliminate certain features
(b)Are there certain features of design that cost more than they worth
(c)Can we reduce the cost by eliminating the production cycles
(d)Can we eliminate some parts and replace them with more universal parts

(1)Only (a)and

(2)Only (b)and

and

and

47. Match the items of List I with those of List II

List I List -II
X Chart Sampling risks measurement
Chart Potential capability measurement
C Curve Variable measurement
a Chart Attribute measurement

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48. In a production shift of 8 hours duration, the observed time per unit is 5 minutes and Rating factor is 120%. The standard production per shift will be

units

units

units

units

49. In hypothesis testing value ranges between

(1)Zero and Infinity

(2)Minus infinity and Plus infinity

(3)Zero and One

and

50. When the population size is very large relative to the sample size the finite population multiplier takes on value close to

(1)0.5

(2)0.1

(3)1.0

(4)0.05

51. Statements given below are related to analysis of variance. Identify the statement/s that are true

Statement The shape of distribution depends on the number of degrees of freedom in both the numerator and the denominator of the ratio.

Statement In analysis of variance, sample sizes should be equal.

Statement Analysis of variance may be used to test whether the means of more than two populations are equal.
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Statements and are true

Statements and are true

Statements and are true

(4)Only statement is true

52. From the following statements choose the correct statement/s

Statement A statistic is a characteristic of a population.

Statement The standard error of mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution.

Statement The standard error of mean decreases in direct proportion to sample size.
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(1)Only and is true

(2)Only and are true

(3)Only is true

(4)Only is true

53. Which among the following are the examples of key less interfaces

(1)Mouse, OCR, pen and voice recognition

(2)Keyboard, OCR, pen and voice recognition

(3)Bar coding, OCR, pen and voice recognition

(4)None of the above

54. Which of the following are the inputs of marketing information system
(a)Marketing research data
(b)Marketing intelligence data
(c)External environment data
(d)Strategic plan Choose the correct option

(1)Only

(2)Only (a)and and

Only and

and

55. The Uruguay round provided 'Sunset' clause to control

(1)Customs valuation

(2)Dumping

(3)Technical barriers to trade

(4)Dispute settlement

56. In order to promote domestic capital goods manufacturing industry, Specific Export Obligation under EPCG scheme, in case capital goods are procured from indigenous manufacturers, has been reduced from 90% to .









57. International banking dealing with non-residents only and not in the currency of the country where they are located is called .

(1)Non-resident Banking

(2)Offshore Banking

(3)Euro Currency Banking

(4)London Discount House

58. Exporter's 'Export risk insurance' is covered by .

(1)Insurance Companies

(2)Export Credit Guarantee Corporation

(3)Reserve Bank of India

(4)Export Development Authorities

59. In which sector FDI was not prohibited under the government route as well as automatic route till February 10, 2015

(1)Atomic energy

(2)Lottery business

(3)Housing and real estate

(4)Single brand retail trade

60. Member Countries of NAFTA are .

(1)Brazil, USA and Canada

(2)Canada, USA and Mexico

Argentina and Canada

(4)Panama, USA and Canada

61. Presently in India, rupee convertability in foreign exchange is .

(1)Restricted

(2)Partial

(3)Full

(4)None of the above

62. A country can improve its balance of payment through contribution both to current account and capital account by way of .

(1)Export promotion

(2)Foreign Direct Investment

(3)Import of Capital

(4)Export of Capital

63. " is a statement showing a Country's Commercial Transaction with the rest of the world . It shows inflow and outflow of foreign exchange. It is divided into current and capital accounts. The former records the transaction in goods and services."

(1)Foreign Direct Investment

(2)Balance of Payment

(3)Movement of Foreign Exchange

International Commitments

64. The activity of making profit through buying a Currency cheap in one market and selling it dear in the other market at a particular point of time is known as .

(1)Forward currency

(2)Currency arbitrage

(3)Speculation of currency

(4)Depreciated currency

65. Match the items of List I with List II with regards to the causes of sickness in small scale industry.

List I List -II
(a)Internal causes of sickness Own financing by banks
(b)External problems (ii)Red tapism
(c)Sickness because of government policies (iii)Faulty project selection

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66.
Assertion A sick industry is one which is not healthy in terms of its financial management.

