Exam Details

Subject environmental sciences
Paper paper 3
Exam / Course ugc net national eligibility test
Department
Organization university grants commission
Position
Exam Date December, 2013
City, State ,


Question Paper

PAPER-III ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE Signature and Name of Invigilator

1. For an overcast day or night, the atmosphere is

stable


neutral


slightly stable


unstable

2. Assertion The energy flow in an ecosystem follows the law of thermodynamics.

Reason The energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional and during the transformation of energy from one trophic level to the other, 80 90% of energy is lost.

Codes

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.

3. Match the List I with List II and identify the correct answer from the given codes
List I (Thermodynamic Variables) (Symbols have their usual meanings.) List II (Expression)

<img src='./qimages/2629-3.jpg'>

Codes



ii iv i iii


iii ii iv i


iii i iv ii


ii iii iv i


4. The environmental lapse rate during day time is governed by

Wind speed

Sunlight

Topographical features

Cloud cover

The correct answer is

and only


and only


and only


and only


5. The wavelength range of UV-C radiations is


200 280 nm


180 240 nm


320 400 nm


240 300 nm

6. In a gas chromatography experiment, the retention factor values for pollutant and pollutant in a mixture of pollutants were 0.5 and 0.125, respectively. If the distance travelled by solvent front is 12cms, the distance (in cms) travelled by pollutant and pollutant will be

6 and 1.5


3 and 1.5


0.5 and 0.125


1.5 and 3

7. Using the following equations, which can be determined correctly

CaCO3 H2O CO2 (by heating)
or Ca(HCO3)2 Ca(OH)2
2 CaCO3 2H2O (by addition of lime)


Carbon dioxide


Carbonates


Bicarbonates


Carbonates and Bicarbonates



8. Assume that a river having dissolved oxygen 0.5 BOD 0.3 g/m3 flowing at 80 m3/sec. converge with another river having Dissolved Oxygen 0.7 g/m3. BOD 0.6 g/m3 flowing at a rate of 60 m3/sec. If after the confluence the Dissolved Oxygen is 0.59 then the BOD is


(A)0.83 g/m3


(B)0.43 g/m3


(C)0.73 g/m3


(D)0.92 g/m3



9. Cells grown in a medium containing phosphorous -32 will show radio labelling in


(A)Starch


(B)Glycogen


(C)Proteins


(D)Nucleic acids



10. C14 has a half-life of 5700 years. The fraction of the C14 atoms that decays per year is

(A)1.216 × 10-4


(B)0.52 × 10-3


(C)0.78 × 10-4


(D)2.81 × 10-4



11. Assertion Marine biodiversity tends to be highest in mid-latitudes in all oceans and along coasts in the Western Pacific.

Reason Sea surface temperature along coasts in the Western Pacific is highest.

Codes

(A)Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


(B)Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.



12. "Double digging" is a method of


(A)Bio-intensive agriculture


(B)Deforestation


(C)Aforestation


(D)Water conservation



13. The rate of replacement of species along a gradient of habitats pertains to

(A)Alpha diversity


(B)Beta diversity


(C)Gamma diversity


(D)Species diversity



14. Match the List I and List II. Choose the correct answer from the given codes

List I (Vegetation development) List II (Nomenclature of succession)

On a rock i. Psammosere

On sand ii. Lithosere

In aquatic habitat iii. Xerosere

In dry habitat iv. Hydrosere

Codes



ii i iv iii


i ii iii iv


iii iv ii i


iv iii i ii


15. If individuals of a species remain alive only in captivity or other human controlled conditions, the species is said to be

