Exam Details
Subject | environmental sciences | |
Paper | paper 2 | |
Exam / Course | ugc net national eligibility test | |
Department | ||
Organization | university grants commission | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | December, 2014 | |
City, State | , |
Question Paper
PAPER-II
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1.
(Signature) OMR Sheet No. ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2.
(Signature) (In figures as per admission card)
(Name) Roll (In words)
D 8 9 1 4
Time 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet 12 Instructions for the Candidates
1.
Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2.
This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3.
At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below
To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.
Each item has four alternative responses marked and You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item.
Example
where is the correct response.
5.
Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6.
Read instructions given inside carefully.
7.
Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8.
If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.
You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10.
Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11.
Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12.
There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13.
In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final.
Number of Questions in this Booklet 50
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7.
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8.
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11.
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D-89-14
1 P.T.O.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper II
Note This paper contains fifty objective type questions of two marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Thermal stratification of aquatic ecosystems takes place in
tropical lakes temperate lakes
glacier lakes meandering rivers
2. The scale length of pressure variations in atmosphere in vertical direction is about
3 km 4.8 km
7 km 12 km
3. Which radioactive element is considered as an indoor pollutant
Oxygen 18 Nitrogen 15
Carbon 13 Radon
4. In a closed thermodynamic system, across its boundaries
no transfer of heat is possible.
no transfer of work is possible.
transfer of heat is possible but not of work.
transfer of heat and work is possible.
5. In an urban area, moist air at 27 °C has a mixing ratio of 50 gm per kg. Its virtual temperature is
33.69 °C 38.15 °C
36.15 °C 32.30 °C
6. Under aerobic biodegradation of DDT, which of the following compound is formed
DDD DDE
DDN DDS
7. Among the following heavy metals, which has highest concentration in earth's crust
Chromium Copper
Nickel Zinc
8. Composition-wise halons are related to
CFCs Halides
Hydrocarbons Peptides
9. Which of the following gases has highest absorption co-efficient for solubility in water
Hydrogen Nitrogen
Oxygen Carbon dioxide
10. Quantity of glucose (MW 180) required to prepare 1000 ml of solution is
5 g 50 g
900 g 9000 g
11. Endemic species are
Uniformly distributed across the landscape
Widely distributed
Restricted to a particular area
Continuously distributed globally
12. Which of the following is the in-situ biodiversity conservation site
Arboretum Botanical garden
Biosphere reserve Orchidarium
13. The largest unit of climax communities representing well defined climatic zone is referred to as
Biosphere Biome
Biota Landscape
14. An active, adaptive control process which is able to maintain the overall balance is known as
Bohr's Hypothesis Miller Hypothesis
Gaia Hypothesis Kepler's Law
15. Niche of an organism is
Address Profession
Location Range
16. Out of the total fresh water volume of the frozen form constitutes
60 70
80 50
17. If Q stream flow, P precipitation, E evapotranspiration, .S net change in storage and .T net underground transfers, then the basic water balance equation is
Q (.S .T)
Q (.S .T)
Q .T)
Q (.S .T)
18. Particles with a diameter smaller than 0.002 mm are classed as
Cobble Pebble
Silt Colloids
19. Water storage capacity of which soil is maximum
Sandy loam
Loam
Clay loam
Heavy clay
20. Which among the following is not a hot desert
Sahara Kalahari
Thar Gobi
21. In an ideal MHD power generator, the maximum power P output varies with the velocity
of conducting fuel as
P . u P . u2
max max
3 3/2
P . u P . u
max max
22. Which is the most efficient energy source for producing electricity
Nuclear power
Hydro power
Wind power
Solar power
23. Which of the following types of coal has highest water content
Anthracite
Bituminous coal
Lignite
Subbituminous coal
24. Energy intensity is the amount of energy
produced per unit gross domestic product
consumed per unit gross domestic product
produced per year per unit area of the country
consumed per year per unit area of the country
25. Which is the cleanest fuel for power generation
Coal
Uranium
Hydrogen
Water
26. The mountain that rises a kilometre or more above the surrounding sea floor is called
Oceanic island
Atoll
Seamount
Island arc
27. Which form of As is most toxic As+3 As+2
As+6 As+4
28. Noise climate is represented by
L10 L90
Leq
L50
(L L)2 60
10 90
29. The classical smog is mainly composed of
NO and smoke particulates
x
O3 and SO2
SO2 and NO x
SO2 and smoke particulates
30. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards the annual average concentration of SPM in a residential area should not exceed
80 µg/m3 100 µg/m3
140 µg/m3 200 µg/m3
31. "Blue baby syndrome" is caused due to intake of water high in
Ammonia Nitrates
Sulphates Sulphides
32. EIA of mining activities involve impact assessment on
I. Geological Environment
II. Biological Environment
III. Aerial Environment
Codes
I only II and III only
I and III only II and III
33. Accreditation of Environmental Consultant Organizations in India is done by
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Central Pollution Control Board
Ministry of Earth Sciences
Quality Council of India
34. Life Cycle Assessment does not include
Life Cycle Inventory of the product
Quantitative improvement in the process of the product
Life Cycle Impact Analysis
Emergency Preparedness Plan
35. A developmental project requires both environmental clearance as well as approval under
Water Act, 1974
Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
National Environmental Tribunal Act, 1995
Air Act, 1981
36. The best practice of disposal of construction and demolition debris is
Incineration Recycling
Land fills Solidification
37. Pyrolysis of Solid Waste refers to
High temperature aerobic incineration
High temperature anaerobic distillation of waste for energy generation
Ambient aerobic distillation
Ambient anaerobic distillation
38. Kyoto Protocol of 1997 introduced the concept of carbon trading in the year of
2000 2004
2001 2002
39. Citizen's Charter on Environment in the Constitution of India is embodied in
Article 48 Article 48A
Article 49A Article 51A
40. United Nation's Conference on Environment and Development was held in
December, 1993 June, 1992
December, 1995 November, 1996
41. The geometric mean of the numbers 6 and 9 is
6 8
5 7
42. A complete enumerate of all items in the population is
Unrestricted sampling
Non-probability sampling
Census
Sample survey
43. The term 'parameter' is an attribute associated with the data pertaining to
sample population
descriptive statistics sampling technique
44. A solar cell of surface area 5 cm2 delivers a current of 0.1 A at 0.6 V. If the intensity of solar radiation impinging on the solar cell is 1.0 kW/m2, the efficiency of the solar cell is
6 3
30 12
45. Assertion Living systems exposed to drought salinity and freezing show enhanced levels of osmolytes.
Reason Drought, salinity and freezing stress induce water deficit.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
46. UN Decade of Education for Sustainable Development is
2000 2009 2005 2014
2010 2019 2020 2031
47. Two kinds of the values distinguished in environmental ethics are
Instrumental value and intrinsic value
Direct use values and social values
Social values and existence value
Indirect use value and aesthetic value
48. The natural sources of methyl bromide in the atmosphere is
Ocean Volcanoes
Landslide Vegetation
49. The part of an actual resource which can be developed profitably in the future is
Non-renewable resources
Potential resources
Reserved resources
Stock resources
50. Trophic state index of aquatic ecosystem is determined by the concentration of
Chlorophyll-a NO
3
PO NO
4
2
Space For Rough Work
Paper-II 12
D-89-14
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1.
(Signature) OMR Sheet No. ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2.
(Signature) (In figures as per admission card)
(Name) Roll (In words)
D 8 9 1 4
Time 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet 12 Instructions for the Candidates
1.
Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2.
This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3.
At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below
To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.
Each item has four alternative responses marked and You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item.
Example
where is the correct response.
5.
Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6.
Read instructions given inside carefully.
7.
Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8.
If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.
You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10.
Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11.
Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12.
There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13.
In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final.
Number of Questions in this Booklet 50
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1.
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2.
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4.
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D-89-14
1 P.T.O.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper II
Note This paper contains fifty objective type questions of two marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Thermal stratification of aquatic ecosystems takes place in
tropical lakes temperate lakes
glacier lakes meandering rivers
2. The scale length of pressure variations in atmosphere in vertical direction is about
3 km 4.8 km
7 km 12 km
3. Which radioactive element is considered as an indoor pollutant
Oxygen 18 Nitrogen 15
Carbon 13 Radon
4. In a closed thermodynamic system, across its boundaries
no transfer of heat is possible.
no transfer of work is possible.
transfer of heat is possible but not of work.
transfer of heat and work is possible.
