Exam Details

Subject management studies
Paper
Exam / Course ph d
Department
Organization central university
Position
Exam Date 2016
City, State telangana, hyderabad


Question Paper

1. Which of the following is a first degree price discrimination?

The monopolist is able to sell each separate unit of the product at different price and takes entire consumer surplus.

The monopolist is able to charge separate prices for different blocks or quantities of a commodity from buyers and takes only part but not entire consumer surplus.

The seller divides the buyers two or more submarkets and sells the same product at different prices in these markets.

All of the above are correct.



2. Which of the following is true regarding perfect competition?

I. The firms are price takers.

II. Marginal revenue equals the price of the product.

III. Established firms have no advantage over new firms.

II and III

I only

I and II

II and III

3. Which of the following has highest consumer surplus? Consumer surplus -(consumer ready to pay more or the difference between Average Revenue and Marginal Revenue)

Luxury goods

Comforts

Necessities

Conventional necessitates

4. If elasticity of price is then percentage of mark-up is:

100%

50%

25%

It is impossible to determine

5. Given the demand function P=110-Q^2 and assuming that at market equilibrium Qo and Po the consumers' surplus is:

486

586

686

786

6. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following research methods?

Experimental

Causal-comparative

Correlational

Ethnography

7. Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and theories?

Deductive method

Inductive method

Hypothesis method

Pattern method

8. Identify the following term that most closely refers to a judgment of the extent to which scores from a test can be used to infer, or predict, the examinees' performance in some activity:

Content reliability

Face validity

Criterion-related validity

Inference validity

9. What is meta-analysis?

A technique of correcting for the errors in individual studies within a survey of a large number of studies, to demonstrate the effect of a particular variable

A process of secondary-data gathering to assemble all the possibilities for a variable's effects

A substitute for original research, which is justified by constraints of time or money

A specialized step in a computer software program (e.g. SPSS)

10. Triangulation involves:

Collecting data from a variety of different sources.

Consulting the works of three other researchers.

Consulting the works of authors with the same perspective as the researcher.

The use of three different research tools in one study.

11. Respondents are asked to rate an attitude object on a number of multiple-point rating scales bounded at each end by one of two bipolar adjectives or phrases. This type of question is called:

Dichotomous

Semantic differential

Multiple choice

Rating scale

12. The Pearson product moment correlation measures the degree of relationship present between two variables.

Curvilinear

Nonlinear

Linear and quadratic

Linear

13. The Reliance Retail often categorizes various consumer attitudes and behaviors according to the demographic characteristics of the sample group. The firm's efforts would be best described as:

Causal research.

Exploratory research.

Descriptive research.

Casual research.

14. A is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a is a numerical characteristic of a population.

Sample, population

Population, sample

Statistic, parameter

Parameter, statistic

15. A researcher found that liking of extreme sports was related to age: the older people were, the less likely they were to report liking extreme sports. He also found that extroversion varied with age: younger people were more likely to score higher on extroversion. This is an example of a relationship

Causal

Spurious

Triangular

Bivariate

16. The name given to a philosophy and set of methods techniques that stressed the scientific study and organisation of work for the purpose of increasing efficiency is

Scientific Management

Selective Management

Line and Staff Management

Committee Management

17. The tendency to dispense decision making authority in an organised structure is

Recentralisation

Decentralisation

Complete Recentralisation

All of the above

18. Which of the following would not be an accurate depiction of the differences between strategic and tactical planning?

Strategic planning is developed mainly by upper-level management and tactical planning is generally developed by lower-level management

Facts for strategic planning are generally easier to gather than facts for tactical planning

Strategic plans generally contain less details than tactical plans

Strategic plans generally cover a longer period of time than tactical plans

19. Which of the following is an advantage of the functional structure?

It follows principle of occupational specialization

It permits growth and diversity of products and services

There is better face-to-face communication with local interests

There is improved environmental monitoring

20. Controls can be classified based on timing or stage in the production process. Which of the following statements is not true about the various types of controls?

