Exam Details

Subject environmental sciences
Paper paper 3
Exam / Course ugc net national eligibility test
Department
Organization university grants commission
Position
Exam Date December, 2014
City, State ,


Question Paper

PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

Signature and Name of Invigilator
1.
(Signature) OMR Sheet No. ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate)

(Name)
Roll No.


2.
(Signature) (In figures as per admission card)



(Name) Roll (In words)
D 8 9 1 4

Time 2 1/2 hours] [Maximum Marks 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet 16 Instructions for the Candidates
1.
Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.

2.
This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions.

3.
At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below

To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.

4.
Each item has four alternative responses marked and You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item.



Example
where is the correct response.
5.
Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6.
Read instructions given inside carefully.

7.
Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.

8.
If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9.
You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.

10.
Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.

11.
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12.
There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.

13.
In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final.


Number of Questions in this Booklet 75
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8.
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1 P.T.O.

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper III

Note This paper contains seventy five objective type questions of two marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Which of the following ranges of scale lengths represents meso-scale motions in atmosphere

30 km 400 km 500 m 10 km


1 km 2 km 100 m 1 km


2. Rayleigh scattering in the atmosphere is caused by

molecules larger than the wavelength


molecules equal to the size of wavelength


molecules whose size is much smaller than the wavelength


molecules and particles of all sizes


3. Wind rose is a

graphical representation of wind velocity vector over a period of time in a polar diagram.


graphical representation of wind velocity vector in a spherical coordinate system over a period of time.


graphical representation of horizontal and vertical wind speeds over a period of time in polar diagram.


graphical representation of instantaneous wind velocity at a particular time.


4. The key groups of organic molecules that help in chelation of metal ions are
I. COOH II. SH
III. CHIV. CHO
3
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

I only I and II only


II, III and IV only II and IV only


5. Geostrophic winds are the result of the balance between


coriolis force and pressure gradient force


coriolis force and centrifugal force


pressure gradient force and frictional force


pressure gradient force and centrifugal force


6. A possible mechanism for photochemical smog inhibition is to add compounds like diethylhydroxylamine (DEHA) as it reacts with

hydrocarbon nitrogen dioxide


PAN hydroxyl radicals


7. In the determination of sulphur dioxide by p-rosaniline method, the end product is

p-rosaniline sulfonic acid methyl p-rosaniline


p-rosaniline methyl sulfonic acid sulfo methyl p-rosaniline


8. Number of molecuels present in 10 ml of proline is

6.023 × 1023 6.023 × 1020


6.023 × 1018 6.023 × 1017


9. Nitrogenous biochemical oxygen demand refers to the quantity of O2 needed to convert

N2 to NO N2 to NH
34


NH to NO Protein to CO2 H2O NO2
43
10. Beer-Lambert's law defines

The degree of absorption of monochromatic light by a homogeneous medium


Atomic absorption spectrophotometry


Atomic emission spectrophotometry


Gas chromatography


11. Chemically phytochelatins are

Proteins Polysaccharides


Lipids Polypeptides


12.

13.


14.

15.

16.

17.


Mixture of organic pollutants X and Y were separated using paper chromatography and the Rf values obtained for X and Y were 0.75 and 0.25, respectively. Which relationship holds good for the solubility of these pollutants in mobile phase

X Y X Y


X Y X Y 1


Overall reaction of Winkler's method is
4SO O. 2SO 2HO
2242
36This equation indicates

One mole of O2 is equivalent to one mole of thiosulphate.


One mole of O2 is equivalent to two moles of thiosulphate.


One mole of O2 is equivalent to three moles of thiosulphate.


One mole of O2 is equivalent to four moles of thiosulphate.

Return of an ecosystem to a condition prior to disturbance refers to as


Rehabilitation Restoration


Rejuvenation Reclaimation

Assertion Shade loving species show better natural regeneration under highly disturbed condition. Reason Heliophilic species needs more exposure to light for better natural regeneration. In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct


Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.

