Exam Details
Subject | biotechnology | |
Paper | ||
Exam / Course | ph d | |
Department | ||
Organization | central university | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | 2016 | |
City, State | telangana, hyderabad |
Question Paper
1. Fatty acid methyl esters of varying carbon lengths can be separated by
Gas chromatography
Affinity column chromatography
Sucrose density gradient centrifugation
Ion exchange chromatography
Positively charged basic amino acids are
Lysine and arginine
Lysine and asparagine
Glutamine and arginine
Lysine and glutamine
If the Standard Gibb's free energy, for a reaction is positive then
the products will be favored
the reactants will be favored
the concentration of the reactants and products will be equal
all of the reactant will be converted to product
Succinate is converted to fumarate by succinate dehydrogenase. In the presence of reversible competitive inhibitor, malonate in place of succinate, the enzyme's
KIn decreases and Vmax remains the same
both KIn and Vmax decreases
KIn increases and Vmax remains the same
both KIn and Vmax increases
Which one of the following inhibits transcription?
Rifampicin
Chloremphenicol
Novobiocin
Kanamycin
A person's broca's area on his left hemisphere was affected when he experienced a stroke. What ability could be affected?
understanding what others say
being able to speak
being able to touch his nose
reading
Sex lethal in Drosophila is transcribed when
the X autosome balance is less than 0.5
the X autosome balance is 1 or greater
the X autosome balance equals 0.5
none of the above
A synchronous culture is one in which the majority of cells proceed through
Lag phase
Log phase
Exponential phase
Each cell cycle phase G G2 and
Which of the following statement is false:
Large insoluble or aggregate macromolecules are more immunogenic
D-amino acid polymers are more immunogenic
L amino acid polymers can be easily degraded within APCs
B cell only recognizes antigen presented by class I or Class II molecules
10) One of the following is not molecular descriptor
Molecular weight
LogP
Molecular absorption
Refractive index
11) Cells that release histamine and other vasoactive substances in response to allergens are:
Neutrophils
macrophages
NK cells
mast cells
12) One of the following nucleotide substitution in the coding part of DNA is an example of synonymous substitution
TCC to TCA (Serine to Serine)
GAC to CAC (Aspartate to Arginine)
TGG to TGA (Tryptophan to stop-codon)
GAA to GCA (Glutamate to Alanine)
13) When the power of ocular lens is 10 x and objective lens is 20 the magnification is
30 times
20 times
200 times
2000 times
14) The following are true about antigen presenting cells EXCEPT:
Langerhan cells are the antigen presenting cells of the epidermis
Expresses co stimulatory molecules
CD8+ cells only recognize antigen presenting cells bearing MHC I molecules
Follicular dendritic cells are professional antigen presenting cells.
15) Which of the following occur in the presence of glucose?
lac Z gene expression is increased
cAMP increases
Binding of CAP-cAMP complex to the promoter area decreases
none of the above
16) SDS is used in polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis of a mixture of proteins for their efficient separation on the gel. SDS, in this experiment, is used to
stabilize the protein
solubilize the protein
decrease the surface tension of buffer
have uniform charge density on the proteins
17) The cells recognizes antigenic peptides:
only in the free form
only when loaded onto MHC molecule
only when bound to hapten
only when bound by antibodies
18) Which of the following mutations is most likely to be disruptive to protein synthesis or function?
UAUtoUAC
UAUtoUUU
UAUtoUAA
UAUtoCAU
19) Which of the following separation method is best suited for a protein sample with large differences in molecular mass?
Dialysis
Salting out process
Isopycnic centrifugation
Rate zonal centrifugation
20) Cell that has higher mitochondrial activity
Lymphocytes
RBC
Neuron
Fibroblast
21) CD antigens
allow leukocytes to recognize antigen
are each expressed on only one cell type
are expressed on immune cells to mark them for separation
function as receptors for cytokine and CAMs
22) Spectroscopy measures the change in behaviour of a molecule when it is exposed to
Centrifugal force
Acidic conditions
An electrical charge
Electromagnetic radiation
23) Following is a ligand-based drug design approach:
Docking
QSAR
Dynamics
Monte Carlo
24) Among the following, which vector-borne disease is not transmitted by the mosquitoes?
