HALL TICKET NO.


SCHOOL OF MANAGEMENT STUDIES
Ph.D. Management Studies
Entrance Examination-20tS
(75 Marks)

INSTRUCTIONS:
1.
Write your Hall Ticket Number in the OMR Answer sheet given to you. Also write the Hall Ticket Number in the space provided above.

2.
The question paper booklet consists of Part A and B which carries 75 questions. Each question carries one mark.

3.
The questions contains in Part A cover areas of Research Methodology, Managerial Economics, Strategic and General Management questions) and Part B contains questions in Marketing, Finance, Human Resource Management, Organizational Behavior, and Operations Management (26-75 questions). Each question carry one Mark.

4.
There is negative markingfor Part A. Each wrong answer carries -0.33 marks.

5.
Answers are to be marked on the OMR answer sheetfollowing the instructions provided there upon.

6.
Hand over the OMR answer sheet to the invigilator before leaving the examination hall.

7.
No additional sheets will be provided. Rough work can be done in the question paper itselfor in the space provided at the end ofthe booklet.


oCalculators, phones and electronic gadgets are not allowed.
Part-A

1. Strategy refers to the
A. ·Process by which top management determines the goals.
B. Ideas, plans and actions taken by firms and people to compete successfully In the organization
C. A process which allows to evaluate goals
D. Specific short term action plans to implement policy
2. APlanisa
A. Guideline to be evaluated.
B. Statement ofhow objectives are achieved.
C. Basis for determining the organization
D. Concrete formulations of goals
3. One of the following is a Strategy Guru
A. Gary Hamel
B. Peter Drucker
C. Warren Bennis
D. Neil Armstrong
4. What is social loafing?
A. A process where individuals work harder when they are in teams.
B. When someone hangs around with others and enjoys the camaraderie of being part of a team.
C. Team building activities
D. A process where individuals in teams work less hard than they would individually.
5. What does Milton Friedman believe to be the sole responsibility of business?
A. Managers should act in ways that balance the interest of society and shareholders.
B. The only social responsibility of business is to its shareholders.
C. The primary responsibility organizations have is to its employees.
D. The primary responsibility organizations have is to its stakeholders.
6. Henry Fayol belonged to
A. TheUSA
IiFrance

C. Germany
D. The Netherlands

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7. What is valence?
A. The value of an object to a person
B. The satisfaction of ajob well done
C. The importance ofdoing something well
D. The value or importance an individual places on a reward
8. Delegation is
A. Assignment of duties with formal authority
B. Assignment of duties without authority
C. Assignment ofduties to a subordinate
D. Dispersal of authority.
9. Leadership is
A. A process of showing the choices
B. An ability to share work
C. A set of behaviors
D. A process of influence
10. Which ofthe following would be classified by Herzberg as a hygiene factor?
A. Company Policy
B. Promotion
C. Responsibility
D. Personal growth
11. The key to profit maximization is that the firms must choose that price-output combination where the marginal revenue.
A. Exceeds the marginal cost
B. Is equal to the marginal cost
C. Is less than the marginal cost
D. Independent ofthe marginal cost
12. Which ofthe following do not follow price discrimination.
A. Electricity
B .Railways

C. Airways

D. Roadways

13. Statement(A): The excess price which a man is willing to pay rather than going without the thing, over that he actually does pay is the consumer's surplus.
the basic reason for consumer's surplus is law of diminishing marginal utility.
A., Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. A is true but R is false.
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
D. Both A and R are true.
14. The pricing practice used by firms in which a product is priced low to take care of the demand of other products is called
A. Full cost pricing
B. Marginal cost pricing
C. Administered pricing
D. Loss leader pricing
15. Revealed preference theory is propounded by
A. Leontiff
B. Walras
C. Samuelson
D. Alfred Marshall
16. Ifthe level of significance ofa hypothesis test is raised from .01 to .05, the probability of Type II error
A. will also increase from .01 to .05
B. will not change
C. will decrease
D. will increase
17. The ANOVA test is based on which assumptions?
I. the sample are randomly selected
II. the population variances are all equal to some common variance
III. the populations are normally distributed
IV.
the populations are statistically significant

