Exam Details

Subject environmental sciences
Paper paper 3
Exam / Course ugc net national eligibility test
Department
Organization university grants commission
Position
Exam Date 10, July, 2016
City, State ,


Question Paper

PAPER-III ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES Signature and Name of Invigilator
1.
(Signature) OMR Sheet No. ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate)

(Name)
Roll No.


2.
(Signature) (In figures as per admission card)



(Name) Roll (In words)
J 8 9 1 6

Time 2 1/2 hours] [Maximum Marks 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet 16 Instructions for the Candidates
1.
Write your roll number in the space provided on the top ofthis page.

2.
This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type ofquestions.

3.
At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requestedto open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below


To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off thepaper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an openbooklet.


Tally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questionsmissing or duplicate or not in serial order or anyother discrepancy should be got replaced immediatelyby a correct booklet from the invigilator within theperiod of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the QuestionBooklet will be replaced nor any extra time will begiven.


After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Numbershould be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.

4.
Each item has four alternative responses marked (3)and You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.



Example
where is the correct response.
5.
Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6.
Read instructions given inside carefully.

7.
Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.

8.
If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9.
You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.

10.
Use only Black Ball point pen provided by C.B.S.E.

11.
Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.

12.
There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.


Number of Questions in this Booklet 75


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1 P.T.O.

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES
PAPER III

Note This paper contains seventy five objective type questions of two marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. In India audit on conservation and protection of tigers in all 28 Tiger reserves was conducted in

2001 2004


2006 2007


2. In the screening stage of EIA, the impact level of a development project is not discernible, then what step should be adopted

Scoping stage ought to be initiated


Detailed EIA study ought to be conducted


A rapid EIA study ought to be conducted


The project may not be given environmental clearance


3. Biodiversity hotspots are regions of high

stationary population of common species


richness of endemic species


migratory population


richness of dominant species


4. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) plants have very low efficiencies. Reason The temperature difference between warm surface water and cold deeper
ocean water is not all that great.
Choose the correct answer


Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


5. In respect of geothermal power production, identify the correct sequence of the countries

Iceland Russia Japan USA


Japan Iceland USA Russia


USA Iceland Japan Russia


USA Japan Iceland Russia


Paper-III 2
6. Among the forest types of India, which category of forest covers maximum geographical area

Tropical grassland Mangrove forest


Tropical deciduous forest Temperate evergreen forest


7. The overall diversity of a landscape comprising several ecosystems is known as

Alpha diversity Beta diversity


Gamma diversity Delta diversity


8. The ratio between the amount of radiation emitted by earth upto the wavelength at which maximum radiation is emitted and total amount of radiation emitted by earth is approximately

25% 50%


40% 66%


9. Milankovitch cycles refer to

Shifts in the temperature of surface water in the middle latitudes of the Pacific Ocean.


The timing of the northern lights in the thermosphere.


The changes in the Earth's rotation and orbit around the sun that may trigger climate variation.


Upwelling and down-welling in the ocean.


10. El Nino and La Nina phenomena

decrease water temperatures in the eastern Pacific Ocean


increase water temperatures in the Gulf of Mexico


occur in a definite pattern every ten years


cause changes in global temperature and precipitation pattern


11. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion At a constant temperature, the solubility of ammonia in water increases with decrease in pH.
Reason The solubility of all gases increase with decrease in pH.
Choose the correct answer


Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


12. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion Temperature of sea water generally decreases with increasing latitude.
Reason Surface layers of sea water tend to contract and sink in cold waters. Choose the correct answer

Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


13. A normal sand dune is characterized by

Gentle windward and steeper leeward sides.


Both gentle sides.


Steeper windward and gentle leeward sides.


Both steeper sides.


14. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion The distribution of animals over the world is much more complex and irregular compared to plants.
Reason The animals are mobile and therefore capable of more rapid dispersal. Choose the correct answer

Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


15. Consider the following statements in case of Gaussian Plume Model.
a.
The wind speed is constant both in time and with elevation.

b.
The emission rate from the source is constant.

c.
The pollutant is conservative.
Choose the answer




a only b only


a and b only b and c


16. A stream flowing at 5.0 m3/s converges with another stream with the same flow rate. The concentration of the phosphate upstream to the junction is 10.0 mg/L and that in the other stream is 5.0 mg/L. The downstream concentration of phosphate is

2.5 mg/L 5.0 mg/L


7.5 mg/L 10 mg/L


Paper-III 4
17. Lotka-Volterra model for an ecosystem can be used to study
a.
oscillations in prey-predator population.

b.
effect of predator on prey population.

c.
effect of prey on predator population.
Choose the correct answer




a and b only b and c only


a and c only b and c


18. In an ecosystem following logistic growth model initial population was 900 with growth rate constant of 0.1. If the carrying capacity of the ecosystem is 1000, what is the instantaneous rate of change of population

10 25


1.1 9


19. Choose an appropriate hypothesis testing method for the condition where the variance is an unknown parameter of a population of independent observations

Z-test .2-test


t-test F-test


20. For sampling error of 1.96s; where s is the standard deviation, and at critical value of 1.96, the significance level is

5.0 1.0


2.7 4.5


21. Qualitatively a sampling error in a survey based environmental experiment is the sum of

Frame error Response error chance error


Frame error non-sampling error


Chance error Frame error Systematic error


Non-sampling error Chance error Systematic error


22. Ecosensitive zones are declared by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and climate change, Govt. of India under the provisions of

Forest Act, 1927


Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980


Environment (Protection) Act, 1986


Biological Diversity Act, 2002


23. Basel convention on trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste and disposal was adopted in the year

1969 1979


1999 1989


24. Which method reduces the volume of waste but could release toxic air emissions into the atmosphere

Biological treatment Sanitary landfill


Incineration Chemical treatment


25. As per CRZ (Coastal Regulation Zone) 2011 Notification, which of the following activities is permitted

Dumping of untreated sewage, effluents or solid waste.


Traditional fishing and allied activities.


Construction of Housing Complexes.


Infrastructural projects.


26. Match the List I and List II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
List I List II
(Biomedical Waste) (Treatment/Disposal)

a.
Human tissues i. Incineration

b.
Scalpels ii. Autoclaving

c.
Solid plaster casts iii. Microwave mutilation

d.
Catheters iv. Deep burial


Codes
a b c d
ii i iii
(2)iii i iv ii
iv iii i
i iii ii iv
27. An organisation implementing an EMS under ISO 14001 should set environmental targets in order to achieve environmental objectives within a specified time-frame. The target should be

implemented on a trial basis


generic in nature


related to financial aspects


measurable and specific


28. ISO 14001 requires an organisation to

set improvement targets for every department.


define a quality policy within the defined scope of its EMS.


define the scope of its EMS.


define the scope of its audit.


29. Cost-benefit analysis is performed during

Design phase Feasibility study phase


Implementation Maintenance phase


30. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to the construction
of a dam on it.
Reason The area in upper catchment of the river gets inundated.
Choose the correct answer


Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


Paper-III 6
31. Match the List I and List II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
List I List II (Auditing) (Actions)
a.
Implementation audit i. External review

b.
Predictive techniques audit ii. Initial activities

c.
Performance audit iii. Validation of impacts

d.
Procedures audit iv. Comprehensive operational activities


Codes
a b c d
iii iv i
(2)iii iv i ii
i ii iii
i ii iii iv
32. The interaction matrix developed by Leopold consists of how many parameters

30


60


70


90


33. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion The goal of the National Land Utilisation Policy is to achieve
improvement of livelihood, food and water security under the umbrella of sustainable development in India. Reason The National Land Utilisation Policy envisages a guiding framework for state specific needs, potentials, priorities and legal provisions. Choose the correct answer

Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


34. Which of the following is a major photochemical oxidant

PAN


Ozone


Aldehydes


Peroxybenzoyl nitrates (PBzN)


35. In terms of toxicity, identify the correct sequence

Arsenic Cadmium Methylene chloride


Cadmium Arsenic Methylene chloride


Methylene chloride Cadmium Arsenic


Methylene chloride Arsenic Cadmium


J-89-16 7 Paper-III
36. Upwelling of oceanic waters is important for

enrichment of nutrients in pelagic waters.


balancing water circulation pattern in oceans and seas.


making the pelagic waters nutrient deficient.


helping survival of benthic organisms.