Which one of the following enzymes work under strict anaerobic conditions to fix atmospheric nitrogen


Nitrate reductase Nitrite reductase


Transaminase Nitrogenase

Predatory strategy followed by an alligator for hunting is


Chase Stalk


Ambush Camouflage


18.
19.

20.

21.

22.

23.


In a tropical peat forest, the carbon storage (tonnes/ha) is typically in the range

3000 6000 13000 16000


300 600 300 1600



Which one of the following bacterial species convert NO to NO
23

Nitrosomonas Nitrobacter


Rhizobium Azospirillum


Assertion Living system adapted to low temperatures invariably show higher unsaturated to saturated fatty acid in membrane lipids.
Reason Fluidity of membranes is directly proportional to unsaturated to saturated fatty acids in membrane lipids.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.


Which of the following(s) are produced during fermentation
I. Ethanol II. Citrate
III. Lactate IV. Succinate Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

I only I and II only


I and III only II and IV only

Salinity of the ocean varies from 2.0 to 4.2 in


Red Sea and Gulf of Kachchh


Black Sea and Omura Bay


Baltic Sea and Persian Gulf


Mediterranean Sea and Bay of Fundy

Uranium in Indian agricultural soils is mainly contributed by


Weathering of Uranium rich minerals


Excess addition of NPK fertilizers


Excess addition of pesticides


Excess addition of fungicides


24. Loamy sand contains


80 silt and 80 %clay


10 silt and 5 clay


15 to 30 silt and 10 to 15 clay


80 silt and 20% clay


25. Spectral reflectance of leaf is highest for which band

Blue Green


Near infrared Middle infrared


26. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given codes List I List II
(Elements) (Concentration in Earth's
Crust by weight

a.
Oxygen i. 8.13

b.
Aluminium ii. 46.60

c.
Iron iii. 27.72

d.
Silicon iv. 5.00
Identify the correct code




Codes
a b cd

i iv iii ii


iii ii i iv


ii i iv iii


iv iii ii i


27. Indian Microwave Remote Sensing Satellite is

RISAT Resourcesat


IRS Bhaskara


28. Mount Etna in Sicily and Mauna Loa in Hawaiian Islands are the most noteworthy examples of

shield volcanoes plug dome


strato volcanoes pyroclastic cones


29. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given codes

List I List II
(Mineral Deposit) (Top producer)

a.
Bauxite i. Peru

b.
Copper ii. India

c.
Mica iii. USA

d.
Guano iv. Australia
Identify the correct code




Codes
a b cd

i ii iii iv


iv iii ii i


iii i iv ii


ii iv i iii


30. Which of the following fuels has the highest HHV carbon intensity

Natural gas Oil


Bituminous coal Nuclear fuel


U235
31. If fission of 1 atom of produces 200 MeV energy, how much energy will be produced by 1 metric ton of U235

4.1 × 107 MJ 8.2 × 107 MJ


1.23 × 108 MJ 2 × 105 MJ


32. The Green Climate Fund recently set up to help poor countries adapt to climate impacts envisages financial support to the extent of (in per year)

100 bn 30 bn


10 bn 3 bn


33. Which of the following biomass conversion processes produces biogas from crop residues

Anaerobic digestion Fermentation


Pyrolysis Aerobic digestion


34. Which among the following is superior carbon fixer per unit area for bioenergy generation

Trees Shrubs


Blue-green algae Crops


35. Energy flow in ecosystem is governed by

First law of thermodynamics


Second law of thermodynamics


Planck's law


Kirchoff's law


36. Average number of carbon in diesel ranges between
C C C
18 24 1016
C C C
4 6 2530
37. Knocking effect in the gasoline cannot be reached by one of the following additives

(C2H5)4Pb BTX


Kerosene n-Butane


38. Radioactive mineral available in the Indian coastal region is

Rutile Monazite


Apatite Magnetite


39. Thermal pollution in the coastal region is caused by
i. Atomic power plants
ii. Thermal power plants
iii. Industrial plants
iv. Tourism industry
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below


Codes

ii, iii only i ii only


iii iv only ii iii only


40. Assertion Metallic contaminants are toxic to the microorganism. Reason Heavy metal tends to precipitate in the form of phosphatic compounds and
decrease soil fertility.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct


Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.