A.
All ofthe above

B.
II and III only

C.
II, and III only

D.
and III only



18. What is meta-analysis?
A. A technique of correcting for the errors in individual studies within a survey of a large number of studies, to demonstrate the effect of a particular variable
B.. A process of secondary-data gathering to assemble all the possibilities for a variable's effects
C. A substitute for original research, which is justified by constraints oftime or money
D. A specialized step in a computer software program (e.g. SPSS)
19. "Internal validity" refers to:
A. Whether or not there is really a causal relationship between two variables
B. Whether or not the findings are relevant to the participants' everyday lives
C. The degree to which the researcher feels that this was a worthwhile project
D. How accurately the measurements represent underlying concepts
20. Which ofthe following is not a type of non-probability sampling?
A. Snowball sampling
B. Stratified random sampling
C. Quota sampling
D. Convenience sampling
21. Which ofthe following is not a criticism of qualitative research?
A. The approach is too rigid and inflexible
B. The studies are difficult to replicate
C. There is a lack oftransparency
D. The accounts are too subjective and impressionistic
22. Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the "same variables but different people" is which of the folloWing?
A. Replication
B. Exploration
C. Hypothesis
D. Empiricism
23. What is the basis ofthe Scientific Method?
A. To test hypotheses in conditions that are conducive to its success.
B. To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully controlled conditions that challenge the hypothesis.
C. To formulate a research problem and disprove the hypothesis.
D. To test hypotheses and if they are disproved, they should be abandoned completely.

24. A mean, median and mode are all examples of
A. measures of central tendency
B. measures of enumeration
C. measures of coefficients
D. measures ofvariation
25. If the research study is repeated over an extended period, then the study is called as
A. Cross sectional study
B. Descriptive study
C. Time series analysis/study
D. Longitudinal study
Part-B
26. The facility decision process to expand or contract the operation of an organization does not include and in their four step model:
A. customer appreciation ofproduct, generation ofalternatives
B. management of plant, organization capacity
C. comparison ofcapacity, future demand
D. consideration ofrisk, decision making offinal plan
27. The master production schedule is a useful tool for managers. What is NOT an advantage using the MPS:
A. helps to assess different schedules
B. gives specific information on past needs
C. helps to determine required materials
D. helps to assess staffing needs
28. Modem firms increasingly rely on other firms to supply goods and services instead of doing these tasks themselves. This increased level of is leading to increased emphasis on management.
A. Outsourcing, supply chain
B. Offshoring, lean
C. Downsizing, total quality
D. Optimizing, inventory
29. The person who developed the Economic Order Quantity model was:
A. Walter Shewhart
B. George Dantzig
C. Frederick W. Taylor
D. Ford Harris

30. ABC Co. produces cast bronze valves on an assembly line, currently producing 1600 valves each 8-hour shift. Ifthe productivity is increased by it would then be
A. °1760 valves/hr
B. 880 valves/hr

C. 220 valves/hr
D. 200 valves/hr180 valves/hr
31.Which ofthe following would be the best illustration of a pure service?
A. water pick for cleaning teeth
B. a doctor's exam
C. a waiter taking your order in a restaurant
D. flying on an airline
32.Which ofthefollowing areimportantincustomers'perception ofquality?
I. Appearance II. Operation III. Liability
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II, and III
33. In the basic EOQ model, ifthe lead time increases from 2 to 4 days, the EOQ will:
A. double
B. increase, but not double.
C. remain constant
D. decrease by a factor of two
34. The initial solution of a transportation problem can be obtained by applying any known method. But the only condition is
A. The solution be optimal
B. The rim conditions are satisfied
C. The solution not be degenerate
D. All of the above
35. Which ofthe following criterion is not used for decision making under uncertainty?
A. Maximin
B. Maximax
C. Minimax
D. Minimize expected loss 36. Cognitive dissonance occurs in which stage of the buyer decision process model?