37. Arrange the following in terms of increasing productivity
a.
Antarctica sea b. Arctic sea

c.
Dead sea d. Arabian sea
Choose the correct answer




c a d b c a b d


d b c a a c d b


38. Match the List I and List II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
List I List II (Process/Event) (Consequences/Links)
a.
Assimilative capacity i. DO, BOD, Coliform

b.
Critical water parameter ii. Cadmium

c.
Itai-Itai disease iii. Blue baby syndrome

d.
Excess nitrate in water iv. Waste discharge


Codes
a b c d
i ii iii iv
i ii iii
ii i iii iv
iii i iv
39. Which type of plume behaviour one would expect from a tall stack located on a flat terrain if adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate are as shown in the diagram
env
below

Genv
G
looping fanning
coning trapping
Paper-III 8 J-89-16

40. A road carrying heavy traffic has an average noise level of 90 dB when measured at a distance of 10 metres. What would be the noise level at 20 metres distance

87 dB 84 dB


60 dB 45 dB


41. When biomass is converted to CO and H2O, the energy made available is 450 kJ per
mol of carbon per unit of reduction level. What would be the heat of combustion per gram of methane

28.125 kJ/g 56.25 kJ/g


67.5 kJ/g 135 kJ/g


42. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion Hydrogen, as a fuel, when burned, does produce some amount of
pollution. Reason Heat produced during combustion of hydrogen chemically combines N2 and O2 in atmosphere to produce NO.
x
Choose the correct answer


Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


43. Given standard enthalpies for methane, carbon dioxide and water vapour as 75 kJ/mol, 394 kJ/mol and 240 kJ/mol, respectively. What is the net heat of combustion of methane

799 kJ/mol 802 kJ/mol


1598 kJ/mol 799 kJ/mol


44. In an ideal magnetohydrodynamic power plant, the speed of flow of the hot ionized gas is
u m/s. The maximum power output from the plant varies as
3/2


. u . u


. u2 . u3


45. An ideal wind turbine located on a hill top produces electrical power. If wind speed changes by by what percentage the electrical power will change

12.5 25


30 15


46. A person working in a nuclear reactor is exposed to a beam of thermal neutrons and receives a dose of 20 millirads per hour for an exposure of 12 minutes. What is the equivalent dose in millirems, the person is exposed to

4 8


12 16


J-89-16 9 Paper-III
47. What is the approximate increase in radiative forcing if the CO2 concentration increases from 400 ppm to 800 ppm

4.37 W/m2 3.81 W/m2


2.72 W/m2 1.62 W/m2


48. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion Large parts of India have already become water stressed.
Reason Climate change may be the main reason.
Choose the correct answer


Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


49. Ecosystem degradation refers to
a.
loss or decrease in biodiversity.

b.
modification in structure of abiotic components.

c.
impairment of ecosystem processes such as nutrient cycling.
Choose the correct answer




a only a and b only


b and c only b and c


50. In addition to their role in ozone depletion, CFCs play a role in global warming by

reducing the albedo of the earth's surface


absorbing solar radiation


blocking UV-B radiation on earth


absorbing terrestrial radiation


51. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion As per equilibrium theory of island biogeography, distance of the islands from the mainland determines the dispersal rate of new species.
Reason Size of an island is important in determining number of species. Choose the correct answer

Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


52. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion All cloud processes have implications for climate change. Reason Clouds strongly affect the flux of both shortwave and infra-red light
through atmosphere.
Choose the correct answer


Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


53. Using remote sensing for height measurement of trees, which microwave band is most suitable

X C


S L


54. For public use, Survey of India publishes topographical maps on 1 50, 000 scale. These maps use

UTM projection and WGS 84 datum


Polyconic projection and WGS84 datum


UTM projection and Modified Mount Everest datum


Polyconic projection and Modified Mount Everest datum


55. Sub-geostrophic winds in the earth-atmospheric system are caused by the balance involving

pressure gradient force, Coriolis force and frictional force


pressure gradient force and Coriolis force


pressure gradient force and frictional force


Coriolis force and frictional force


56. Which one of the following is not a set of polymorphous minerals

Calcite, aragonite, vaterite


Quartz, coesite, tridymite


Graphite, anthracite, diamond


Kyanite, alusite and sillimanite


57. Match the List I and List II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
List I List II
(Geological events) (Processes)

a.
Exfoliation dome i. Landform change

b.
Rift valleys ii. Ultisols

c.
Palaeomagnetism iii. Mechanical weathering

d.
Pedogenesis iv. Seafloor spreading


Codes
a b c d

i ii iii iv


ii i iv iii


(3)iii i iv ii
ii i iii
58. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Assertion Soil development begins with physical, chemical and biological weathering of rocks.
Reason Anthropogenic factors play a major role in soil formation.
Choose the correct answer


Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


59. The most common ferromagnesian rock forming minerals are as follows

Amphibole and Biotite Mica


Muscovita mica and Quartz


Galena and Pyrite


Calcite and Dolomite


60. Underground coal mine fires can best be monitored by remote sensing technique in the spectral region

3 5 µm 10 12 µm


1 3 µm 1 mm 10 mm


61. Our inability to address the conflict between short term individual well-being and long term societal welfare is responsible for the

Tragedy of the population Tragedy of the community


Tragedy of the environment Tragedy of the commons


62. Proportion of representation of each species allows ecologists to compare different communities through graphical representation. Such a graph is called

Rank abundance curve


Species accumulation curve


Survivorship curve


Sigmoid curve


63. Lincoln index is a mark-recapture method used in animals to estimate the

total population density total number


total frequency total dominance


64. K-selected population during ecological succession tends to dominate in

mature stages early stages


pioneer stages seral stages


65. Evolution can be viewed as
a.
genetic change over time

b.
a process of descent with modification

c.
a sudden change in organism

d.
a man-made change in oraganism
Choose the correct code




a and b only b and c only


c and d only a and d only


66. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as
Reason
Assertion C4 photosynthesis lowers photorespiratory energy loss.

Reason The greater supply of CO2 lowers the rate of O2 uptake by rubisco substantially reducing photorespiration.
Choose the correct answer

Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


67. Symbiotic blue-green algal biofertilizer is obtained from

Nostoc species Rhizobium species


Azolla mass culture Azospirillum mass culture


68. With reference to smog consider the following statements
a.
Los Angeles smog is oxidizing.

b.
London smog is reducing.
Choose the correct answer




Both a and b are false.


Both a and b are true.


a is false but b is true.


a is true but b is false.


69. Match the List I and List II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
List I List II
(Chemical Species) (Measurement Techniques)

a.
DO i. West-Gaeke Method

b.
SO2 ii. Non-dispersive infrared analyser

c.
CO iii. Chemiluminescence

d.
NO iv. Winkler's Method


Codes
a b c d
i ii iii
(2)iii ii i iv
iii iv i
i iv iii ii
88 86
70. Disintegration of 226 Ra yields 222 Rn owing to the emission of

two ß-particles


one a-particle


.-radiation


one ß-particle followed by an a-particle


71. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion Temperature in stratosphere increases with increase in altitude. Reason Photodissociation of O2 in stratosphere makes the lapse rate positive.
Choose the correct answer

Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and is not the correct explanation of


is true but is false.


is false but is true.


72. At 15 a manufacturer dissolves CO2 at 2.4 atm in water in a bottle. If Henry's law
constant of CO2 in water be 0.045 mol L-1 atm-1 at 15 calculate the concentration of CO2 dissolved in water.

5.6 mol L-1 0.019 mol L-1


0.098 mol L-1 0.108 mol L-1


73. Match the List I and List II. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
List I List II
(Pesticides) (Purpose)

a.
Malathion i. Molluscicide

b.
Metaldehyde ii. Fungicide

c.
Diethyl Tolumide (DEET) iii. Insecticide

d.
Chloroneb iv. Insect repellant


Codes
a b c d
ii i iii
i iii ii iv
iv iii i
(4)iii i iv ii
74. Which of the following is not an Advanced Oxidation Process for the treatment of waste water

PhotoFenton Process


Photocatalytic TiO2 Process


UV/H2O2 Process


Acidified Potassium Dichromate Oxidation Process


75. If a material containing humic substances is extracted with a strong base, and the resulting solution is acidified, products are
a.
humin

b.
humic acid

c.
fulvic acid
Choose the correct answer




a only


a and b only


b and c


b and c only


Space For Rough Work
Paper-III 16
J-89-16


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