Chikungunya
Leishmaniasis
Lymphatic filariasis
Japanese encephalitis
25) Which one of the following amino acid is NOT post-translationally modified by
phosphorylation
Glycine
Serine
Threonine
Tyrosine
26) The mechanism by which a pH gradient across a membrane is used to drive an energy requiring process such as the rotation of bacterial flagella
Proton-motive force
Chemiosmotic coupling
Oxidative phosphorylation
Electrochemical proton gradient
27) The pH of inter-membrane space, stroma and thylakoid lumen are
7.5 and 7.0
8,5 and 7.5
7,7.5and5
7,5.0 and 7.5
28) Specific solutes move through the membrane much more slowly via transports than by channels. This is because
Transporters must bind the solute and undergo a series of conformational changes
to transfer the solute across the membrane
Transport through channels is much faster because they are ion specific pores that neither bind the ion nor undergo any conformational changes in order to move it across the membrane.
Transporters undergo a series of conformational changes and must bind the solute to transfer the solute across the membrane.
BothAandB
29) Which of the following participate in cell signaling despite present in very small quantities in the plasma membrane of mammalian cells
Phosphatidylserine
Phosphatidylinositol
Sphingomyelin
Phosphatidylethanolamine
30) A technique which monitors the closeness of two fluorescently labelled molecules and their interactions in cells is
NMR
FRET
Western blotting
Two-hybrid system
31) Which one of the following properties of an enzyme is responsible for its saturation behaviour that is, a maximum rate insensitive to increasing substrate concentration?
The energy does not change the overall equilibrium constant for a reaction.
The enzyme has a fixed number of active sites where substrate binds.
The product of the enzyme reaction usually inhibits the enzyme.
The enzyme lowers the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
32) The half-life of one of the following radioactive isotopes is 5730 years. Identify it
35S
³H
14C
³²p
33) The specific activity of an enzyme would be reported in which of the following units
of measure?
Millimoles per liter
Units per milligram
Micromoles per minute
Milligrams per micromole
34) Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?
6-phospho-gluconate
Gluconate
Glucose
Glucuronate
35) Arrange in sequence the following events that are performed during the isolation of genetic material in recombinant DNA technology
1.Removal of DNA by spooling
2.Precipitation of DNA
3.Dissolution of biological membranes
4. Enzymatic digestion
36) Cerebral aqueduct is associated with
Broca's area
Wernicke's area
Angular gyrus
Ventricles
37) Deficiency of thymus results in increased infections in humans such a condition is called:
Thymectomy
Graves disease
Di Georges syndrome
All the above
38) A redox reaction in the citric acid cycle whith do not use NAD+ to accept electrons
Oxidation of Fumarate
Oxidation of Succinate
Oxidation of Citrate
Oxidation of Oxaloacetate
39) The type of silencing involved in miRNA is
Transcriptional
Translational
Post transcriptional
Post translational
40) Which of the following is an epimeric pair?
D-glucose and D-glucosamine
D-glucose and D-mannose
D-lactose and D-sucrose
L-manno"se and L-fructose
41) What type of enzyme is used in recombinant DNA technology to split a specific sugar phosphate bond in each strand of a DNA double helix?
Esterase
Restriction enzyme
Lipase
Ligase
42) Which of the following detergent is commonly used to release integral proteins from its membranes?
Urea
Dimethyl sulphoxide
Triton X 100
Cyanogen bromide
43) In which of the following separation method where proteins are separated on the basis of their net charge
Ion exchange chromatography
Affinity chromatography
Dialysis
Gel filtration chromatography
44) Which of the following can precipitate antigens:
Fab
Fc
F(ab)a
All
45) One of the following molecule binds to major grove of DNA
Ethidium bromide
Distamycin
Cisplatin
Methyl green
46) You have been asked to PCR amplify a specific sequence from cDNA that was synthesized from mRNA isolated from brain tissue. After you run your potential PCR product on an agarose gel, you observe no bands when you visualize the gel using ultraviolet light. Why might this be the case?
The gene you are interested in is not expressed in brain tissue.
You used poly dT instead of poly dA to prime the first strand cDNA synthesis.
You used RNAse H instead of DNAse H to leave behind small segments of RNA
to.prime the second strand cDNA synthesis reaction.
You used reverse transcriptase instead of DNA polymerase to synthesize the first strand of cDNA.
47) The specificity of a ligand binding site on a protein is based on
the absence of competing ligands
the amino acid residues lining the binding site
the presence of hydrating water molecules
the opposite chirality of the binding ligand
48) Staphylococci causes
Food intoxication
Food Infection
Food preservation
Food quality improvement
49) a-amylase is produced by
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Clostridium acetobutylicum
Bacillus subtilis
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
50) An enzyme was purified to 1500-fold by applying different chromatographic steps to the 70% ammonium sulphate precipitated crude protein. If the enzyme is pure at this stage what fraction of the protein in the cell does it constitute?
