1. Which one of the following techniques is used for studying genome wide differential gene expression

A. Western blotting

B. Northern blotting

C. DNA microarray

D. Pyro-sequencing of genomes

2. Which of the following BLAST programs is used for protein query against a translated nucleotide sequence database

A. Blastp

B. Blastn

C. tblastx

D. Tblastn

3. Which of the following amino acids is least mutable according to the PAM scoring matrix?

A. Alanine

B. Glutamine

C. Methionine

D. Cysteine

4. If the ratio A260/A280 nm of a DNA solution is 1.4, it indicates contamination of DNA preparation with

A. Carbohydrate

B. RNA

C. Protein

D. Salt


5. The methods used for locating transcription start site are

A. Gel retardation and foot printing

B. Northern analysis and RT-PCR

C. Primer extension and S1 nuclease mapping

D. Cloning of UTRs and DNA Sequencing

6. Which one of the following is a M 13 based vector

A. pBR322

B. pT7blue

C. pUC18

D. Cosmid

7. DNA fragment size suitable to cloning in a lamda replacement vector

A. 30kb

B. 35kb

C. 18kb

D. 53kb

8. In a yeast two hybrid assay if two test proteins (bait and prey) are interacting with each other, then

A. LacZ reporter gene will be strongly repressed

B. LacZ reporter gene will be expressed

C. LacZ reporter gene expression is repressed by LacI

D. LacZ reporter gene expression is unaffected

9. RNA is susceptible to alkaline hydrolysis, but not DNA because

A. RNA is single stranded and nitrogenous bases are exposed to alkali

B. RNA can form intra base-pairing, but not DNA

C. RNA has group

D. RNA is smaller than DNA

10. Which one of the following has high gene density

A. Human

B. Arabidopsis

C. Drosophila

D. E.coli

11. Processivity of DNA polymerase is enhanced by

A. DNA helicase

B. Sliding clamp

C. Topoisomerase

D. RNA helicase

12. Which form of the following plasmid DNA migrates faster during agarose gel electrophoresis

A. highly super-coiled plasmid DNA

B. relaxed plasmid DNA

C. linear plasmid DNA

D. nicked circular plasmid DNA

13. Which one of the following E.coli sigma subunit is required for transcription of heat inducible genes

A. Sigma 70

B. Sigma 32

C. Sigma 54

D. Sigma 28

14. Which one of the following is NOT a state function?

A. Internal energy

B. Heat

C. Enthalpy

D. Entropy

15. Number of vibrational degrees of freedom for ethylene molecule is

A. 18

B. 15

C. 12

D. ll


16. Symmetry elements of ammonia molecule contain

A. C3-axis of symmetry and one centre of symmetry

B. C3-axis of symmetry and three planes of symmetry

C. C2-axis of symmetry and one centre of symmetry

D. C2-axis of symmetry and two planes of symmetry

17. Volume of a balloon filled with an ideal gas is 5L, at 1atm and 25°C; what will be the volume of the balloon if temperature increases to 35°C?

