Exam Details
Subject | environmental sciences | |
Paper | paper 2 | |
Exam / Course | ugc net national eligibility test | |
Department | ||
Organization | university grants commission | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | June, 2012 | |
City, State | , |
Question Paper
PAPER-II ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE Signature and Name of Invigilator
1.
(Signature) OMR Sheet No. ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2.
(Signature) (In figures as per admission card)
(Name) Roll (In words)
J 8 9 1 2
Time 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet 50 Instructions for the Candidates
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this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of
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questions.
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3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
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will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
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to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below
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To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
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paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
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a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an
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open booklet.
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Tally the number of pages and number of questions
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in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
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missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
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by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
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period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the
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Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra
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time will be given.
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After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
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should be entered on this Test Booklet.
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4. Each item has four alternative responses marked
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and You have to darken the circle as indicated below
ˆ¤üÖÆü¸üÞÖ
on the correct response against each item.
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Example
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where is the correct response.
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5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
×ÛúÃÖß †®µÖ ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ü ˆ¢Ö¸ü ×"ÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×ÛúŸÖ Ûú¸üŸÖê ŸÖÖê ˆÃÖÛúÖ ´Ö滵ÖÖÓÛú®Ö
at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will
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not be evaluated.
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6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
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7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
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8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or
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put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the
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space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose
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your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other
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unfair means, you will render yourself liable to
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disqualification.
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9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original
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OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
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compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
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Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10.
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11.
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10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
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11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
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12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper II
Note This paper contains fifty objective
type questions, each question carrying two
marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20 and the standard error of mean is then the sample size is
25
80
5
100
2. In a multiple regression model, the explained variance per d.f. is 50 and unexplained variance per d.f. is 10.
The F-ratio is
2.5
5
25
0.2
3. Which one of the following is random sampling method
Stratified Sampling
Cluster Sampling
Systematic Sampling
Judgement Sampling
not a
4. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume size is estimated considering buoyancy of exhaust gases, stack diameter, wind speed and stability of the atmosphere. The plume size .h depends on inside radius of stack as
.h . r
1/3
.h . r
2/3
.h . r
.h . r2
5. The acidity of normal rain water is due to
CO2
Cl2
NO2
SO2
6. Percent of water on the world's surface representing fresh water is
97
50
10
3
7. Concentration of CO2 in present day atmosphere is
220 ppm
280 ppm
360 ppm
390 ppm
8. Hardness of diamond is due to
Coordinate bonding
Covalent bonding
Electrovalent bonding
van der Waals forces
9. In biological systems sulphur is largely bound in
Lipids
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Proteins and nucleic acids
10. pH of 0.01 M HNO3 is
0.1 1
2 10
11. Which is a correct food chain in the Antarctic ecosystem
Phytoplankton Krill Carnivorous Plankton Emperor Penguin
Phytoplankton Krill Carnivorous Plankton Squid Elephant Seal Leopard Seal
Phytoplankton Herbivorous Zoo Plankton Carnivorous Plankton Adelic Penguin Emperor Penguin
Herbivorous Zoo Plankton Phytoplankton Carnivorous Plankton Elephant Seal Leopard Seal
12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion The phosphorous cycle in an ecosystem is a sedimentary cycle.
Reason Phosphorous does not occur naturally as gas.
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but
is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
13. Pyramid of trophic levels is always upright in case of
Biomass
Energy
Number
All of the above
14. Which of the following is a correct match
Periyar Kerala
Ranthambore M.P.
Panna U.P.
Bandhvgarh Bihar
15. Replacement of existing communities by any external condition is termed
Primary succession
Secondary succession
Autogenic succession
None of the above
16. The area where two major communities meet and blend together is termed as
Ecotype
Biotype
Ecotone
Meeting place
17. Indian wolf has become an important animal because
It's name appears in Red Data Book.
It is only an important member of food chain of almost all Indian forests.
Wild dogs disappeared due to their presence.
It has been chosen as a State animal.
