Exam Details
Subject | environmental sciences | |
Paper | paper 3 | |
Exam / Course | ugc net national eligibility test | |
Department | ||
Organization | university grants commission | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | December, 2014 | |
City, State | , |
Question Paper
PAPER-III
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1.
(Signature) OMR Sheet No. ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2.
(Signature) (In figures as per admission card)
(Name) Roll (In words)
D 8 9 1 4
Time 2 1/2 hours] [Maximum Marks 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet 16 Instructions for the Candidates
1.
Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2.
This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions.
3.
At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below
To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.
Each item has four alternative responses marked and You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item.
Example
where is the correct response.
5.
Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6.
Read instructions given inside carefully.
7.
Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8.
If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.
You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10.
Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11.
Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12.
There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13.
In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final.
Number of Questions in this Booklet 75
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1 P.T.O.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper III
Note This paper contains seventy five objective type questions of two marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Which of the following ranges of scale lengths represents meso-scale motions in atmosphere
30 km 400 km 500 m 10 km
1 km 2 km 100 m 1 km
2. Rayleigh scattering in the atmosphere is caused by
molecules larger than the wavelength
molecules equal to the size of wavelength
molecules whose size is much smaller than the wavelength
molecules and particles of all sizes
3. Wind rose is a
graphical representation of wind velocity vector over a period of time in a polar diagram.
graphical representation of wind velocity vector in a spherical coordinate system over a period of time.
graphical representation of horizontal and vertical wind speeds over a period of time in polar diagram.
graphical representation of instantaneous wind velocity at a particular time.
4. The key groups of organic molecules that help in chelation of metal ions are
I. COOH II. SH
III. CHIV. CHO
3
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
I only I and II only
II, III and IV only II and IV only
5. Geostrophic winds are the result of the balance between
coriolis force and pressure gradient force
coriolis force and centrifugal force
pressure gradient force and frictional force
pressure gradient force and centrifugal force
6. A possible mechanism for photochemical smog inhibition is to add compounds like diethylhydroxylamine (DEHA) as it reacts with
hydrocarbon nitrogen dioxide
PAN hydroxyl radicals
7. In the determination of sulphur dioxide by p-rosaniline method, the end product is
p-rosaniline sulfonic acid methyl p-rosaniline
p-rosaniline methyl sulfonic acid sulfo methyl p-rosaniline
8. Number of molecuels present in 10 ml of proline is
6.023 × 1023 6.023 × 1020
6.023 × 1018 6.023 × 1017
9. Nitrogenous biochemical oxygen demand refers to the quantity of O2 needed to convert
N2 to NO N2 to NH
34
NH to NO Protein to CO2 H2O NO2
43
10. Beer-Lambert's law defines
The degree of absorption of monochromatic light by a homogeneous medium
Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
Atomic emission spectrophotometry
Gas chromatography
11. Chemically phytochelatins are
Proteins Polysaccharides
Lipids Polypeptides
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
Mixture of organic pollutants X and Y were separated using paper chromatography and the Rf values obtained for X and Y were 0.75 and 0.25, respectively. Which relationship holds good for the solubility of these pollutants in mobile phase
X Y X Y
X Y X Y 1
Overall reaction of Winkler's method is
4SO O. 2SO 2HO
2242
36This equation indicates
One mole of O2 is equivalent to one mole of thiosulphate.
One mole of O2 is equivalent to two moles of thiosulphate.
One mole of O2 is equivalent to three moles of thiosulphate.
One mole of O2 is equivalent to four moles of thiosulphate.
Return of an ecosystem to a condition prior to disturbance refers to as
Rehabilitation Restoration
Rejuvenation Reclaimation
Assertion Shade loving species show better natural regeneration under highly disturbed condition. Reason Heliophilic species needs more exposure to light for better natural regeneration. In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
Which one of the following enzymes work under strict anaerobic conditions to fix atmospheric nitrogen
Nitrate reductase Nitrite reductase
Transaminase Nitrogenase
Predatory strategy followed by an alligator for hunting is
Chase Stalk
Ambush Camouflage
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
In a tropical peat forest, the carbon storage (tonnes/ha) is typically in the range
3000 6000 13000 16000
300 600 300 1600
Which one of the following bacterial species convert NO to NO
23
Nitrosomonas Nitrobacter
Rhizobium Azospirillum
Assertion Living system adapted to low temperatures invariably show higher unsaturated to saturated fatty acid in membrane lipids.