70%
0.07%
30%
51) Catenanated dsDNA molecules can be resolved leased by
Topoisomerase I
Helicase
Resolvas
Topoisomerase II
52) Non-covalent pairing intermediate formed during homologous strand exchange is called
Joint molecule
dsDNA
ssDNA
Triplex DNA
53) RecA bound helical nucleoprotein is formed through cooperative interaction with
G-protein
single strand binding protein
Beta-protein
SI-protein
54) Following is a classification method
Support vector machine
Simulated annealing
Fragment assembly
Topological shapes
55) During splicing, which of the following snRNPs bind to a nucleotide sequence found in introns called the branch site.
VI
V2
V4 and U6
V5
56) Following species escape from immune recognition
Protein
Peptide
1000 nm particle
400 nm particle
57) If one requires to maintain pH at 4.2, which is best buffer
Borate
Acetate
Phosphate
Borax
58) Which part of the brain controls eating, drinking, body temperature and provides a link between the brain and the endocrine system?
Parietal lobes
Temporallobes
Amygdala
Hypothalamus
59) Eukaryotic cells with DNA damage often cease progression through the cell cycle until the damage is repaired. This type of control over the cell cycle is referred to as
Proteosome control
Damage control
Anticyclin control
Checkpoint control
60) Which lobe is connected with thinking, planning and emotional control?
Frontal
Occipital
Temporal
Parietal
61) Different possess of a target receptor and ligand are simulated in
Rigid docking
QSAR
CoMFA
Flexible docking
62) The class of immunoglobulin that can get transported across epithelial cells is
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgM
63) Multiple sclerosis could disintegrate a neuron's which ultimately could
affect the speed of a neural impulse.
Dendrites
Axons
Myelin Sheath
Synapse
64) You have been asked to conduct analyses of histones from active and inactive regions of chromatin, where genes are expressed and repressed respectively. While conducting your analyses, which of the following observations would be
UNEXPECTED?
Methylation of lysine residues in some histones is associated with establishment
of heterochromatin, and results in gene silencing.
Serine residues in the tails of some histones have been phosphorylated, and this is
associated with changes in chromatin activity.
Lysine residues in the histone tails have been serinated, resulting in inactive
chromatin, where genes are not expressed.
Acetylation of lysine residues in some histones is associated with active regions
of chromatin, where genes are expressed.
65) Which one of the following structures is NOT found in the central nervous system?
Spinal cord
Thalamus
Pons
Dorsal root ganglion
66) Signal sequences are part of a protein that
signal folding of the protein
signal the protein synthesis on the ribosomes is ended
transport proteins to other sites within the cell
refold proteins in prion-associated diseases.
67) For specific antigen recognition by T cells,
antigen is bound by a T cell membrane antibody
denaturation of antigen does not reduce epitope recognition
MHC molecules are not required
antigen exposure during T cell maturation is required
68) A virus vaccine that can activate cytotoxic T cells must contain
a high dose of virus particles
an adjuvant to stimulate T cell division
live virus
virus peptides
69) Two couples present to the emergency room with severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. One of the patients admits that she had a dinner party and served a salad containing mushrooms she had picked during a hike in the forest earlier that day. Inhibition of which enzyme or process explains the clinical manifestations of alphaamanitin poisoning seen in these patients?
RNA polymerase II
RNA polymerase I
RNA polyadenylation
RNA polymerase III
70) The unfolding of regular secondary structure causes
little increase in the entropy of protein
large decrease in the entropy of the protein
no change in the entropy of the protein
large increase in the entropy of the protein
71) Why is it that inhaling nitric oxide reduces blood pressure only in the lung tissue and not elsewhere in the body?
Because other body tissues use a different signaling molecule
Because nitric oxide cannot cross cell membranes and enter the blood
Because nitric oxide breaks down quickly and thus cannot travel far
None of the above
72) Antibiotic that acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis
Erythromycin
Puromycin
Amphotericin
Penicillin
73) One of the following is not a prion disease
Scrapie
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Creutzfeldt -Jacob Disease
Parkinson's disease
74) In the context of prokaryotic gene expression, which of the following is the most appropriate definition of an operator?
A cJuster of genes that are regulated by a single promoter.
A DNA-binding protein that regulates gene expression.
A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by RNA polymerase.
A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by a repressor protein.