18. Walkley and Black rapid titration method is used for the determination of
Organic carbon content of soil
Nitrate content of soil
Phosphate content of soil
Fluoride content of soil
19. Which one of the following is an endoenzyme in soil
Cellulase
Invertase
Protease
Dehydrogenase
20. Of the following humic groups which is not soluble in both acid and alkali
Fulvic acid
Humic acid
Humin
All of the above
21. The sources of thermal pollution are
Power plants
Cooling forests
Industrial effluents
All of the above
22. Which one of the following
radionuclides has the longest half life C14
Sr90
I131
Cs137
23. What is the importance of the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution brought in the year 1976
Insertion of Article 48-A
Insertion of Article 51-A
Insertion of Article 48-A and 51-A
None of the above
24. Who issues the Ecomark notification
Ministry of Environment and Forest, Govt. of India
Ministry of Human Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India
Department of Science and Technology, Govt. of India
Bureau of Indian Standards
25. Which one of the following is a waste recycling method of solid waste management
Pelletisation
Composting
Incineration
Sanitary Landfill
26. A hazardous waste is characterised by
Ignitibility
Reactivity
Toxicity
All of the above
27. How many hot spots have been identified in the world and Indian Subcontinent respectively
17, 2
12, 3
35, 2
17, 3
28. Which one of the following chemical species of mercury is highly toxic to living system
Mercurous ion
Mercuric ion
Organo mercurials
Atomic mercury
29. Natural gas is composed primarily of
Methane
n-butane
n-octane
A mixture of n-octane and n-butane
30. Which of the following is true regarding the Leopold interaction matrix used in Environmental Impact Assessment Process
It can be expanded.
It can be contracted.
It can be contracted and expanded.
It cannot be contracted and expanded.
31. Which of the following can be considered in Environmental Risk Assessment
Exposure period
Potency of a toxic material
Quality of models
All of the above
32. In India, Environmental Impact Assessment report of a proposed river valley project after environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years
5
10
30
2
33. An earthquake is rated as if its magnitude in Richter Scale is in the range of
4.0 4.9
7.0 7.9
6.0 6.9
5.0 5.9
34. What is the proportion of the frequency of occurrence of La Nina compared to El Nino
Half
One-third
Twice
Two-third
35. An element in soil will be considered as a trace element if its concentration is
1 2 wt
0.1 wt
2 wt
1 wt
36. Which of the following is correct about attribute data in Geographic Information System
Attributes are pieces of data that are connected or related to the points, lines or polygons mapped in the GIS.
Attribute data can be analysed to determine patterns of importance.
Attribute data is entered directly into a database where it is associated with element data.
All of the above
37. At Nadir, the LISS IV camera in IRS-P6 has a spatial resolution of
5.8 m
5.9 m
5.7 m
5.6 m
38. Which one of the following can be estimated by Flame Photometer
Sodium and Potassium
Cadmium and Cobalt
Chlorine and Bromine
Mercury and Arsenic
39. The contribution of COtowards
2 global warming has been estimated to be about
57 60%
60 75%
80 85%
45 55%
40. The principal components of photochemical smog in urban areas are
SO2 and NO2
SPM and CO
SPM and NO2
Hydrocarbons and Ozone
41. Match Lists I and II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below
List I List II
(Aerosol (Sources) Constituents)
Si 1. Gases in the ambient atmosphere
V 2. Natural sources
(iii)Benzo(a)pyrene 3. Combustion of certain kinds of fuel oil
Sulfuric acid 4. Incomplete droplets combustion
Codes
2 4 3 1
3 1 2 4
4 1 2 3
1 4 3 2
42. A river flowing at 20.0 m3/sec has a
tributary feeding into it with a flow rate of 5.0 m3/sec. Upstream from the point of junction. The fluoride concentration is 5 mg/L in the river and 10 mg/L in the tributary. Assuming fluoride to be conservative substance and rapid mixing in the river, the downstream concentration in the river is
6 mg/L
8 mg/L
8.5 mg/L
7.5 mg/L
43. The power obtained from a horizontal wind turbine operating at maximum efficiency is proportional to its diameter as
D2
D
D3/2
D
44. Noise of 90 dB for 8 hours represents 100% dose. If the noise of 93 dB is for 1 hour duration, it represents a dose of
25% 50%
75% 100%
45. Scale lengths associated with mesoscale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the range
10 500 m
1 200 km
100 1000 km
1000 10,000 km
46. When an atmosphere has an isothermal profile, it is
very stable
slightly stable
unstable
very unstable (turbulent)
47. The wavelength range of UV-C radiation is
320 400 nm
280 320 nm
100 1500 nm
240 280 nm
48. Lightening in the atmosphere produces
NO
CO
CO2
NH3
49. The maximum tidal energy potential in India is
in Gulf of Khambhat
in Gangetic delta in Sundarbans
along the coast of Odisha
along the coast of Chennai
50. The maximum theoretical efficiency of a silicon solar cell can be
45%
30%
12%
50%
Space For Rough Work
Paper-II 8
J-89-12
1.