Reason Fluidity of membranes is directly proportional to unsaturated to saturated fatty acids in membrane lipids.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
Which of the following(s) are produced during fermentation
I. Ethanol II. Citrate
III. Lactate IV. Succinate Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
I only I and II only
I and III only II and IV only
Salinity of the ocean varies from 2.0 to 4.2 in
Red Sea and Gulf of Kachchh
Black Sea and Omura Bay
Baltic Sea and Persian Gulf
Mediterranean Sea and Bay of Fundy
Uranium in Indian agricultural soils is mainly contributed by
Weathering of Uranium rich minerals
Excess addition of NPK fertilizers
Excess addition of pesticides
Excess addition of fungicides
24. Loamy sand contains
80 silt and 80 %clay
10 silt and 5 clay
15 to 30 silt and 10 to 15 clay
80 silt and 20% clay
25. Spectral reflectance of leaf is highest for which band
Blue Green
Near infrared Middle infrared
26. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given codes List I List II
(Elements) (Concentration in Earth's
Crust by weight
a.
Oxygen i. 8.13
b.
Aluminium ii. 46.60
c.
Iron iii. 27.72
d.
Silicon iv. 5.00
Identify the correct code
Codes
a b cd
i iv iii ii
iii ii i iv
ii i iv iii
iv iii ii i
27. Indian Microwave Remote Sensing Satellite is
RISAT Resourcesat
IRS Bhaskara
28. Mount Etna in Sicily and Mauna Loa in Hawaiian Islands are the most noteworthy examples of
shield volcanoes plug dome
strato volcanoes pyroclastic cones
29. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given codes
List I List II
(Mineral Deposit) (Top producer)
a.
Bauxite i. Peru
b.
Copper ii. India
c.
Mica iii. USA
d.
Guano iv. Australia
Identify the correct code
Codes
a b cd
i ii iii iv
iv iii ii i
iii i iv ii
ii iv i iii
30. Which of the following fuels has the highest HHV carbon intensity
Natural gas Oil
Bituminous coal Nuclear fuel
U235
31. If fission of 1 atom of produces 200 MeV energy, how much energy will be produced by 1 metric ton of U235
4.1 × 107 MJ 8.2 × 107 MJ
1.23 × 108 MJ 2 × 105 MJ
32. The Green Climate Fund recently set up to help poor countries adapt to climate impacts envisages financial support to the extent of (in per year)
100 bn 30 bn
10 bn 3 bn
33. Which of the following biomass conversion processes produces biogas from crop residues
Anaerobic digestion Fermentation
Pyrolysis Aerobic digestion
34. Which among the following is superior carbon fixer per unit area for bioenergy generation
Trees Shrubs
Blue-green algae Crops
35. Energy flow in ecosystem is governed by
First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Planck's law
Kirchoff's law
36. Average number of carbon in diesel ranges between
C C C
18 24 1016
C C C
4 6 2530
37. Knocking effect in the gasoline cannot be reached by one of the following additives
(C2H5)4Pb BTX
Kerosene n-Butane
38. Radioactive mineral available in the Indian coastal region is
Rutile Monazite
Apatite Magnetite
39. Thermal pollution in the coastal region is caused by
i. Atomic power plants
ii. Thermal power plants
iii. Industrial plants
iv. Tourism industry
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes
ii, iii only i ii only
iii iv only ii iii only
40. Assertion Metallic contaminants are toxic to the microorganism. Reason Heavy metal tends to precipitate in the form of phosphatic compounds and
decrease soil fertility.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
41. A point source of sound produces a noise of 70 dB at a distance of 20 m from it. What will be the noise level at 80 m from it
35 dB 64 dB
58 dB 52 dB
42. Stratospheric ozone absorbs UV radiations principally in the wavelength range
320 400 nm 230 320 nm
290 nm 180 240 nm
43. If Gd, Gs and Grepresent dry adiabatic, saturated adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate, respectively, the condition for unstable atmosphere is
G Gd G Gd
G Gs G Gs Gd
44. At initial time number of E. coli per ml was 10. If generation time is 30 minutes, what would be number of cells per ml after a duration of 4 hours
256 2560
240 300
45. Emission inventories involved in urban air quality assessment include parameters on
i. SO2, NOx, particulate matter pollutants
ii. Industry, traffic, domestic sources
iii. Fuel type, gasoline, wood as energy carrier
Choose the correct answer from codes given below
Codes
i ii only ii iii only
i iii only ii iii
46. Assertion Leopold matrix can be expanded or contracted. Reason Leopold matrix is a checklist designed to show possible interactions
between developmental activities and set of environmental characteristics. In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
47. In Battele environment evaluation system the total parameter importance units is lowest for
Ecology Environmental Pollution
Aesthetics Human interest
48. ISO 14040 is
Environmental Management Life cycle assessment principle and framework.