Assertion A unit which has incurred cash losses for one year and it is likely to continue to incur cash loss for current year as well as for following year is considered to be a sick unit.

Assertion only is correct.

Assertion only is correct.

Assertion and both are incorrect.

Assertion and both are correct.

67. Which of the following is/are eligible to get the benefit under the scheme of "Rehabilitation of Sick Enterprises" by the Government of India

(1)Micro sick unit

(2)Small sick unit

(3)Medium sick unit

(4)All of the above

68. Match the items of List I with List II with regards to phases of entrepreneurial process

List List II
(a)Identify and evaluate the opportunity Executive summary
(b)Develop business plan (ii)Develop access to needed resources
(c)Determine the required resources (iii)Implement control system
(d)Manage the enterprise (iv)Assess the competitive environment

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69. Which among the following is not a scheme by the MSME

(1)Assistance to Training Institutions

(2)Credit Linked Capital Subsidy (CLCS)

(3)Credit Linked Assets Subsidy (CLAS)

(4)ISO 9000/ISO 14001 Certification Reimbursement

70. The enforcement mechanisms followed in respect of implementation of corporate governance practices are indicated below. Choose any one of the mechanism which is not included in corporate governance practice.

(1)Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement

(2)Directors responsibility statement, appointment of independent directors, audit committee and internal check

(3)Corporate governance compliance certificate, audit committee report, appointment of woman director

(4)Formulation of mission statement, appointment of a whistleblower, contents of red herring prospectus

71. There is a provision in the Companies Act, 2013 regarding related party transactions to ensure ethical standards in managerial decisions. From the following options identify who is not a related party as per the Companies Act, 2013.

person on whose advice, directions or instructions (except given in professional capacity) a director or manager is accustomed to act.

private company in which a director or manager is a director or holds along with his relatives less than of its paid up share capital.

firm in which a director, manager or his relative is a partner.

holding/subsidiary or associate company, subsidiary's subsidiary and such person as would be prescribed.

72. Ethics deals with ideals, it is regarded as a normative science. Choose any one from the following options which is not a part of ethics as a normative science.

tells what a human conduct ought to be.

determines norms, ideals, standards or values.

passes judgements of value stating whether a particular conduct is in conformity with the moral ideal or the ideal of goodness.

passes judgements regarding facts and events as they are and state the laws governing them.

73. Value formulation is a combination of several factors indicated below. Which one of them is the appropriate option

(1)Biological source, medical source, legal mandate, organisational mission and vision

(2)Legal source, moral source, spiritual source, philanthropic source

(3)Organisational culture, command from higher authorities, judicial pronouncements

(4)Genetic source, environmental source (culture, education, religious faith) influence of superiors, multimedia source

74. In the sphere of ethics in decision making, for determining morally correct action, there are specific stages providing rationale for moral action. Choose any one appropriate option from the following.

(1)Actions that avoid punishment, actions that serve one's needs, actions that gain approval from others, actions that abide laws and authority, social contracts and actions supported by universal principles.

(2)Actions that impose punishment, actions that are not followed by feedback response, actions beyond moral approbation, approved by judicial pronouncement, supported by universal principles.

(3)Actions that are morally right, legally enforceable, is used on external believes that events are controlled by destiny, fate or luck, not supported by social contracts, supported by universal principles.

(4)Actions that are morally wrong but supported by hierarchy and organisational goal of profit maximisation, individual judgement about ethicality of the decision is ignored.

75. Assertion According to David Fritzsche, business ethics is the process of evaluating decisions, either pre or post, with respect to the moral standards of society's culture.

Reason Managers need not evaluate the moral dimensions of a decision before making it, because they are to carry out the order of the higher authority to maximise commercial gain for the entity.
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(1)Both and are correct.

is correct and is the right explanation of

is correct but is not the right explanation of

(4)Both and are incorrect.