Preventive controls are used prior to the start of activity and feedback controls follow completion of activity

Concurrent controls are used during the performance of activity and feed forward controls prior to start of activity

Quality control tests of output are an example of concurrent control

Steering controls are used following completion of activity

21. 'Reputation' in the context of an organization's resources can provide competitive advantage because:

It is based on word-of-mouth

It is difficult to copy

It is a threshold resource

It is explicit

22. Which of the following is not a purpose of strategic thinking?

To realize what needs to change

To establish the agenda for managing strategic change

To clarify future direction

To allocate scarce resources

23. Corporate governance is a central issue to strategic leadership and shows to employees and broader stakeholders of the ethical stance of those managing and leading change in the firm. Which of the following governance forms is likely to contradict an ethical standpoint on the execution of leadership power?

Board of directors is supplemented by independent non-executive directors bringing experience and expertise.

Chairman holds the CEO position to expedite decision-making and streamlining the executive board

Executive team is based on a balance of skills and experience.

Members of the executive team are appointed based on their perceived value-added

24. Acquisitions often fail to deliver the successes that were predicted prior to acquisition. What is the main reason for this failure?

Premium price

Poor strategic leadership

Goodwill

Synergy

25. Strategy effectiveness and competitive success is dependent on which of the following groups of competencies?

Change, planning, learning

Content, change, planning

Content, change, learning

Learning, planning, content

26. When Coca-Cola and Nestle formed a joint venture to market a ready-to-drink coffee and tea worldwide, the type of marketing system that was formed would best be described as:

Vertical marketing system

Parallel marketing system

Diversified marketing system

Horizontal marketing system

27. Which of the following is the stage at which a company develops the product concept into a physical product in order to assure that the-product idea can be turned into a workable product.

Product development

Commercialization

Marketing strategy

Business analysis

28. The concept that holds that consumers will favor products that are available and highly affordable is known as

Product concept

Production concept

Production cost expansion concept

Marketing concept

29. When producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unified system, they comprise

Conventional marketing system

Power-based marketing system

Horizontal marketing system

Vertical marketing system

30. The type of trade-promotion discount in which manufacturers agree to reduce the price to the retailer in exchange for the retailer's agreement to feature the manufacturer's products in some way is known as:

Promotional discount.

Promotional allowance

Promotional premium

Promotional rebate

31. The fact that services cannot be stored for later use or sale is evidence of their:

Intangibility.

Inseparability.

Variability.

Perishability

32. Which is the step in the selling process in which the salesperson learns as much as possible about a prospective customer before making a sales call.

Prospecting

Pre approach

Approach

Handling objections

33. Consumer goods with unique characteristics or brand identification often requiring a special purchase effort are called:

Custom products

Speciality products.

Convenience products

Shopping products

34. Which of the following is the promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion to move the product through channels.

Push strategy

Pull strategy

Blocking strategy

Integrated strategy

35. is setting the price steps between various products in a product line based on cost differences between the products, customer evaluations of different features, and competitors' prices.

Optional-product pricing

Captive-product pricing

Product line pricing

By-product pricing

36. Quality Function Deployment

is a tool for translating customer requirements into concrete operating and engineering goals.

facilitates inter-functional cooperation between marketing, engineering, and manufacturing.

provides a better understanding and focus on process characteristics that require improvements.

both A and B

37. Consider the following data from a company annual report:

Sales Rs.10,00,000

Cost of Goods sold Rs.8,00,000

Raw material inventory Rs.1,00,000

Finished goods inventory Rs.75,000

Work-in-Process Rs.25,000

The inventory turnover for this company is:

4.0

8.0

10.67

32.0

38. Given that the previous forecast of 65 turned out to be four units less than the actual demand and the next forecast is 66, what would be the value of alpha if the simple exponential smoothing forecast method is being used?