(A)Ecologically extinct


(B)Mass extinct


(C)Wild extinct


(D)Anthropogenic extinct



16. Which of the following symbolises correct sequence in hydrosere


Diatoms Wolffia Hydrilla Cyperus Populus


(B)Hydrilla Wolffia Cyperus Populus Diatoms


(C)Cyperus Diatoms Hydrilla Wolffia Populus


(D)Diatoms Hydrilla Wolffia Cyperus Populus



17. Which of the following is not a class of aquatic ecosystems based on salinity levels

(A)Stagnant water ecosystem


(B)Freshwater ecosystem


(C)Brackish ecosystem


(D)Marine ecosystem



18. The K-strategists are

(a)large organisms which have relatively longer life

(b)provide care for their off springs

(c)organisms that stabilise their population at carrying capacity for the area


Choose the correct answer


and only


and only


and only


and



19. Limnetic zone in freshwater ecosystem is characterised by

(A)Presence of rooted vegetation


(B)Absence of rooted vegetation


(C)Presence of large proportion of lime


(D)Absence of phytoplankton



20. Match the List I with List II, choose the correct answer from the given codes

List I (Plants) List II (Family)

Camellia caduca i. Orchidaceae

Picea brachytyla ii. Theaceae

Colchicum luteum iii. Pinaceae

Arachnantha clarkei iv. Liliaceae

Codes



iv ii iii i


i ii iii iv


ii i iv iii


ii iii iv i



21. Vegetation cover shows maximum reflectance in which of the following regions of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum


(A)Ultraviolet


(B)Near infrared


(C)Middle infrared


(D)Visible



22. During remote sensing of the vegetation cover, the spectral reflection of vegetation over electromagnetic radiation spectrum depends upon

(A)Pigmentation in the leaf


(B)Structure of the leaf


(C)Moisture content of the leaf


(D)All the above characters



23. Given below are statements in the context of bio geochemical cycles

(i)Ecosystems are black boxes for many of the processes that take place within them.

(ii)Ecosystem boundaries are permeable to some degree or other.

The energy and nutrients can be transferred to and from one ecosystem to another via imports and exports.

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below

only


only


only


and



24. The volume of ejecta and the column height for a volcano are 108.5 m3 and
24 km, respectively. What is its volcanic explosivity index value














25. In the context of material balance in hydrological cycle, which of the following equations is correct for oceans

(A)Input change in storage output


(B)Precipitation inflow evaporation


(C)Input change in storage output


(D)Precipitation inflow evaporation



26. In disaster management which steps are followed in post-disaster recovery phase


(A)Relief, rehabilitation, reconstruction, learning review


(B)Risk Assessment, mitigation, preparedness, emergency plans.


(C)Relief, mitigation, emergency plans.


(D)Learning review, emergency plans, preparedness.



27. Permafrost represents

(A)permanently frozen subsurface soil


(B)frozen leaves of Oak trees


(C)frozen needles of pine trees


(D)temporarily frozen subsurface soil



28. Assertion Estuaries are productive ecosystems.

Reason Large amounts of nutrients are introduced into the basin from the rivers that run into them.

Choose the correct answer

(A)Both and are true, and is the correct explanation of


(B)Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of


is true and is false.


is false and is true.



29. A confined aquifer of thickness 25m has two wells 200m apart along the direction of flow of water. The difference in their hydraulic heads is 1m. If hydraulic conductivity is 50m/day, the rate of flow of water per day per metre of distance perpendicular to the flow of water is

m3/day per metre


m3/day per metre


m3/day per metre


m3/day per metre



30. Which of the following material has the highest hydraulic conductivity

(A)Clay


(B)Sandstone


(C)Limestone


(D)Quartzite



31. Which of the following energy sources is not renewable on human time scale

(A)Solar


(B)Hydrothermal


(C)Geothermal


(D)Biomass


32. For a solar flat plate collector the following data is given Useful heat gain 28 watts/m2 per hour, solar radiation intensity 350 watts/m2 per hour and the factor to convert beam radiation to that on the plane of the collector 1.2. The collector efficiency is

6.6


4.8


12.2


15.2



33. For the reaction in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell,
H2 1/2 O2 H2O

Given delta G° 240 kJ/gm mole of H2 and Faraday's constant 96,500 Coulomb/gm mole.