41. A point source of sound produces a noise of 70 dB at a distance of 20 m from it. What will be the noise level at 80 m from it

35 dB 64 dB


58 dB 52 dB


42. Stratospheric ozone absorbs UV radiations principally in the wavelength range

320 400 nm 230 320 nm


290 nm 180 240 nm


43. If Gd, Gs and Grepresent dry adiabatic, saturated adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate, respectively, the condition for unstable atmosphere is

G Gd G Gd


G Gs G Gs Gd


44. At initial time number of E. coli per ml was 10. If generation time is 30 minutes, what would be number of cells per ml after a duration of 4 hours

256 2560


240 300


45. Emission inventories involved in urban air quality assessment include parameters on
i. SO2, NOx, particulate matter pollutants
ii. Industry, traffic, domestic sources
iii. Fuel type, gasoline, wood as energy carrier
Choose the correct answer from codes given below


Codes

i ii only ii iii only


i iii only ii iii


46. Assertion Leopold matrix can be expanded or contracted. Reason Leopold matrix is a checklist designed to show possible interactions
between developmental activities and set of environmental characteristics. In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.


47. In Battele environment evaluation system the total parameter importance units is lowest for

Ecology Environmental Pollution


Aesthetics Human interest


48. ISO 14040 is

Environmental Management Life cycle assessment principle and framework.


Environmental Management environmental assessment of sites and organization.


Guidelines for environmental audit general principle.


Environmental Management vocabulary.


49. Given below are stages within each tier of risk assessment
i. identification of consequences
ii. hazard identification
iii. probability assessment
iv.
assessment of consequences as well as significance of risk

v.
magnitude assessment for consequences
Which one of the following code represent correct sequences




ii, iii, iv ii, iii, iv, v


iii, ii, iv, i iv, ii, iii, v


50. Ecolabels are indicators of
i. Acceptable level of environmental impact of a product.
ii. Environmental performance of a product.
iii. Claims of environmental friendliness of a product.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below


ii, iii ii only


i only ii only


51. Ecosystem diversity can be best studied using the

Topographical maps Geoinformatics


Geodesy Geology


52. Biennial assessment of forest cover in India is done by

Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Dehradun


Forest Research Institute, Dehradun


Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal


Forest Survey of India, Dehradun


53. Soil moisture using remote sensing techniques is determined best in

Optical region Thermal region


Microwave region Infrared region


54. Which one of the following statements is not connected to ISO 14000 series of Environmental Management

Promotes eco-labelling of the product


It is based on the recommendation of TC-207 committee


Make the environmental audit mandatory


Promotes human rights and women empowerment


55. As per colour coding of plastic bags for biomedical wastes, match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below List I List II (Colour Code) (Option for disposal)
a.
Yellow plastic bags i. Disposal in secured land fills

b.
Black plastic bags ii. Incineration and deep burials

c.
Blue/White plastic bags iii. Autoclaving and chemical treatment

d.
Red plastic bags iv. Microwave treatments and destruction



Codes
a b cd

iv iii ii i


i iv iii ii


ii i iv iii


iii ii i iv


56. Given below is a list of natural disasters
i. Hudhud cyclone

ii. Chernobyl nuclear plant disaster

iii. Tsunami in Indian Ocean

iv. Bhopal gas tragedy
Which is the correct chronological sequence for the above events in the codes given below


Codes

iii, ii, iv ii, iii, iv


iv, ii, iii, i ii, iii, iv


57. Benchmarking in environmental management refers to


Potential risk assessment.


Reporting of environmental performance.