75) The technique used to detect the presence of DNA or RNA in a non-fractionated
DNA sample is
in situ hybridization
colony hybridization
dot blot technique
western blotting technique
Gas chromatography
Affinity column chromatography
Sucrose density gradient centrifugation
Ion exchange chromatography
Positively charged basic amino acids are
Lysine and arginine
Lysine and asparagine
Glutamine and arginine
Lysine and glutamine
If the Standard Gibb's free energy, for a reaction is positive then
the products will be favored
the reactants will be favored
the concentration of the reactants and products will be equal
all of the reactant will be converted to product
Succinate is converted to fumarate by succinate dehydrogenase. In the presence of reversible competitive inhibitor, malonate in place of succinate, the enzyme's
KIn decreases and Vmax remains the same
both KIn and Vmax decreases
KIn increases and Vmax remains the same
both KIn and Vmax increases
Which one of the following inhibits transcription?
Rifampicin
Chloremphenicol
Novobiocin
Kanamycin
A person's broca's area on his left hemisphere was affected when he experienced a stroke. What ability could be affected?
understanding what others say
being able to speak
being able to touch his nose
reading
Sex lethal in Drosophila is transcribed when
the X autosome balance is less than 0.5
the X autosome balance is 1 or greater
the X autosome balance equals 0.5
none of the above
A synchronous culture is one in which the majority of cells proceed through
Lag phase
Log phase
Exponential phase
Each cell cycle phase G G2 and
Which of the following statement is false:
Large insoluble or aggregate macromolecules are more immunogenic
D-amino acid polymers are more immunogenic
L amino acid polymers can be easily degraded within APCs
B cell only recognizes antigen presented by class I or Class II molecules
10) One of the following is not molecular descriptor
Molecular weight
LogP
Molecular absorption
Refractive index
11) Cells that release histamine and other vasoactive substances in response to allergens are:
Neutrophils
macrophages
NK cells
mast cells
12) One of the following nucleotide substitution in the coding part of DNA is an example of synonymous substitution
TCC to TCA (Serine to Serine)
GAC to CAC (Aspartate to Arginine)
TGG to TGA (Tryptophan to stop-codon)
GAA to GCA (Glutamate to Alanine)
13) When the power of ocular lens is 10 x and objective lens is 20 the magnification is
30 times
20 times
200 times
2000 times
14) The following are true about antigen presenting cells EXCEPT:
Langerhan cells are the antigen presenting cells of the epidermis
Expresses co stimulatory molecules
CD8+ cells only recognize antigen presenting cells bearing MHC I molecules
Follicular dendritic cells are professional antigen presenting cells.
15) Which of the following occur in the presence of glucose?
lac Z gene expression is increased
cAMP increases
Binding of CAP-cAMP complex to the promoter area decreases
none of the above
16) SDS is used in polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis of a mixture of proteins for their efficient separation on the gel. SDS, in this experiment, is used to
stabilize the protein
solubilize the protein
decrease the surface tension of buffer
have uniform charge density on the proteins
17) The cells recognizes antigenic peptides:
only in the free form
only when loaded onto MHC molecule
only when bound to hapten
only when bound by antibodies
18) Which of the following mutations is most likely to be disruptive to protein synthesis or function?
UAUtoUAC
UAUtoUUU
UAUtoUAA
UAUtoCAU
19) Which of the following separation method is best suited for a protein sample with large differences in molecular mass?
Dialysis
Salting out process
Isopycnic centrifugation
Rate zonal centrifugation
20) Cell that has higher mitochondrial activity
Lymphocytes
RBC
Neuron
Fibroblast
21) CD antigens
allow leukocytes to recognize antigen
are each expressed on only one cell type
are expressed on immune cells to mark them for separation
function as receptors for cytokine and CAMs
22) Spectroscopy measures the change in behaviour of a molecule when it is exposed to
Centrifugal force
Acidic conditions
An electrical charge
Electromagnetic radiation
23) Following is a ligand-based drug design approach:
Docking
QSAR
Dynamics
Monte Carlo
24) Among the following, which vector-borne disease is not transmitted by the mosquitoes?