A. 3.57 L

B. 4.84 L

C. 5.17 L

D. 7.0 L

18. Which of the following sequence is correct, if the molecules are arranged according to their bond energies?

A. H2> F2> Cl2> Br2

B. H2> Cl2> F2> Br2

C. F2> Cl2> Br2> H2

D. Cl2> F2> Br2> H2

19. Addition of an inhibitor does not change KmlVmax value, if the mechanism of inhibition is

A. Competitive

B. Uncompetitive

C. Non competitive

D. All the above

20. Generally, in a fluorescent experiment, moving the excitation wavelength to higher wavelength,

A. does not affect the emission wavelength

B. blue shifts emission wavelength

C. red shifts emission wavelength

D. depends on the solvent and temperature

21. The chloroplast genome of higher plants contain

A. Twelve genes

B. Hundred and twenty genes

C. Twelve hundred genes

D. Twelve thousand genes

22. The metabolite that causes internal bleeding in mammals

A. Stilbenes

B. Coumarins

C. Ferulic acid

D. Chalcones

23. Denaturation of a protein involves

A. Partial loss of amino acid sequence

B. Loss of alpha-helices

C. Loss of beta-sheets

D. Loss of 3-D shape and catalytic activity

24. A particle moves with a constant velocity parallel to the X-axis. Its angular momentum with respect to the origin,

A. Is zero

B. Remains constant

C. Goes on decreasing

D. Goes on increasing

25. The secondary pacemaker of the heart is known as the:

A. AV node

B. SA node

C. Purkinje Bundle

D. None of the above


26. The resting potential of a neuron is dependent on what two ions?

A. lead and calcium ions

B. calcium and phosphate ions

C. sodium and potassium ions

D. potassium and phosphate ions

27. A double stranded DNA showed a positive peak around 260nm followed by a negative trough -what form of DNA it is?

A. A form

B. B form

C. C form

D. Z form

28. Alpha helix of a protein can be estimated at the following wavelength in CD spectrum

A. 217 nm

B. 190 nm

C. 222 nm

D. 280 nm

29. DNA

A. is more susceptible than RNA to degradation at high pH

B. can hybridize with other DNA molecules but not with RNA

C. has fewer hydroxyl groups than RNA

D. has catalytic activity

30. Which one of the following radiolabeled compounds is most commonly used for studying DNA synthesis in cultures of Escherichia coli?

A. thymidine

B. uridine

C. [gama 32p] dATP

D. [alpha 32p] dATP

31. The lac repressor

A. Is induced by exposure of a bacterial cell to lactose

B. Uses the same promoter as the lacZ gene

C. Changes the shape in the presence of inducer

D. Can form alternate stem-loop structures

32. Following is not a characteristic of the mRNA cap

A. 7-methylguanosine triphosphate

B. methylation

C. linkage

D. linkage

33. How (eukaryotic) viruses acquire lipid membranes?

A. The lipids are synthesized by proteins coded by viral genes.

B. The viral capsid acquires the membrane when it leaves the host cell.

C. The viral capsid acquires the membrane when it is assembled inside the host cell.

D. The viral capsid acquires the membrane when it first binds to a host cell.

34. Which of the following is NOT a type of histone modification?

A. Acetylation

B. ADP-ribosylation

C. Methylation

D. Phosphorylation

35. Enzyme which incorporate oxygen into a substrate are called

A. Oxidases

B. Dehydrogenases

C. Oxygenases

D. Hydroperooxidases

36. The bonds that are important in the secondary structure of protein are

A. Hydrophobic interactions

B. Peptide bonds

C. Hydrogen bonds

D. Disulphide bonds

37. The cell wall component ofGram negative bacteria which is mostly associated with the induction of septic shock.

A. Capsular protein

B. Endotoxin

C. Peptidoglycan

D. Phospholipid

38. Select the principal means by which antigenic shift occurs in influenza A virus.

A. Low fidelity of DNA dependent DNA polymerase

B. Low fidelity of RNA dependent RNA polymerase

C. Low fidelity of reverse transcriptase

D. Reassortment of fragments of the RNA genome

39. Which of the statement about hemoglobin is NOT correct?

A. Number of contacts between two alpha chains are less than the contacts between alpha and beta chains

B. Increasing pH increases the percentage of oxygen saturation at a given oxygen partial pressure

C. During deoxygenation, hemes of alpha chains are slightly separated apart and beta chains come closer

D. In sickle cell hemoglobin glutamic acid is replaced with valine in the sixth position of beta chain

40. By adding SDS (sodium dodecyl sulfate) during the electrophoresis of proteins, it is possible to:

A. determine an enzyme's specific activity

B. determine the amino acid composition of the protein

C. preserve a protein's native structure and biological activity

D. separate proteins exclusively on the basis of molecular weight


41. One round of Edman degradation of the peptide: H2N-Gly-Arg-Lys-Phe-Asp----­COOH would result in which of the following structures or their phenyl isothiocyanate derivatives?