(Signature) OMR Sheet No. ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2.
(Signature) (In figures as per admission card)
(Name) Roll (In words)
J 8 9 1 2
Time 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet 8 Number of Questions in this Booklet 50 Instructions for the Candidates
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this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of
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questions.
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3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
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will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
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to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below
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To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
¯Öã×ßÖÛúÖ Ã¾ÖßÛúÖ¸ü Ûú¸ëü …
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
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a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an
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open booklet.
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Tally the number of pages and number of questions
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in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
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missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
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by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
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period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the
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Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra
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time will be given.
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After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
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should be entered on this Test Booklet.
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4. Each item has four alternative responses marked
•ÖîÃÖÖ ×Ûú ®Öß"Öê פüÜÖÖµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æîü …
and You have to darken the circle as indicated below
ˆ¤üÖÆü¸üÞÖ
on the correct response against each item.
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Example
5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûêú ˆ¢Ö¸ü Ûêú¾Ö»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö ¯Ö¡Ö I Ûêú †®¤ü¸ü פüµÖê ÝÖµÖê OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛú ¯Ö¸ü Æüß
where is the correct response.
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ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper II
Note This paper contains fifty objective
type questions, each question carrying two
marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20 and the standard error of mean is then the sample size is
25
80
5
100
2. In a multiple regression model, the explained variance per d.f. is 50 and unexplained variance per d.f. is 10.
The F-ratio is
2.5
5
25
0.2
3. Which one of the following is random sampling method
Stratified Sampling
Cluster Sampling
Systematic Sampling
Judgement Sampling
not a
4. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume size is estimated considering buoyancy of exhaust gases, stack diameter, wind speed and stability of the atmosphere. The plume size .h depends on inside radius of stack as
.h . r
1/3
.h . r
2/3
.h . r
.h . r2
5. The acidity of normal rain water is due to
CO2
Cl2
NO2
SO2
6. Percent of water on the world's surface representing fresh water is
97
50
10
3
7. Concentration of CO2 in present day atmosphere is
220 ppm
280 ppm
360 ppm
390 ppm
8. Hardness of diamond is due to
Coordinate bonding
Covalent bonding
Electrovalent bonding
van der Waals forces
9. In biological systems sulphur is largely bound in
Lipids
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Proteins and nucleic acids
10. pH of 0.01 M HNO3 is
0.1 1
2 10
11. Which is a correct food chain in the Antarctic ecosystem
Phytoplankton Krill Carnivorous Plankton Emperor Penguin
Phytoplankton Krill Carnivorous Plankton Squid Elephant Seal Leopard Seal
Phytoplankton Herbivorous Zoo Plankton Carnivorous Plankton Adelic Penguin Emperor Penguin
Herbivorous Zoo Plankton Phytoplankton Carnivorous Plankton Elephant Seal Leopard Seal
12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion The phosphorous cycle in an ecosystem is a sedimentary cycle.
Reason Phosphorous does not occur naturally as gas.
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but
is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
13. Pyramid of trophic levels is always upright in case of
Biomass
Energy
Number
All of the above
14. Which of the following is a correct match
Periyar Kerala
Ranthambore M.P.
Panna U.P.
Bandhvgarh Bihar
15. Replacement of existing communities by any external condition is termed
Primary succession
Secondary succession
Autogenic succession
None of the above
16. The area where two major communities meet and blend together is termed as
Ecotype
Biotype
Ecotone
Meeting place
17. Indian wolf has become an important animal because
It's name appears in Red Data Book.
It is only an important member of food chain of almost all Indian forests.
Wild dogs disappeared due to their presence.
It has been chosen as a State animal.