Chikungunya
Leishmaniasis
Lymphatic filariasis
Japanese encephalitis
25) Which one of the following amino acid is NOT post-translationally modified by
phosphorylation
Glycine
Serine
Threonine
Tyrosine
26) The mechanism by which a pH gradient across a membrane is used to drive an energy requiring process such as the rotation of bacterial flagella
Proton-motive force
Chemiosmotic coupling
Oxidative phosphorylation
Electrochemical proton gradient
27) The pH of inter-membrane space, stroma and thylakoid lumen are
7.5 and 7.0
8,5 and 7.5
7,7.5and5
7,5.0 and 7.5
28) Specific solutes move through the membrane much more slowly via transports than by channels. This is because
Transporters must bind the solute and undergo a series of conformational changes
to transfer the solute across the membrane
Transport through channels is much faster because they are ion specific pores that neither bind the ion nor undergo any conformational changes in order to move it across the membrane.
Transporters undergo a series of conformational changes and must bind the solute to transfer the solute across the membrane.
BothAandB
29) Which of the following participate in cell signaling despite present in very small quantities in the plasma membrane of mammalian cells
Phosphatidylserine
Phosphatidylinositol
Sphingomyelin
Phosphatidylethanolamine
30) A technique which monitors the closeness of two fluorescently labelled molecules and their interactions in cells is
NMR
FRET
Western blotting
Two-hybrid system
31) Which one of the following properties of an enzyme is responsible for its saturation behaviour that is, a maximum rate insensitive to increasing substrate concentration?
The energy does not change the overall equilibrium constant for a reaction.
The enzyme has a fixed number of active sites where substrate binds.
The product of the enzyme reaction usually inhibits the enzyme.
The enzyme lowers the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
32) The half-life of one of the following radioactive isotopes is 5730 years. Identify it
35S
³H
14C
³²p
33) The specific activity of an enzyme would be reported in which of the following units
of measure?
Millimoles per liter
Units per milligram
Micromoles per minute
Milligrams per micromole
34) Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?
6-phospho-gluconate
Gluconate
Glucose
Glucuronate
35) Arrange in sequence the following events that are performed during the isolation of genetic material in recombinant DNA technology
1.Removal of DNA by spooling
2.Precipitation of DNA
3.Dissolution of biological membranes
4. Enzymatic digestion
36) Cerebral aqueduct is associated with
Broca's area
Wernicke's area
Angular gyrus
Ventricles
37) Deficiency of thymus results in increased infections in humans such a condition is called:
Thymectomy
Graves disease
Di Georges syndrome
All the above
38) A redox reaction in the citric acid cycle whith do not use NAD+ to accept electrons
Oxidation of Fumarate
Oxidation of Succinate
Oxidation of Citrate
Oxidation of Oxaloacetate
39) The type of silencing involved in miRNA is
Transcriptional
Translational
Post transcriptional
Post translational
40) Which of the following is an epimeric pair?
D-glucose and D-glucosamine
D-glucose and D-mannose
D-lactose and D-sucrose
L-manno"se and L-fructose
41) What type of enzyme is used in recombinant DNA technology to split a specific sugar phosphate bond in each strand of a DNA double helix?
Esterase
Restriction enzyme
Lipase
Ligase
42) Which of the following detergent is commonly used to release integral proteins from its membranes?
Urea
Dimethyl sulphoxide
Triton X 100
Cyanogen bromide
43) In which of the following separation method where proteins are separated on the basis of their net charge
Ion exchange chromatography
Affinity chromatography
Dialysis
Gel filtration chromatography
44) Which of the following can precipitate antigens:
Fab
Fc
F(ab)a
All
45) One of the following molecule binds to major grove of DNA
Ethidium bromide
Distamycin
Cisplatin
Methyl green
46) You have been asked to PCR amplify a specific sequence from cDNA that was synthesized from mRNA isolated from brain tissue. After you run your potential PCR product on an agarose gel, you observe no bands when you visualize the gel using ultraviolet light. Why might this be the case?
The gene you are interested in is not expressed in brain tissue.
You used poly dT instead of poly dA to prime the first strand cDNA synthesis.
You used RNAse H instead of DNAse H to leave behind small segments of RNA
to.prime the second strand cDNA synthesis reaction.
You used reverse transcriptase instead of DNA polymerase to synthesize the first strand of cDNA.
47) The specificity of a ligand binding site on a protein is based on
the absence of competing ligands
the amino acid residues lining the binding site
the presence of hydrating water molecules
the opposite chirality of the binding ligand
48) Staphylococci causes
Food intoxication
Food Infection
Food preservation
Food quality improvement
49) a-amylase is produced by
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Clostridium acetobutylicum
Bacillus subtilis
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
50) An enzyme was purified to 1500-fold by applying different chromatographic steps to the 70% ammonium sulphate precipitated crude protein. If the enzyme is pure at this stage what fraction of the protein in the cell does it constitute?
