Exam Details

Subject environmental sciences
Paper paper 2
Exam / Course ugc net national eligibility test
Department
Organization university grants commission
Position
Exam Date 10, July, 2016
City, State ,


Question Paper

PAPER-II ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES Signature and Name of Invigilator
1.
(Signature) OMR Sheet No. ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate)

(Name)
Roll No.


2.
(Signature) (In figures as per admission card)



(Name) Roll (In words)
J 8 9 1 6

Time 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet 12 Instructions for the Candidates
1.
Write your roll number in the space provided on the top ofthis page.

2.
This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.

3.
At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requestedto open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below


To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an openbooklet.


Tally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questionsmissing or duplicate or not in serial order or anyother discrepancy should be got replaced immediatelyby a correct booklet from the invigilator within theperiod of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the QuestionBooklet will be replaced nor any extra time will begiven.


After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Numbershould be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.

4.
Each item has four alternative responses marked (3)and You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item.


Example
where is the correct response.

5.
Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6.
Read instructions given inside carefully.

7.
Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.

8.
If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9.
You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.

10.
Use only Black Ball point pen provided by C.B.S.E.

11.
Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.

12.
There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.


Number of Questions in this Booklet 50

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6.
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8.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
Paper II

Note This paper contains fifty objective type questions of two marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Photoionization of gas molecules maintain the temperature profile of which atmospheric layer

Troposphere Stratosphere


Mesosphere Thermosphere


2. Around the mid latitude, the surface winds are generally

Gradient Geostrophic


Subgeostrophic Cyclonic


3. How many biogeographic regions are reported to exist in India

Five Seven


Ten Three


4. Energy transfer and nutrient flow through various trophic levels can be described as

Linear


Cyclic


Linear and cyclic respectively


Cyclic and linear respectively


5. The highest rate at which individuals can be harvested without reducing the population size is called maximum sustainable yield of a

Population Community


Ecosystem Landscape


6. Leslie matrix population model is generally used to determine
a.
the growth of population.

b.
the age distribution within population over time.

c.
the prey-predator interactions.
Choose the correct answer




a only a and c only


b and c only a and b only


7. If .N is equal to production of new individual in the population, .t and N represent time
nand initial number of individuals of a population, then natality rate per unit of population is
.Nn .Nn

.t N.t
N.t
.N N.t
n
.Nn
8. In a health survey, 38 of 120 men and 24 of 80 women are found to be affected by nicotine by smoking. What is the probability of a randomly selected male being a smoker

0.32 0.19


0.38 0.12



9. If for a sample size of 64, the mean and standard deviation are found to be 82 and 6. Then standard error for the mean is

0.75 0.14


10.4 2.2


10. 'Public hearing' is not mandatory for project like

building construction project


mining project


oil refinery project


river valley project


11. The preparedness for prevention of chemical accidents and emergency in industry should be made according to the statutory framework of
a.
The National Environmental Tribunal Act, 1975

b.
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991

c.
The Factories Act, 1948

d.
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
Choose the correct answer




b and c only c and d only


b and c only c and d


12. The term (life) of a patent from the date of filing is

5 years 100 years


20 years 50 years


13. According to the Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989, the limit for Polyaromatic Hydrocarbons in waste oil suitable for recycling should be less than

10%


15%


14. The main objectives of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 are
a.
Restricting hunting, killing or overexploitation of species.

b.
Protection of wildlife, preservation of natural habitats and environment.

c.
Recognizing the right of people to a healthy environment.
Choose the correct answer




a and b only b and c only


a and c only b and c


15. The signing ceremony of Paris agreement on climate change was held on April 22, 2016 at UN headquarters. The agreement will be open for signatures by the countries till

December 22, 2016 April 21, 2017


December 21, 2017 March 21, 2018


16. The committee, which reviews the EIA and EMP reports of developmental projects in Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is called

Project Assessment Committee


Environment Appraisal Committee


Project Evaluation Committee


Environmental Clearance Committee


17. In EIA, after official notification, time given to hold public hearing is

10 days 15 days


30 days 50 days


18. The corporate social responsibility has been made mandatory since

2010 2014


2015 2013


19. The guiding principles for the National Land Utilization Policy are as follows
a.
Inclusive growth, poverty eradication and gender equality equal opportunities.

b.
Balanced development and intergenerational justice.

c.
Efficient utilization of resources and mitigation of impacts.

d.
Integrated and comprehensive development planning.
Choose the correct answer




a and b only b and c only


c and d only c and d


20. Degradation of different categories of pesticides by soil microorganism is called

Biotransformation Biomineralization


Bioaugmentation Biomagnification


21. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion CO can contribute to the photochemical smog problem in cities.
Reason It aids in formation of surface ozone.
Choose the correct answer


Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


22. For spherical aerosol particles smaller than about 30 µm and with density much greater than air, their settling velocity varies with their size as

. d . d-1


. d-2 . d2


23. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion Sound barriers alongside motorways in urban areas are very effective in controlling noise.
Reason They act as reflectors of sound back into motorways and upwards. Choose the correct answer

Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


24. The effect of sulphate aerosol in the Earth's atmosphere is to

decrease precipitation


destroy ozone


cool global climate


warm global climate


25. Solar radiation of average energy 1.25 eV and intensity 500 W/m2 are incident on the surface of a solar flat plate collector. What is the approximate photon flux density impinging on the surface of the collector


5 × 1022 photons m-2s




2 × 1022 photons m-2s




2.5 × 1020 photons m-2s




2.5 × 1021 photons m-2s


26. A solar pond based electricity generation plant has an efficiency of and power output of 500 mW. If the solar insolation is 1000 what is the area of solar pond

5 km2 10 km2


1.0 km2 20 km2


27. Intended nationally determined contribution of India envisages reduction in carbon intensity by 2030 below 2005 level by what percentage

22 25 33 35


35 40 40 50


28. By the year 2022, India's target of producing power from wind energy is

50 GW 60 GW


75 GW 120 GW


29. Which among the following surfaces has maximum albedo

Leafy crops Dry sand


Calm sea water Dark asphalt


30. A wetland ecosystem has a very high Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD). Which of the following statement about such a wetland is correct

It has high level of microbial pollution.


It has very low level of microbial pollution.


There is no microbial pollution.


It is highly turbid.


31. Desertification is the process of

increase in desert area


sand dune movement


land degradation


arid zone management


32. Ecological restoration is the process of rebuilding a degraded ecosystem till

it becomes pollution free and provides solace to the people.


it becomes free of disturbance.


its structure and functions are restored.


it starts providing some ecosystem services.


33. Consider the following four statements about wetland ecosystems
a.
They are the transitional zones between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems.

b.
They are highly productive.

c.
They are the source of greenhouse gases.

d.
They normally occur in the floodplain of rivers.
Choose the correct answer




a and b only


b and c only


c and d only


c and d


34. In soil conservation programme, the tillage where residues of previous crops are left in the soil is called

Reduced tillage No tillage


Conservation tillage Contour plowing


35. Which of the following will provide the most valuable information for determining risk of mass wasting of an area

Seismometer


Analysis of stereo satellite data


Measurement of acceleration due to gravity


Geological map of the region


36. The rapid downslope movement of ice or snow is called as

Mudflow Solifluction


Lahars Avalanches


37. The landform created by subglacial meltwater is known as

Moraine Eskers


Cirques Kames


38. Among the following gases, which is not emitted by volcano
NO SO
x x
CO2 H2S
39. In remote sensing, ground truth data is generally required for
a.
calibration of sensor

b.
analysis of remotely sensed data

c.
accuracy assessment
Choose the correct answer




a only b and c only


b and c a and b only


40. A species the population of which is low enough for it to be at risk of becoming extinct, but not low enough that it is in imminent danger of extinction is called

Endangered species


Threatened species


Vulnerable species


Rare species


41. Landscape mosaic comprises

matrices and patches


patches and corridors


matrices, patches and corridors


matrices and corridors


42. Which of the following country is not a megadiversity centre of biodiversity

Columbia India


Brazil Argentina


43. Sclerophyllous leaves are the characteristic features of

Chaparral Vegetation


Grassland Vegetation


Tropical Vegetation


Alpine Vegetation


44. Among the plants listed below, which is not producing allergenic pollen grain

Mango Neem


Fan Palm Pine


45. A species having a dominating influence on the structure and function of a community or ecosystem is known as

Fundamental species


Functional species


Keystone species


Indicator species


46. Which of the following trace atmospheric gases is not an acid rain precursor

Dimethyl sulfide Hydrogen sulfide


Nitrous oxide Nitric oxide


47. According to WHO report 2015, out of 20 most polluted cities of the world, India has

12 18


10 13


48. With respect to sea, increase in CO2 abundance is not responsible for which of the following

Increase in pH of sea water.


Increase in concentration of bicarbonate ions.


Coral bleaching.


Enhanced dissolution of calcareous materials.


49. Elements that cycle in the environment and that also have a gaseous phase at some point in their cycle include which of the following
a.
Phosphorus

b.
Sulphur

c.
Carbon
Choose the correct answer




a only b only


b and c only a and c only


50. Poor aeration and high water holding capacity are characteristic features of

Sandy soil Loam soil


Clay soil Sandy Loam soil


Space For Rough Work


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