Assessment of organization's business processes against the best-in-class operations to improve the performance.


Setting of environmental standards to be followed by environmental managers.


58. Basel convention is related to

Control of ozone depletion.


Control of water pollution.


Transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal.


Environmental auditing.


59. Concept of intergenerational equity on natural resources refers to

Legal obligations of present generation to future generations.


Moral obligation of the present generation to future generation.


Equitable responsibility of pollution generating industries.


Prudent use of resources inherited from previous generation.


60. Which among the following is not correct in regard to the sources of nitrate in the soils
i. Microbial breakdown of soil organic matter, organic manure and plant residues.
ii. Fertilizers which add nitrate and that formed by microbial oxidation of NH+ from
4ammonium fertilizers or urea.
iii. Addition from the atmosphere.
iv. Pesticides containing nitrogen atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the following codes


Codes

i ii


iii iv


61. Which one of the following protozoan is related to water borne disease

Spumella sp. Entamoeba histolytica


Paramoecium Plasmodium vivax


62. Match the List I with List II, choose the correct answer from the given codes

List I List II
(Group of Analysis) (Test)

a.
Unidimensional analysis i. Testing of hypothesis

b.
Multivariate analysis ii. Measure of central tendency

c.
Interferential analysis iii. Two-way ANOVA

d.
Bivariate analysis iv. Canonical analysis



Codes
a b cd

i iii iv ii


ii iv i iii


iii i ii iv


iv ii iii i


63. The differences between crude birth rate and crude death rate in a population is called

Population momentum


Demographic transition rate


Net migration rate


Rate of natural increase


64. Which set of stoichiometric coefficient correctly balance the equation
a. H O b. KMnO c. HSO. d. KSO e. MnSO f. HO g. O
2242424422
Select the correct answer from the codes given below


Codes
a b cd e f g

1 1 1 1 1 1 1


1 2 3 1 2 4 3


2 5 3 2 1 8 5


5 2 3 1 2 8 5


65. Assertion The hypothesis testing can proceed on the basis of null hypothesis. Reason If null hypothesis is true probabilities to different possible sample result can be assigned to it. In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.


66. The advantage of Leslie matrices are
I. Stable age distribution is not required for valid population projections.
II. Can derive finite rate of population change.
III. Requires large amount of data on population structure.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below


Codes

I and III only I only


I and II only II and III only


67. Important characteristics of .2 test are
I. As a non-parametric test, it is based on frequencies.
II. It is not useful for estimation and to test hypothesis.
III. Can be applied to a complex contingency table.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below


Codes

I and II only I and III only


II and III only II and III


68. The quantity of 0.2% solution needed to prepare 1000 mL of 10 ppm solution is

5 mL 10 mL


20 mL 200 mL


69. Which one of the following international events was not related to climate change

UN framework convention on climate change, 1992.


Montreal Protocol, 1987


Stockholm conference on "Human and Environment", 1972


Kyoto Protocol, 1997


70. Which of the following has the lowest Ozone depletion potential

HCFC 22 HCFC 123


Halon 1211 CFC 12


71. Assertion Rain water harvesting, primarily aims at artificial recharge of ground water to uplift the ground water table.
Reason Under rain water harvesting, the primary aim is to let the rain water infiltrate into the underground aquifer.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.


72. For environmental mass awareness, Paryavaran Vahini Scheme was launched in the year

1988 2003


1992 1998


73. Disaster Management Act in India came into existence in the year

2003 2005


1998 2006


74. Which one of the following is most reactive oxygen species

1O2 O· 2

·


H2O2 OH


75. If we move through the group I elements from top to bottom we first encounter Lithium, Sodium and Potassium. If we move further which elements we will encounter in sequence

Caesium, Calcium, Rubidium


Rubidium, Caesium, Francium


Rubidium, Caesium, Rhodium


Magnesium, Rubidium, Francium


Space For Rough Work


Paper-III 16
D-89-14


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