18. Walkley and Black rapid titration method is used for the determination of
Organic carbon content of soil
Nitrate content of soil
Phosphate content of soil
Fluoride content of soil
19. Which one of the following is an endoenzyme in soil
Cellulase
Invertase
Protease
Dehydrogenase
20. Of the following humic groups which is not soluble in both acid and alkali
Fulvic acid
Humic acid
Humin
All of the above
21. The sources of thermal pollution are
Power plants
Cooling forests
Industrial effluents
All of the above
22. Which one of the following
radionuclides has the longest half life C14
Sr90
I131
Cs137
23. What is the importance of the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution brought in the year 1976
Insertion of Article 48-A
Insertion of Article 51-A
Insertion of Article 48-A and 51-A
None of the above
24. Who issues the Ecomark notification
Ministry of Environment and Forest, Govt. of India
Ministry of Human Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India
Department of Science and Technology, Govt. of India
Bureau of Indian Standards
25. Which one of the following is a waste recycling method of solid waste management
Pelletisation
Composting
Incineration
Sanitary Landfill
26. A hazardous waste is characterised by
Ignitibility
Reactivity
Toxicity
All of the above
27. How many hot spots have been identified in the world and Indian Subcontinent respectively
17, 2
12, 3
35, 2
17, 3
28. Which one of the following chemical species of mercury is highly toxic to living system
Mercurous ion
Mercuric ion
Organo mercurials
Atomic mercury
29. Natural gas is composed primarily of
Methane
n-butane
n-octane
A mixture of n-octane and n-butane
30. Which of the following is true regarding the Leopold interaction matrix used in Environmental Impact Assessment Process
It can be expanded.
It can be contracted.
It can be contracted and expanded.
It cannot be contracted and expanded.
31. Which of the following can be considered in Environmental Risk Assessment
Exposure period
Potency of a toxic material
Quality of models
All of the above
32. In India, Environmental Impact Assessment report of a proposed river valley project after environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years
5
10
30
2
33. An earthquake is rated as if its magnitude in Richter Scale is in the range of
4.0 4.9
7.0 7.9
6.0 6.9
5.0 5.9
34. What is the proportion of the frequency of occurrence of La Nina compared to El Nino
Half
One-third
Twice
Two-third
35. An element in soil will be considered as a trace element if its concentration is
1 2 wt
0.1 wt
2 wt
1 wt
36. Which of the following is correct about attribute data in Geographic Information System
Attributes are pieces of data that are connected or related to the points, lines or polygons mapped in the GIS.
Attribute data can be analysed to determine patterns of importance.
Attribute data is entered directly into a database where it is associated with element data.
All of the above
37. At Nadir, the LISS IV camera in IRS-P6 has a spatial resolution of
5.8 m
5.9 m
5.7 m
5.6 m
38. Which one of the following can be estimated by Flame Photometer
Sodium and Potassium
Cadmium and Cobalt
Chlorine and Bromine
Mercury and Arsenic
39. The contribution of COtowards
2 global warming has been estimated to be about
57 60%
60 75%
80 85%
45 55%
40. The principal components of photochemical smog in urban areas are
SO2 and NO2
SPM and CO
SPM and NO2
Hydrocarbons and Ozone
41. Match Lists I and II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below
List I List II
(Aerosol (Sources) Constituents)
Si 1. Gases in the ambient atmosphere
V 2. Natural sources
(iii)Benzo(a)pyrene 3. Combustion of certain kinds of fuel oil
Sulfuric acid 4. Incomplete droplets combustion
Codes
2 4 3 1
3 1 2 4
4 1 2 3
1 4 3 2
42. A river flowing at 20.0 m3/sec has a
tributary feeding into it with a flow rate of 5.0 m3/sec. Upstream from the point of junction. The fluoride concentration is 5 mg/L in the river and 10 mg/L in the tributary. Assuming fluoride to be conservative substance and rapid mixing in the river, the downstream concentration in the river is
6 mg/L
8 mg/L
8.5 mg/L
7.5 mg/L
43. The power obtained from a horizontal wind turbine operating at maximum efficiency is proportional to its diameter as
D2
D
D3/2
D
44. Noise of 90 dB for 8 hours represents 100% dose. If the noise of 93 dB is for 1 hour duration, it represents a dose of
25% 50%
75% 100%
45. Scale lengths associated with mesoscale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the range
10 500 m
1 200 km
100 1000 km
1000 10,000 km
46. When an atmosphere has an isothermal profile, it is
very stable
slightly stable
unstable
very unstable (turbulent)
47. The wavelength range of UV-C radiation is
320 400 nm
280 320 nm
100 1500 nm
240 280 nm
48. Lightening in the atmosphere produces
NO
CO
CO2
NH3
49. The maximum tidal energy potential in India is
in Gulf of Khambhat
in Gangetic delta in Sundarbans
along the coast of Odisha
along the coast of Chennai
50. The maximum theoretical efficiency of a silicon solar cell can be
45%
30%
12%
50%
Space For Rough Work
Paper-II 8
J-89-12
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