Environmental Management environmental assessment of sites and organization.
Guidelines for environmental audit general principle.
Environmental Management vocabulary.
49. Given below are stages within each tier of risk assessment
i. identification of consequences
ii. hazard identification
iii. probability assessment
iv.
assessment of consequences as well as significance of risk
v.
magnitude assessment for consequences
Which one of the following code represent correct sequences
ii, iii, iv ii, iii, iv, v
iii, ii, iv, i iv, ii, iii, v
50. Ecolabels are indicators of
i. Acceptable level of environmental impact of a product.
ii. Environmental performance of a product.
iii. Claims of environmental friendliness of a product.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
ii, iii ii only
i only ii only
51. Ecosystem diversity can be best studied using the
Topographical maps Geoinformatics
Geodesy Geology
52. Biennial assessment of forest cover in India is done by
Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Dehradun
Forest Research Institute, Dehradun
Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal
Forest Survey of India, Dehradun
53. Soil moisture using remote sensing techniques is determined best in
Optical region Thermal region
Microwave region Infrared region
54. Which one of the following statements is not connected to ISO 14000 series of Environmental Management
Promotes eco-labelling of the product
It is based on the recommendation of TC-207 committee
Make the environmental audit mandatory
Promotes human rights and women empowerment
55. As per colour coding of plastic bags for biomedical wastes, match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below List I List II (Colour Code) (Option for disposal)
a.
Yellow plastic bags i. Disposal in secured land fills
b.
Black plastic bags ii. Incineration and deep burials
c.
Blue/White plastic bags iii. Autoclaving and chemical treatment
d.
Red plastic bags iv. Microwave treatments and destruction
Codes
a b cd
iv iii ii i
i iv iii ii
ii i iv iii
iii ii i iv
56. Given below is a list of natural disasters
i. Hudhud cyclone
ii. Chernobyl nuclear plant disaster
iii. Tsunami in Indian Ocean
iv. Bhopal gas tragedy
Which is the correct chronological sequence for the above events in the codes given below
Codes
iii, ii, iv ii, iii, iv
iv, ii, iii, i ii, iii, iv
57. Benchmarking in environmental management refers to
Potential risk assessment.
Reporting of environmental performance.
Assessment of organization's business processes against the best-in-class operations to improve the performance.
Setting of environmental standards to be followed by environmental managers.
58. Basel convention is related to
Control of ozone depletion.
Control of water pollution.
Transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal.
Environmental auditing.
59. Concept of intergenerational equity on natural resources refers to
Legal obligations of present generation to future generations.
Moral obligation of the present generation to future generation.
Equitable responsibility of pollution generating industries.
Prudent use of resources inherited from previous generation.
60. Which among the following is not correct in regard to the sources of nitrate in the soils
i. Microbial breakdown of soil organic matter, organic manure and plant residues.
ii. Fertilizers which add nitrate and that formed by microbial oxidation of NH+ from
4ammonium fertilizers or urea.
iii. Addition from the atmosphere.
iv. Pesticides containing nitrogen atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the following codes
Codes
i ii
iii iv
61. Which one of the following protozoan is related to water borne disease
Spumella sp. Entamoeba histolytica
Paramoecium Plasmodium vivax
62. Match the List I with List II, choose the correct answer from the given codes
List I List II
(Group of Analysis) (Test)
a.
Unidimensional analysis i. Testing of hypothesis
b.
Multivariate analysis ii. Measure of central tendency
c.
Interferential analysis iii. Two-way ANOVA
d.