0.02

0.4

0.04

0.25

39. Work measurement techniques include all of the 'following except:

On the job training

Time study

Work sampling

Predetermined motion-time data systems

40. The first activity of purchasing cycle is:

Communicating requirement to the purchase department

Source selection and development

Recognizing the need for procurement

Inspection of source

41. If the EOQ assumptions are met and a company orders more than the economic order quantity then:

Total annual holding cost will be greater than the total annual ordering cost

Total annual holding cost will be less than the total annual ordering cost

Total annual holding cost will be equal to the total annual ordering cost

Total annual holding cost will be equal to the total annual purchase cost

42. Although all of the EOQ assumptions are not met in a particular situation, a person used the formulas associated with this and computed EOQ 200 and ROP 30. If demand is variable and safety stock is necessary, how should this inventory policy be modified?

The order quantity should be higher than 200

The order quantity should be lower than 200

The reorder point should be greater than 30

The reorder point should be less than 30

43. Which of the following would cause a change in the feasible region?

Increasing an objective function coefficient in maximization problem

Adding a redundant constraint

Changing the right-hand side of a non-redundant constraint

Increasing an objective function coeffiCient in a minimization problem

44. A typical transportation problem has 4 source sand 3 destinations. How many decision variables would there be in the linear program for this

3

4

7

12

45. If in optimal tableau of an LP problem an artificial variable is present in the solution mix, this implies

Infeasibility

Unboundedness

Degeneracy

Alternate optimal solution

46. If the project completion time is normally distributed and the due date for the project is greater than the expected completion time, then the probability that the project will be finished by the due date is

Less than 0.50

Greater than 0.50

Equal to 0.50

Undeterminable without more information

47. Cars enter the drive-through of a fast food restaurant to place an order, and then they proceed to pay for the food and pick up the order. This is an example of

A Multichannel system

Multiphase system

Multi queue system

None of the above

48. Which of the following is not correct?

An activity represents a task which has definite beginning and a definite end

An activity cannot start unless all its immediate predecessors are completed

For every activity the terminal node should bear a number higher than the one born by the initial node

Inclusion of more than desired number of dummy activities in a network can cause a delay in the completion of the project.

49. Which of the following is not correct?

For the items that deteriorate ·gradually operating and maintenance cost steadily increase with passage of time, whereas depreciation per year decreases with time

Optimum replacement interval is the minimum time elapsing between the successive replacements

Optimum replacement interval is the time elapsing between successive replacements that involves minimum average total cost.

While total depreciation of depreciable items increases with passage of time, the successive years depreciation usually declines.

50. Project A and Project B are mutually exclusive. Project A has an IRR of 10 percent. Project B has an IRR of 12 percent. If the marginal cost of capital is 11 percent, then:

Project A should be accepted and Project B rejected

Project B should be accepted and Project A rejected

Both projects should be accepted since the decision is not based on the IRR but the NPV.

Both projects should be rejected since the decision is not based on the IRR but the NPV.

51. A series of fixed payments that are made fixed intervals at the beginning of each period is called:

An annuity due.

An ordinary annuity.

A payback annuity.

Compounding.

52. Suppose that Ramesh borrows Rs. 300,000 from the First National State Bank at 2.5 percent interest compounded annually to purchase a new home. Ramesh agrees to repay the loan in 30 equal annual instalments, with the first payment due at the end of the first year. How much are Ramesh's annual payments?

Rs.l4,333.25.

Rs.15,666.35.

Rs.16,777.45.

None of the above.

53. Capital Market Line is firstly initiated by

Mohsin ".

Linter

Markowitz

William Sharpe

54. If generally interest rates in nation increase, a corporate bond with a fixed interest rate will usually

Increase in value

Remain unchanged

Decrease in value.

Be returned to corporation.

55. Which type of market efficiency declares that current security prices totally reflect all information, equally public and private

(a)Weak

Semi-strong

Strong

None of these

56. A liquid asset may

Be converted into cash

Be converted into cash with little chance of loss

Not be converted into cash

Not be converted without loss

57. How are earnings per share calculated?

Use the income statement to determine earnings after taxes (net income) and divide by the previous period's earnings after taxes. Then subtract 1 from the previously calculated value.