A. Need recognition
B. Information search
C. Evaluation of alternatives
D. Post-purchase behavior
37. are products bought by individuals and organizations for further processing or for use in conducting a business.
A. Consumer products
B. Services
C. Industrial products
D. Specialty products
38. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that might satisfy a want or need is called
A.demand.
B. idea
C. product.
D. service.
39. is the process of evaluating each market segment's attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
A. Mass luarketing
B. Market segmentation
C. Market targeting
D. Market positioning
40. The fact that services are sold, produced, and consumed at the same time refers to which of the following service characteristics?
A. Intangibility
B. Inseparability
C. Variability
D. Perishability
41. All of the following are criticisms leveled against marketing by critics EXCEPT:
A. Harming Consumers Through High Prices.
B. Harming Consumers Through Deceptive Practices.
C. Harming Consumers Through High-Pressure Selling.
D. Harming Consumers Through Too Many Product Choices.

42. The fact that services cannot be stored for later use or sale is evidence oftheir:
A.. Intangibility.
B. Inseparability.
C. Variability.
D. Perishability.
43. If Honda uses its company name to cover such different products as its automobiles, lawn mowers, and motorcycles, it is practicing which ofthe following strategies?
A. New Brand Strategy
B. Line Extension Strategy
. C. Multibrand Strategy

D. Brand Extension Strategy
44. If advertising constantly sends out messages about materialism, sex, power, and status, which of the following categories of social criticism most closely matches this problem?
A. Too Much Advertising.
B. Too Few Social Goods.
C. Cultural Pollution.
D. Too Much Political Power.
45. When personal interviewing involves· inviting six to ten people to gather for a few hours with a trained interviewer to talk about a product, service, or organization, the method is called:
A. Selective Sponsorship.
B. Probing.
C. Focus Group Interviewing.
D. The Delphi Method.
46.Who said that the human personality is composed ofelements like Id, Ego, and Super Ego
A. McClelland
B. Freud
C. Eric Berne
D. Skinner
47. One ofthem is a work related attitude
A. Organizational Commitment
B. Job behavior
C. Personal involvement
D. Job Attitudes

48. One ofthe following is not an element in the perceptual process
A. .Environmental Stimuli
B. Observation
C. Interpretation
D. Personal Perception
49. Motivation is
A. A perceptual process
B. A psychological process
C. A hierarchical process
D. A higher level process
50. Alderfer, Maslow, and Herzberg belong to
A. Process theory
B. Attribution theory
C. Content Theory
D. Behavioral Theory
51. Job enrichment is
A. Giving the employee the entire job
B. Broadening the scope of work
C. Increasing the depth and responsibility
D. Shifting the person from job to job
52. Role play is a
A. Traditional method oftraining
B. Modem method oftraining
C. Popular method oftraining
D. Innovative method of training
53. In which method the ratings of employees are distributed in a bell curve
A. The ranking distribution method
B. The rating distribution method
C. Forced distribution method
D. Critical Incident method
to

54. Variable pay is
A. Indirect compensation
B. Direct compensation
C. Mixed compensation
D. Benefit based compensation
55. OSHA regulations concern
A. Safety related issues
B. Environment related issues
C. Social related issues
D. Standard related issues
56. is the step in the selling process in which the salesperson learns as much as possible about a prospective customer before making a sales call.
A. Pre-approach
B. Prospecting
C. Approach
D. Handling objections
57. is a person's distinguishing psychological characteristics that lead to relatively consistent and lasting responses to his or her"own environment.
A. Personality
B. Psychographies
C. Demographics
D. Lifestyle
58. The holds that consumers will favor products that are available and highly affordable (therefore, work on improving production and distribution efficiency).
A. product concept
B. production cost expansion concept
C. marketing concept
D. production concept
59. The is a person within a reference group who, because of special skills, knowledge, personality, or other characteristics, exerts influence on others.
A. facilitator
B. referent actor ,..
C. opinion leader
D. social role player