5. In an urban area, moist air at 27 °C has a mixing ratio of 50 gm per kg. Its virtual temperature is
33.69 °C 38.15 °C
36.15 °C 32.30 °C
6. Under aerobic biodegradation of DDT, which of the following compound is formed
DDD DDE
DDN DDS
7. Among the following heavy metals, which has highest concentration in earth's crust
Chromium Copper
Nickel Zinc
8. Composition-wise halons are related to
CFCs Halides
Hydrocarbons Peptides
9. Which of the following gases has highest absorption co-efficient for solubility in water
Hydrogen Nitrogen
Oxygen Carbon dioxide
10. Quantity of glucose (MW 180) required to prepare 1000 ml of solution is
5 g 50 g
900 g 9000 g
11. Endemic species are
Uniformly distributed across the landscape
Widely distributed
Restricted to a particular area
Continuously distributed globally
12. Which of the following is the in-situ biodiversity conservation site
Arboretum Botanical garden
Biosphere reserve Orchidarium
13. The largest unit of climax communities representing well defined climatic zone is referred to as
Biosphere Biome
Biota Landscape
14. An active, adaptive control process which is able to maintain the overall balance is known as
Bohr's Hypothesis Miller Hypothesis
Gaia Hypothesis Kepler's Law
15. Niche of an organism is
Address Profession
Location Range
16. Out of the total fresh water volume of the frozen form constitutes
60 70
80 50
17. If Q stream flow, P precipitation, E evapotranspiration, .S net change in storage and .T net underground transfers, then the basic water balance equation is
Q (.S .T)
Q (.S .T)
Q .T)
Q (.S .T)
18. Particles with a diameter smaller than 0.002 mm are classed as
Cobble Pebble
Silt Colloids
19. Water storage capacity of which soil is maximum
Sandy loam
Loam
Clay loam
Heavy clay
20. Which among the following is not a hot desert
Sahara Kalahari
Thar Gobi
21. In an ideal MHD power generator, the maximum power P output varies with the velocity
of conducting fuel as
P . u P . u2
max max
3 3/2
P . u P . u
max max
22. Which is the most efficient energy source for producing electricity
Nuclear power
Hydro power
Wind power
Solar power
23. Which of the following types of coal has highest water content
Anthracite
Bituminous coal
Lignite
Subbituminous coal
24. Energy intensity is the amount of energy
produced per unit gross domestic product
consumed per unit gross domestic product
produced per year per unit area of the country
consumed per year per unit area of the country
25. Which is the cleanest fuel for power generation
Coal
Uranium
Hydrogen
Water
26. The mountain that rises a kilometre or more above the surrounding sea floor is called
Oceanic island
Atoll
Seamount
Island arc
27. Which form of As is most toxic As+3 As+2
As+6 As+4
28. Noise climate is represented by
L10 L90
Leq
L50
(L L)2 60
10 90
29. The classical smog is mainly composed of
NO and smoke particulates
x
O3 and SO2
SO2 and NO x
SO2 and smoke particulates
30. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards the annual average concentration of SPM in a residential area should not exceed
80 µg/m3 100 µg/m3
140 µg/m3 200 µg/m3
31. "Blue baby syndrome" is caused due to intake of water high in
Ammonia Nitrates
Sulphates Sulphides
32. EIA of mining activities involve impact assessment on
I. Geological Environment
II. Biological Environment
III. Aerial Environment
Codes
I only II and III only
I and III only II and III
33. Accreditation of Environmental Consultant Organizations in India is done by
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Central Pollution Control Board
Ministry of Earth Sciences
Quality Council of India
34. Life Cycle Assessment does not include
Life Cycle Inventory of the product
Quantitative improvement in the process of the product
Life Cycle Impact Analysis
Emergency Preparedness Plan
35. A developmental project requires both environmental clearance as well as approval under
Water Act, 1974
Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
National Environmental Tribunal Act, 1995
Air Act, 1981
36. The best practice of disposal of construction and demolition debris is
Incineration Recycling
Land fills Solidification
37. Pyrolysis of Solid Waste refers to
High temperature aerobic incineration
High temperature anaerobic distillation of waste for energy generation
Ambient aerobic distillation
Ambient anaerobic distillation
38. Kyoto Protocol of 1997 introduced the concept of carbon trading in the year of
2000 2004
2001 2002
39. Citizen's Charter on Environment in the Constitution of India is embodied in
Article 48 Article 48A
Article 49A Article 51A
40. United Nation's Conference on Environment and Development was held in
December, 1993 June, 1992
December, 1995 November, 1996
41. The geometric mean of the numbers 6 and 9 is
6 8
5 7
42. A complete enumerate of all items in the population is
Unrestricted sampling
Non-probability sampling
Census
Sample survey
43. The term 'parameter' is an attribute associated with the data pertaining to
sample population
descriptive statistics sampling technique
44. A solar cell of surface area 5 cm2 delivers a current of 0.1 A at 0.6 V. If the intensity of solar radiation impinging on the solar cell is 1.0 kW/m2, the efficiency of the solar cell is
6 3
30 12
45. Assertion Living systems exposed to drought salinity and freezing show enhanced levels of osmolytes.
Reason Drought, salinity and freezing stress induce water deficit.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
46. UN Decade of Education for Sustainable Development is
2000 2009 2005 2014
2010 2019 2020 2031
47. Two kinds of the values distinguished in environmental ethics are
Instrumental value and intrinsic value
Direct use values and social values
Social values and existence value
Indirect use value and aesthetic value
48. The natural sources of methyl bromide in the atmosphere is
Ocean Volcanoes
Landslide Vegetation
49. The part of an actual resource which can be developed profitably in the future is
Non-renewable resources
Potential resources
Reserved resources
Stock resources
50. Trophic state index of aquatic ecosystem is determined by the concentration of
Chlorophyll-a NO
3
PO NO
4
2
Space For Rough Work
Paper-II 12
D-89-14
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