Bivariate analysis iv. Canonical analysis
Codes
a b cd
i iii iv ii
ii iv i iii
iii i ii iv
iv ii iii i
63. The differences between crude birth rate and crude death rate in a population is called
Population momentum
Demographic transition rate
Net migration rate
Rate of natural increase
64. Which set of stoichiometric coefficient correctly balance the equation
a. H O b. KMnO c. HSO. d. KSO e. MnSO f. HO g. O
2242424422
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes
a b cd e f g
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 2 3 1 2 4 3
2 5 3 2 1 8 5
5 2 3 1 2 8 5
65. Assertion The hypothesis testing can proceed on the basis of null hypothesis. Reason If null hypothesis is true probabilities to different possible sample result can be assigned to it. In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
66. The advantage of Leslie matrices are
I. Stable age distribution is not required for valid population projections.
II. Can derive finite rate of population change.
III. Requires large amount of data on population structure.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes
I and III only I only
I and II only II and III only
67. Important characteristics of .2 test are
I. As a non-parametric test, it is based on frequencies.
II. It is not useful for estimation and to test hypothesis.
III. Can be applied to a complex contingency table.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes
I and II only I and III only
II and III only II and III
68. The quantity of 0.2% solution needed to prepare 1000 mL of 10 ppm solution is
5 mL 10 mL
20 mL 200 mL
69. Which one of the following international events was not related to climate change
UN framework convention on climate change, 1992.
Montreal Protocol, 1987
Stockholm conference on "Human and Environment", 1972
Kyoto Protocol, 1997
70. Which of the following has the lowest Ozone depletion potential
HCFC 22 HCFC 123
Halon 1211 CFC 12
71. Assertion Rain water harvesting, primarily aims at artificial recharge of ground water to uplift the ground water table.
Reason Under rain water harvesting, the primary aim is to let the rain water infiltrate into the underground aquifer.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
72. For environmental mass awareness, Paryavaran Vahini Scheme was launched in the year
1988 2003
1992 1998
73. Disaster Management Act in India came into existence in the year
2003 2005
1998 2006
74. Which one of the following is most reactive oxygen species
1O2 O· 2
·
H2O2 OH
75. If we move through the group I elements from top to bottom we first encounter Lithium, Sodium and Potassium. If we move further which elements we will encounter in sequence
Caesium, Calcium, Rubidium
Rubidium, Caesium, Francium
Rubidium, Caesium, Rhodium
Magnesium, Rubidium, Francium
Space For Rough Work
Paper-III 16
D-89-14
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
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D 8 9 1 4
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Number of Pages in this Booklet 16 Instructions for the Candidates
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2.
This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions.
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where is the correct response.
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Number of Questions in this Booklet 75
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1 P.T.O.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper III
Note This paper contains seventy five objective type questions of two marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Which of the following ranges of scale lengths represents meso-scale motions in atmosphere
30 km 400 km 500 m 10 km
1 km 2 km 100 m 1 km
2. Rayleigh scattering in the atmosphere is caused by
molecules larger than the wavelength
molecules equal to the size of wavelength
molecules whose size is much smaller than the wavelength
molecules and particles of all sizes
3. Wind rose is a
graphical representation of wind velocity vector over a period of time in a polar diagram.
graphical representation of wind velocity vector in a spherical coordinate system over a period of time.
graphical representation of horizontal and vertical wind speeds over a period of time in polar diagram.
graphical representation of instantaneous wind velocity at a particular time.
4. The key groups of organic molecules that help in chelation of metal ions are
I. COOH II. SH
III. CHIV. CHO
3
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
I only I and II only
II, III and IV only II and IV only
5. Geostrophic winds are the result of the balance between
coriolis force and pressure gradient force
coriolis force and centrifugal force
pressure gradient force and frictional force
pressure gradient force and centrifugal force
6. A possible mechanism for photochemical smog inhibition is to add compounds like diethylhydroxylamine (DEHA) as it reacts with
hydrocarbon nitrogen dioxide
PAN hydroxyl radicals
7. In the determination of sulphur dioxide by p-rosaniline method, the end product is
p-rosaniline sulfonic acid methyl p-rosaniline
p-rosaniline methyl sulfonic acid sulfo methyl p-rosaniline
8. Number of molecuels present in 10 ml of proline is
6.023 × 1023 6.023 × 1020
6.023 × 1018 6.023 × 1017
9. Nitrogenous biochemical oxygen demand refers to the quantity of O2 needed to convert
N2 to NO N2 to NH
34
NH to NO Protein to CO2 H2O NO2
43
10. Beer-Lambert's law defines
The degree of absorption of monochromatic light by a homogeneous medium
Atomic absorption spectrophotometry
Atomic emission spectrophotometry
Gas chromatography
11. Chemically phytochelatins are
Proteins Polysaccharides
Lipids Polypeptides
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
Mixture of organic pollutants X and Y were separated using paper chromatography and the Rf values obtained for X and Y were 0.75 and 0.25, respectively. Which relationship holds good for the solubility of these pollutants in mobile phase
X Y X Y
X Y X Y 1
Overall reaction of Winkler's method is
4SO O. 2SO 2HO
2242
36This equation indicates
One mole of O2 is equivalent to one mole of thiosulphate.