Use the income statement to determine earnings after taxes (net income) and divide by the number of common shares outstanding.

Use the income statement to determine earnings after taxes (net income) and divide by the number of common and preferred shares outstanding.

Use the income statement to determine earnings after taxes (net income) and divide by the forecasted period's earnings after taxes. Then subtract 1 from the previously calculated value.

58. The cost of monitoring management is considered to be a

Bankruptcy cost.

Transaction cost.

Agency cost.

Institutional cost.

59. The mix of debt and equity in a firm is referred to as the firm's:

Primary capital

Capital composition

Cost of capital

Capital structure

60. Which of the following would be inconsistent with a healthy approach to financing working capital?

Financing short-term needs with short-term funds.

Financing permanent inventory build-up with long-term debt.

Financing seasonal needs with short-term funds.

Financing some long-term needs with short-term funds.

61. The use of financial leverage by a firm may be measured by the

Ratio of debt to total assets

Firm's beta coefficient

Firm's retention of earnings

Ratio of the price of the firm's stock price to its earnings

62. The net asset value of a mutual fund investing in stock rises with

Higher stock prices

lower equity values

An increased number of shares

Increased liabilities

63. You own a large orange grove and will be harvesting from November through April. To hedge against Price risks you should

Sell orange juice contracts with a November delivery

Buy orange juice contracts with a November delivery

Sell orange juice contracts with delivery dates between November and April

Buy orange juice contracts with delivery dates between November and April

64. The components ofAttitude are

Affective

Cognitive

Behavioural

All of the above

65. Transactional Analysis was Introduced by

David McClelland

Layman Porter

Ohio State University

Eric Berne

66. The barriers that keeps women away from reaching the highest level in an organisation.

Stress work life balance

Glass celling

Fiedlers theory

None of the Above

67. The two dimensions of managerial grid are

Concern for Production and Concern for people

Concern for product Management

BothA&B

None of the Above

68. The Stages ofCollective Bargaining are

Negotiation Stage Contract Stage

Individual Bargaining Omission

Bargainable Issues Result oriented Talk

None of the above

69. The Term Knowledge Management was coined by

Kael Wing

Lee Iacocca

Harry Ingham

Juran

70. The Techniques ofHRD are

Performance Appraisal Potential Appraisal

Career Planning Carrier Development

Organisational Change& Development

All of the Above

71. The art or process of influencing people so that they will strive willingly and enthusiastically towards the achievement of group goals is

Group Cohesiveness

Group Huddling

Leadership

Group Dynamics

72. What sort of goals does Management By Objectives emphasize?

Tangible, verifiable and measurable

Achievable, controllable and profitable

Challenging, emotional and constructive

Hierarchical, attainable and effective

73. ERG theory of motivation was proposed by

Maslow

F. Herzberg

Alderfer

Mc Gregor

74. Least Preferred Co-worker model of leadership was developed by

Martin Evans

Robert House

Fred Fielder

Whetton

75. Suspending an employee for dishonest behaviour is an example of which method of shaping behaviour?

Extinction

Negative reinforcement

Punishment

Reaction


Subjects

  • acrhem
  • animal sciences
  • anthropology
  • biochemistry
  • biotechnology
  • buddhist studies
  • centre for english language studies
  • chemistry
  • cognitive science
  • communication
  • comparative literature
  • computer science
  • dalit adivasi studies & translation
  • dance
  • earth & space sciences
  • economics
  • english
  • folk culture studies
  • gandhian economic thought
  • gender studies
  • hindi
  • history
  • human rights
  • indian diaspora
  • language endangerment studies
  • linguistics
  • management studies
  • materials engineering
  • mathematics
  • philosophy
  • physics
  • plant sciences
  • political science
  • psychology
  • regional studies
  • sanskrit
  • science technology & society studies
  • social exclusion & inclusion policy
  • sociology
  • statistics
  • telugu
  • theatre arts
  • translation studies
  • urdu