70%
0.07%
30%
51) Catenanated dsDNA molecules can be resolved leased by
Topoisomerase I
Helicase
Resolvas
Topoisomerase II
52) Non-covalent pairing intermediate formed during homologous strand exchange is called
Joint molecule
dsDNA
ssDNA
Triplex DNA
53) RecA bound helical nucleoprotein is formed through cooperative interaction with
G-protein
single strand binding protein
Beta-protein
SI-protein
54) Following is a classification method
Support vector machine
Simulated annealing
Fragment assembly
Topological shapes
55) During splicing, which of the following snRNPs bind to a nucleotide sequence found in introns called the branch site.
VI
V2
V4 and U6
V5
56) Following species escape from immune recognition
Protein
Peptide
1000 nm particle
400 nm particle
57) If one requires to maintain pH at 4.2, which is best buffer
Borate
Acetate
Phosphate
Borax
58) Which part of the brain controls eating, drinking, body temperature and provides a link between the brain and the endocrine system?
Parietal lobes
Temporallobes
Amygdala
Hypothalamus
59) Eukaryotic cells with DNA damage often cease progression through the cell cycle until the damage is repaired. This type of control over the cell cycle is referred to as
Proteosome control
Damage control
Anticyclin control
Checkpoint control
60) Which lobe is connected with thinking, planning and emotional control?
Frontal
Occipital
Temporal
Parietal
61) Different possess of a target receptor and ligand are simulated in
Rigid docking
QSAR
CoMFA
Flexible docking
62) The class of immunoglobulin that can get transported across epithelial cells is
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgM
63) Multiple sclerosis could disintegrate a neuron's which ultimately could
affect the speed of a neural impulse.
Dendrites
Axons
Myelin Sheath
Synapse
64) You have been asked to conduct analyses of histones from active and inactive regions of chromatin, where genes are expressed and repressed respectively. While conducting your analyses, which of the following observations would be
UNEXPECTED?
Methylation of lysine residues in some histones is associated with establishment
of heterochromatin, and results in gene silencing.
Serine residues in the tails of some histones have been phosphorylated, and this is
associated with changes in chromatin activity.
Lysine residues in the histone tails have been serinated, resulting in inactive
chromatin, where genes are not expressed.
Acetylation of lysine residues in some histones is associated with active regions
of chromatin, where genes are expressed.
65) Which one of the following structures is NOT found in the central nervous system?
Spinal cord
Thalamus
Pons
Dorsal root ganglion
66) Signal sequences are part of a protein that
signal folding of the protein
signal the protein synthesis on the ribosomes is ended
transport proteins to other sites within the cell
refold proteins in prion-associated diseases.
67) For specific antigen recognition by T cells,
antigen is bound by a T cell membrane antibody
denaturation of antigen does not reduce epitope recognition
MHC molecules are not required
antigen exposure during T cell maturation is required
68) A virus vaccine that can activate cytotoxic T cells must contain
a high dose of virus particles
an adjuvant to stimulate T cell division
live virus
virus peptides
69) Two couples present to the emergency room with severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. One of the patients admits that she had a dinner party and served a salad containing mushrooms she had picked during a hike in the forest earlier that day. Inhibition of which enzyme or process explains the clinical manifestations of alphaamanitin poisoning seen in these patients?
RNA polymerase II
RNA polymerase I
RNA polyadenylation
RNA polymerase III
70) The unfolding of regular secondary structure causes
little increase in the entropy of protein
large decrease in the entropy of the protein
no change in the entropy of the protein
large increase in the entropy of the protein
71) Why is it that inhaling nitric oxide reduces blood pressure only in the lung tissue and not elsewhere in the body?
Because other body tissues use a different signaling molecule
Because nitric oxide cannot cross cell membranes and enter the blood
Because nitric oxide breaks down quickly and thus cannot travel far
None of the above
72) Antibiotic that acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis
Erythromycin
Puromycin
Amphotericin
Penicillin
73) One of the following is not a prion disease
Scrapie
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Creutzfeldt -Jacob Disease
Parkinson's disease
74) In the context of prokaryotic gene expression, which of the following is the most appropriate definition of an operator?
A cJuster of genes that are regulated by a single promoter.
A DNA-binding protein that regulates gene expression.
A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by RNA polymerase.
A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by a repressor protein.
75) The technique used to detect the presence of DNA or RNA in a non-fractionated
DNA sample is
in situ hybridization
colony hybridization
dot blot technique
western blotting technique
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