One mole of O2 is equivalent to two moles of thiosulphate.
One mole of O2 is equivalent to three moles of thiosulphate.
One mole of O2 is equivalent to four moles of thiosulphate.
Return of an ecosystem to a condition prior to disturbance refers to as
Rehabilitation Restoration
Rejuvenation Reclaimation
Assertion Shade loving species show better natural regeneration under highly disturbed condition. Reason Heliophilic species needs more exposure to light for better natural regeneration. In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
Which one of the following enzymes work under strict anaerobic conditions to fix atmospheric nitrogen
Nitrate reductase Nitrite reductase
Transaminase Nitrogenase
Predatory strategy followed by an alligator for hunting is
Chase Stalk
Ambush Camouflage
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
In a tropical peat forest, the carbon storage (tonnes/ha) is typically in the range
3000 6000 13000 16000
300 600 300 1600
Which one of the following bacterial species convert NO to NO
23
Nitrosomonas Nitrobacter
Rhizobium Azospirillum
Assertion Living system adapted to low temperatures invariably show higher unsaturated to saturated fatty acid in membrane lipids.
Reason Fluidity of membranes is directly proportional to unsaturated to saturated fatty acids in membrane lipids.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
Which of the following(s) are produced during fermentation
I. Ethanol II. Citrate
III. Lactate IV. Succinate Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
I only I and II only
I and III only II and IV only
Salinity of the ocean varies from 2.0 to 4.2 in
Red Sea and Gulf of Kachchh
Black Sea and Omura Bay
Baltic Sea and Persian Gulf
Mediterranean Sea and Bay of Fundy
Uranium in Indian agricultural soils is mainly contributed by
Weathering of Uranium rich minerals
Excess addition of NPK fertilizers
Excess addition of pesticides
Excess addition of fungicides
24. Loamy sand contains
80 silt and 80 %clay
10 silt and 5 clay
15 to 30 silt and 10 to 15 clay
80 silt and 20% clay
25. Spectral reflectance of leaf is highest for which band
Blue Green
Near infrared Middle infrared
26. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given codes List I List II
(Elements) (Concentration in Earth's
Crust by weight
a.
Oxygen i. 8.13
b.
Aluminium ii. 46.60
c.
Iron iii. 27.72
d.
Silicon iv. 5.00
Identify the correct code
Codes
a b cd
i iv iii ii
iii ii i iv
ii i iv iii
iv iii ii i
27. Indian Microwave Remote Sensing Satellite is
RISAT Resourcesat
IRS Bhaskara
28. Mount Etna in Sicily and Mauna Loa in Hawaiian Islands are the most noteworthy examples of
shield volcanoes plug dome
strato volcanoes pyroclastic cones
29. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given codes
List I List II
(Mineral Deposit) (Top producer)
a.
Bauxite i. Peru
b.
Copper ii. India
c.
Mica iii. USA
d.