60. The last stage in the selling process is the ---stage.
A. approach
B. handling objections
C. closing
D. follow-up
61. In a CPM/PERT network,an event refers to
A. the occurrence of a delay in the project
B. an activity inserted into the network to show a precedence relationship with no passage oftime
C. the beginning or completion of an activity or project
D. the earliest an activity can start
62. A project has three paths: has a length of 25 days. has a length of 15 days. has a length of 20 days. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. is the critical path.
B. has the most slack.
C. The expected duration of the project is 25 days.
D. The expected duration of this project is 60 days.
63. The type of layout which features departments or other functional groupings in which similar activities are performed is
A. process
B. product
C. fixed-position
D. mass
64. Quality assurance is: Select correct option:
A. Detection based
B. Inspection based
C. Prevention based
D. People based
65. Labor productivity will increase if the increases or
A. Quantity of labor per unit of capital; technological change occurs.
B. quantity of capital per hour worked; immigration increases while capital is held fixed.
C. quantity of capital per hour worked; technological change occurs.
D. quantity of labor per unit of capital; immigration increases while capital is fixed.

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66. The market price ofa share of common stock is determined by:
A. The board ofdirectors ofthe firm
B. The stock exchange on which the stock is listed
C. The president ofthe company
D. Individuals buying and selling the stock

67. To increase the present value, the discount rate should be adjusted
A. Upward
B. Fred
C. True
D. Downward
68. This type of risk is avoidable through proper diversification.
A. portfolio risk
B. systematic risk
C. unsystematic risk
D. total risk
69. A line that describes the relationship between an individual security's returns and returns on the market portfolio.
A. characteristic line
B. security market line
C. capital market line
D. beta
70. Thegreaterthebeta, the __ofthe securityinvolved.
A. greater the unavoidable risk
B. greater the avoidable risk
C. less the unavoidable risk
D.less the avoidable risk

71. Which ofthe following statements (in general) is correct?
A. A low receivables turnover is desirable.
B. The higher the tax rate for a firm, the lower the interest coverage ratio.
C. An increase in net profit margin with no change in sales or assets means a poor ROI.
D. The lower the total debt-to-equity ratio, the lower the financial risk for a firm.
72. If EOQ 360 units, order costs are Rs.5 per order, and carrying costs are Rs.20 per unit, what is the usage in units? "
A. 129,600 units
B. 2,592 units
C. 25,920 units
D.18,720 units


73. Assume that a firm has accurately calculated the net cash ·flows relating to an investment proposal. If the net present value of this proposal is greater than zero and the firm is not under the constraint ofcapital rationing, then the firm should:
A. Calculate the IRR of this investment to be certain that the IRR is greater than the cost of capital.
B. Compare the profitability index ofthe investment to those of other possible investments.
C. Calculate the payback period to make certain that the initial cash outlay can be recovered within an appropriate period oftime.
D. Accept the proposal, since the acceptance of value-creating investments should increase shareholder wealth.
74. An EBIT-EPS indifference analysis chart is used for
A. Evaluating the effects of business risk on EPS.
B. Examining EPS results for alternative financing plans at varying EBIT levels.
C. Determining the impact of a change in sales on EBIT.
D. Showing the changes in EPS quality over time.
75. A way to analyze whether debt or lease financing would be preferable is to:
A. compare the net present values under each alternative, using the cost of capital
as the discount rate.

B. compare the net present values under each alternative, using the after-tax cost
of borrowing as the discount rate.

C. compare the payback periods for each alternative.
D. compare the effective interest costs involved for each alternative.