A. H2N-Gly-Arg-COOH H2N-Lys-Phe-Asp-COOH

B. H2N-Gly-Arg-Lys-Phe-COOH Asp

C. H2N-Arg-Lys-Phe-Asp-COOH Gly

D. H2N-Gly-Arg-Lys-COOH H2N-Phe-Asp-COOH

42. Aromatic amino acids can be detected by

A. Sakaguchi reaction.

B. Millon-Nasse reaction

C. Hopkins-Cole reaction

D. Xanthoproteic reaction

43. Death of T cells in negative selection occurs because of

A. Low affinity receptors for self MHC

B. High affinity receptors for self MHC

C. Both

D. None

44. The primary activities of complement system DO NOT include

A. Opsonization

B. Cell Lysis

C. Clearance of immune complexes

D. Tissue regeneration

45. Which of the following is used to search protein database using a translated nucleotide query?

A. BLASTp

B. BLASTx

C. tBLASTn

D. tBLASTx

46. Which of the following is the distance based method for phylogenetic analysis?

A. Neighbor-Joining method

B. Maximum Parsimony method

C. Maximum Likelihood method

D. all above methods

47. BLOSUM is an acronym for

A. Basic substraction matrix

B. Basic local summation matrix

C. Blocks substitution matrix

D. Blocks substituted mutation

48. Which of the following tool is used for molecular structure file conversion?

A. BABEL

B. PHYLIP

C. CLUSTAL

D. MSFC

49. Which of the following is SMILE code for 2-Propanol?

A. CCOC-2

B. CC(O)C

C. CCC-2OH

D. CCCO

50. Glutathione and Glutathione conjugates originate from

A. Methionine

B. S-adenosyl methionine

C. Cysteine

D. Cystine

51. Bioactive endogenous gibberellic acids are rendered inactive by

A. 2 beta-hydroxylation

B. 3 beta-hydroxylation

C. 2,3beta-hydroxylation

D. 2 alpha-hydroxylation

52. One of the following organisms that produces carbapenemase enzyme and termed as a 'superbug'

A. MRSA

B. Clostridium difficile

C. NDM-l positive E.coli

D. Yersinia pestis


60. Method(s) used to validate protein-protein interaction

A. Immuno-coprecipitation and pull down

B. Biacore analysis

C. Yeast two hybrid assay

D. All of the above

61. Which of the following is NOT a virulence factor

A. Invasins

B. Adhesins

C. Collectins

D. Flagellins

62. The following DNA sequence assembly tool is used to assemble short reads data.

A. Velvet

B. Mummer

C. VectorNTI

D. Artemis

63. The following is an online genome annotation tool

A. RAST

B. Mg-RAST

C. Annotate -it

D. GeneScan

64. which of the following techniques is useful in determining the movement of proteins within a nucleus?

A. Electron microscopy

B. Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching (FRAP)

C. Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)

D. Confocal light microscopy

65. Nonsense-mediated RNA decay is a system for the degradation of eukaryotic mRNA molecules with what features?

A. NMD degrades mRNA molecules with stop codons at incorrect positions.

B. NMD degrades mRNA molecules that encode non functional proteins.

C. NMD degrades mRNA molecules that lack a start codon.

D. NMD degrades mRNA molecules that lack a stop codon.


66. Which one of the following antiviral drugs effective against pandemic influenza targets neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza viruses?

A. Oseltamivir

B. Pleconaril

C. Amantadine

D. None of the above

67. A bacterium that can grow by using arsenic instead of phosphorus in its nucleic acids

A. Halomonas strain GFAJ-1

B. Zymomonas mobilis

C. Pseudoalteromonas atlantica

D. Psuedomonas fluorescens

68. How do you represent C-alpha atom in PDB format?

A. CA

B. C

C. C-alpha

D. alpha

69. Genomic analysis of unculturable organisms in a habitat within an ecosystem is called

A. Metagenomics

B. Microbiome analysis

C. Phylogenomics

D. Epigenomics

70. A sequencing technique that is used to identify binding sites of DNA associated proteins

A. Solexa sequencing

B. ChIP-sequencing

C. Pyrosequencing

D. Solid sequencing

71. The following transcription factor is said to be the cross-roads of life and death' as it operates upstream to both the proliferative and apoptotic signaling pathways

A. P53

B. NFAT

C. NfKB

D. None of the above

72. Amount of phosphoric acid needed to neutralize 100g of magnesium hydroxide is

A. Salmonella paratyphi

B. Yersinia enterocolitica

C. Helicobacter pylori

D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

54. The new science of systems biology aims at?

A. Generation of multi-omics data

B. Making sense out of next generation sequencing data

C. Integration of multi-omics data and mathematical approaches to propose testable biological models relevant in discovery

D. To deliver designer therapeutics and vaccines

55. Which one of the following is connecting link between Photosystem I and Photosystem II

A. plastocyanin

B. ferredoxin

C. cytochrome c

D. cytochrome b6f complex

56. Which of the following global profiles is relevant in the development of sero-diagnostic markers?

A. Transcriptome

B. Secretome

C. Virulome

D. Interactome

57. Arbuscular mycorrhiza are formed by fungi of the division

A. Basidiomycota

B. Ascomycota

C. Zygomycota

D. Glomeromycota

58. Which one of the following immunoglobulins can readily cross placenta

A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgA

D. IgE


73. One of the following is NOT a DNA fingerprinting technique

A. Variable number of tandem repeat analysis

B. Restriction fragment length polymorphism analysis

C. Differential display

D. Pulsed Field Gel Electrophoresis

74. Sickle cell anemia provides genetic resistance towards one of the following diseases

A. Diabetes

B. Malaria

C. Tuberculosis

D. Coronary artery diseases


75. Neuronal cell death in Alzheimer's disease is induced by the following factor(s)

A. Amyloid-beta

B. Reactive oxygen species

C. Nitric oxide and ER-stress

D. All of the above