Guano iv. Australia
Identify the correct code
Codes
a b cd
i ii iii iv
iv iii ii i
iii i iv ii
ii iv i iii
30. Which of the following fuels has the highest HHV carbon intensity
Natural gas Oil
Bituminous coal Nuclear fuel
U235
31. If fission of 1 atom of produces 200 MeV energy, how much energy will be produced by 1 metric ton of U235
4.1 × 107 MJ 8.2 × 107 MJ
1.23 × 108 MJ 2 × 105 MJ
32. The Green Climate Fund recently set up to help poor countries adapt to climate impacts envisages financial support to the extent of (in per year)
100 bn 30 bn
10 bn 3 bn
33. Which of the following biomass conversion processes produces biogas from crop residues
Anaerobic digestion Fermentation
Pyrolysis Aerobic digestion
34. Which among the following is superior carbon fixer per unit area for bioenergy generation
Trees Shrubs
Blue-green algae Crops
35. Energy flow in ecosystem is governed by
First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Planck's law
Kirchoff's law
36. Average number of carbon in diesel ranges between
C C C
18 24 1016
C C C
4 6 2530
37. Knocking effect in the gasoline cannot be reached by one of the following additives
(C2H5)4Pb BTX
Kerosene n-Butane
38. Radioactive mineral available in the Indian coastal region is
Rutile Monazite
Apatite Magnetite
39. Thermal pollution in the coastal region is caused by
i. Atomic power plants
ii. Thermal power plants
iii. Industrial plants
iv. Tourism industry
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes
ii, iii only i ii only
iii iv only ii iii only
40. Assertion Metallic contaminants are toxic to the microorganism. Reason Heavy metal tends to precipitate in the form of phosphatic compounds and
decrease soil fertility.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
41. A point source of sound produces a noise of 70 dB at a distance of 20 m from it. What will be the noise level at 80 m from it
35 dB 64 dB
58 dB 52 dB
42. Stratospheric ozone absorbs UV radiations principally in the wavelength range
320 400 nm 230 320 nm
290 nm 180 240 nm
43. If Gd, Gs and Grepresent dry adiabatic, saturated adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate, respectively, the condition for unstable atmosphere is
G Gd G Gd
G Gs G Gs Gd
44. At initial time number of E. coli per ml was 10. If generation time is 30 minutes, what would be number of cells per ml after a duration of 4 hours
256 2560
240 300
45. Emission inventories involved in urban air quality assessment include parameters on
i. SO2, NOx, particulate matter pollutants
ii. Industry, traffic, domestic sources
iii. Fuel type, gasoline, wood as energy carrier
Choose the correct answer from codes given below
Codes
i ii only ii iii only
i iii only ii iii
46. Assertion Leopold matrix can be expanded or contracted. Reason Leopold matrix is a checklist designed to show possible interactions
between developmental activities and set of environmental characteristics. In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
47. In Battele environment evaluation system the total parameter importance units is lowest for
Ecology Environmental Pollution
Aesthetics Human interest
48. ISO 14040 is
Environmental Management Life cycle assessment principle and framework.
Environmental Management environmental assessment of sites and organization.
Guidelines for environmental audit general principle.
Environmental Management vocabulary.
49. Given below are stages within each tier of risk assessment
i. identification of consequences
ii. hazard identification
iii. probability assessment
iv.
assessment of consequences as well as significance of risk
v.
magnitude assessment for consequences
Which one of the following code represent correct sequences
ii, iii, iv ii, iii, iv, v
iii, ii, iv, i iv, ii, iii, v
50. Ecolabels are indicators of
i. Acceptable level of environmental impact of a product.
ii. Environmental performance of a product.
iii. Claims of environmental friendliness of a product.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
ii, iii ii only
i only ii only
51. Ecosystem diversity can be best studied using the
Topographical maps Geoinformatics
Geodesy Geology
52. Biennial assessment of forest cover in India is done by
Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Dehradun
Forest Research Institute, Dehradun
Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal
Forest Survey of India, Dehradun
53. Soil moisture using remote sensing techniques is determined best in
Optical region Thermal region
Microwave region Infrared region
54. Which one of the following statements is not connected to ISO 14000 series of Environmental Management
Promotes eco-labelling of the product
It is based on the recommendation of TC-207 committee
Make the environmental audit mandatory
Promotes human rights and women empowerment
55. As per colour coding of plastic bags for biomedical wastes, match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below List I List II (Colour Code) (Option for disposal)
a.
Yellow plastic bags i. Disposal in secured land fills
b.
Black plastic bags ii. Incineration and deep burials
c.
Blue/White plastic bags iii. Autoclaving and chemical treatment
d.
Red plastic bags iv. Microwave treatments and destruction
Codes
a b cd
iv iii ii i
i iv iii ii
ii i iv iii
iii ii i iv
56. Given below is a list of natural disasters
i. Hudhud cyclone
ii. Chernobyl nuclear plant disaster
iii. Tsunami in Indian Ocean
iv. Bhopal gas tragedy
Which is the correct chronological sequence for the above events in the codes given below
Codes
iii, ii, iv ii, iii, iv
iv, ii, iii, i ii, iii, iv
57. Benchmarking in environmental management refers to
Potential risk assessment.
Reporting of environmental performance.
Assessment of organization's business processes against the best-in-class operations to improve the performance.
Setting of environmental standards to be followed by environmental managers.
58. Basel convention is related to
Control of ozone depletion.
Control of water pollution.
Transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal.
Environmental auditing.
59. Concept of intergenerational equity on natural resources refers to
Legal obligations of present generation to future generations.
Moral obligation of the present generation to future generation.
Equitable responsibility of pollution generating industries.
Prudent use of resources inherited from previous generation.
60. Which among the following is not correct in regard to the sources of nitrate in the soils
i. Microbial breakdown of soil organic matter, organic manure and plant residues.
ii. Fertilizers which add nitrate and that formed by microbial oxidation of NH+ from
4ammonium fertilizers or urea.
iii. Addition from the atmosphere.
iv. Pesticides containing nitrogen atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the following codes
Codes
i ii
iii iv
61. Which one of the following protozoan is related to water borne disease
Spumella sp. Entamoeba histolytica
Paramoecium Plasmodium vivax
62. Match the List I with List II, choose the correct answer from the given codes
List I List II
(Group of Analysis) (Test)
a.
Unidimensional analysis i. Testing of hypothesis
b.
Multivariate analysis ii. Measure of central tendency
c.
Interferential analysis iii. Two-way ANOVA
d.
Bivariate analysis iv. Canonical analysis
Codes
a b cd
i iii iv ii
ii iv i iii
iii i ii iv
iv ii iii i
63. The differences between crude birth rate and crude death rate in a population is called
Population momentum
Demographic transition rate
Net migration rate
Rate of natural increase
64. Which set of stoichiometric coefficient correctly balance the equation
a. H O b. KMnO c. HSO. d. KSO e. MnSO f. HO g. O
2242424422
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes
a b cd e f g
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 2 3 1 2 4 3
2 5 3 2 1 8 5
5 2 3 1 2 8 5
65. Assertion The hypothesis testing can proceed on the basis of null hypothesis. Reason If null hypothesis is true probabilities to different possible sample result can be assigned to it. In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
66. The advantage of Leslie matrices are
I. Stable age distribution is not required for valid population projections.
II. Can derive finite rate of population change.
III. Requires large amount of data on population structure.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes
I and III only I only
I and II only II and III only
67. Important characteristics of .2 test are
I. As a non-parametric test, it is based on frequencies.
II. It is not useful for estimation and to test hypothesis.
III. Can be applied to a complex contingency table.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes
I and II only I and III only
II and III only II and III
68. The quantity of 0.2% solution needed to prepare 1000 mL of 10 ppm solution is
5 mL 10 mL
20 mL 200 mL
69. Which one of the following international events was not related to climate change
UN framework convention on climate change, 1992.
Montreal Protocol, 1987
Stockholm conference on "Human and Environment", 1972
Kyoto Protocol, 1997
70. Which of the following has the lowest Ozone depletion potential
HCFC 22 HCFC 123
Halon 1211 CFC 12
71. Assertion Rain water harvesting, primarily aims at artificial recharge of ground water to uplift the ground water table.
Reason Under rain water harvesting, the primary aim is to let the rain water infiltrate into the underground aquifer.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
72. For environmental mass awareness, Paryavaran Vahini Scheme was launched in the year
1988 2003
1992 1998
73. Disaster Management Act in India came into existence in the year
2003 2005
1998 2006
74. Which one of the following is most reactive oxygen species
1O2 O· 2
·
H2O2 OH
75. If we move through the group I elements from top to bottom we first encounter Lithium, Sodium and Potassium. If we move further which elements we will encounter in sequence
Caesium, Calcium, Rubidium
Rubidium, Caesium, Francium
Rubidium, Caesium, Rhodium
Magnesium, Rubidium, Francium
Space For Rough Work
Paper-III 16
D-89-14
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