The developed voltage in the fuel cell will be


1.13 Volts


2.13 Volts


1.51 Volts


1.24 Volts



34. Identify the correct sequence of the fuels in order of their increasing carbon intensity

(A)Natural gas Oil Bituminous coal Nuclear


(B)Oil Coal Natural gas Nuclear


(C)Nuclear Coal Natural gas Oil


(D)Nuclear Natural gas Oil Bituminous coal



35. In nuclear thermal reactors, which of the following is not used as moderator

(A)Normal water


(B)Heavy water


(C)Graphite


(D)Liquid Helium



36. The minimum temperature gradient required for OTEC is about















37. A solar pond has electricity generating capacity of 600 MWe. If the efficiency of solar energy to electric generation process was and solar energy supply rate was 300 what is the area of solar pond


(A)100 km2


km2


km2


(D)180 km2



38. Which of the following causes warming of atmosphere but cooling of the earth's surface

(A)Ozone


(B)Black carbon aerosols


(C)All Greenhouse gases


(D)Sulphates and nitrates



39. Assertion For noise level surveys in urban areas, weighting A is used for measurements.

Reason(R): Weighting A filters out unwanted signals.

Codes

(A)Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


(B)Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


(D)Both and are false.



40. Noise levels of 80 dB refers to a sound pressure level of

(A)0.2Pa


(B)0.02Pa


(C)20Pa


(D)200Pa



41. Asphyxiation is caused by

COCl2


(B)NOx


(C)CHCl3


(D)AsH3



42. Sequence of a typical sewage treatment plant operation process will be

(A)Aeration Flocculation Sedimentation Recarbonation Filtration Disinfection


(B)Aeration Sedimentation Flocculation Filtration Recarbonation Disinfection


(C)Flocculation Aeration Recarbonation Sedimentation Filtration Disinfection


(D)Sedimentation Flocculation Aeration Filtration Recarbonation Disinfection



43. Which one of the following isotopes
has maximum half-life period


Rn222


Pb210


Ti210


Bi210

44. Match the List I with List II and identify the correct answer from given codes

List I (Aerosols) List II (Constituents)

Dust i. Small gas borne particles resulting from combustion

Mist ii. Black carbon

Smoke iii. Suspended small liquid droplets

Atmospheric Brown Cloud iv. Solid suspended particles

Codes



iv iii ii i


iii iv i ii


ii i iii iv


i ii iii iv

45. Assertion Chloro flurocarbons deplete ozone.

Reason (R):These compounds contain chlorine, bromine and fluorine.

Codes

(A)Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


(B)Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.



46. Which of the following organic compounds is not of biogenic origin

(A)Isoprene


(B)a-pinene


(C)Myrcene


(D)Acrolein



47. Which of the following is used as plant indicator for detection of presence of SO2 and HF in air

(A)Lichen


(B)Orchid


(C)Apricot


(D)Tobacco



48. Integrated Gasification Combined Cycle (IGCC) technology is best at removing

(A)NO2 and CO


and SO2


(C)Particulates and sulphur


(D)NO2 and SO2



49. A waste water treatment plant in a city treats 50,000 m3 waste water generated per day. For an average flow rate of 25 m3 per day per sq. metre, what should be the diameter of the circular primary settling tank


(A)50.4m


(B)30.6m


(C)20m


(D)25.8m



50. An Electrostatic Precipitator with collector plate area 5000 m2 treats a flue gas with drift

velocity 0.12m/s with 98% efficiency. The volumetric flow rate of the flue gas is


175.2


213.5


153.4


198.9



51. Assertion Urban heat islands contribute to build up of pollutants in cities.

Reason (R):Urban heat islands produce a somewhat stable air mass in the city's atmosphere.

Codes

(A)Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


(B)Both and are correct, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


(D)Both and are false.



52. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below

List I (Analytical functions) List II (Activity under the function)

Defining scope of EIA i. Critical Assessment of impacts

Identification of impacts ii. Estimation of the probability that a particular impact will occur

Prediction of Impacts iii. Description of the existing environment system

Impact Evaluation and Analysis iv. Deciding important issues and concerns

Codes



iii iv i ii


iv iii ii i


ii i iii iv


i ii iv iii


53. A drawback of check lists is


(A)Preliminary analysis is available in scaling check list


(B)Check lists are too general or incomplete


(C)Check lists summarises information to make it available to experts


(D)Ecosystem functions can be clearly understood from weighting methods



54. if EIUj environmental impact units for jth alternative, EQij environmental quality scale value for ith factor and jth alternative, PIUi parameter importance units for ith factor, then what is the correct formulation for the index expressed in environmental impact units (EIUi)

<img src='./qimages/2629-54.jpg'>

55. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below

List I (Scales used in EIA methods) List II (Example)

Nominal i. Temperature (degrees)

Ordinal ii. Species classification

Interval iii. Map scale

Ratio iv. Worst to best

Codes



i ii iii iv


iv iii ii i


iii i iv ii


ii iv i iii


56. Risk assessment in EIA does not involve

(A)Maximum credible analysis


(B)Hazard and operability studies


(C)Preparation of disaster management plan


(D)Assessment of economic benefit arising out of a project


57. In a gravity flow autoclave, medical waste is subjected to a temperature

120 °C


100 °C


300 °C


800 °C


58. Hierarchy of priorities in hazardous waste management is


Eliminate generation Reduce generation Recycle Reuse Treatment Disposal


Reduce generation Eliminate generation Recycle/Reuse Treatment Disposal


Eliminate generation Reduce generation Treatment Recycle/Reuse Disposal


Reduce generation Eliminate generation Treatment Recycle/Reuse Disposal



59. Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in the year

(A)1991


(B)1993


(C)1995


(D)1997



60. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below

List I (Convention) List II (Year)

Convention for the protection of the ozone layer i. 1979

Conservation of migratory species of wild animals ii. 1985

Kyoto protocol iii. 1982

UN Convention on the law of the sea iv. 1997

Codes



ii i iv iii


ii iv iii i


iii i ii iv


i ii iii iv


61. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below

List I (Acts) List II (Year when enacted)

Wildlife Protection Act i. 1980

Forest Conservation Act ii. 1972

Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution Act iii. 1974

Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act iv. 1981

Codes



ii i iv iii


i ii iii iv


iii ii i iv


iv iii ii i


62. Assertion x2 distribution is a non-parametric distribution.

Reason x2 is a sample statistic having no corresponding population parameter.

Codes

(A)Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


(B)Both and are correct, but is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


(D)Both and are false.



63. In a simple regression analysis of y on the standard error of estimate of y on Syx number of observations N is 30, and sigma y2 2000. The unexplained variance is

(A)1500


(B)750


(C)500


(D)250



64. Two normal populations have variances sigma1 10 and sigma2 2 20. Two 2random samples of sizes 25 and 20, independently selected from these populations have variances of S1 2 8 and S2 2 15, respectively. What is the statistic








(C)2.81


(D)3.6



65. Assertion A matrix is non­singular if and only if none of its eigen values is zero.

Reason(R) The product of the eigen values equals the determinant of a matrix.
Codes

(A)Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of


(B)Both and are correct, but is not the correct explanation of


is correct, but is false.


(D)Both and are false.



66. In Gaussian Plume Model assume sigmaz cx where c is a constant and ratio of sigma y to sigma z to be a constant. If H is the effective height of the stack, the maximum concentration at a distance from the stack is proportional to


H-1


H-2









67. The Pearson Linear correlation coefficient for the following paired data 1.4) 2.6) is


(A)0.623


0.572


(C)0.957


(D)0.823


68. In a rough terrain the wind speed at a height of 10m is 2.5m/s. The wind speed at an elevation of 300m will be

(A)4.9m/s


(B)1.2m/s


(C)3.6m/s


(D)7.9m/s



69. In the context of REDD+ initiatives the land clearing in forest areas is primarily concerned with


(A)Physical resources of the area


(B)Ecology of the area


(C)Carbon budget of the area


(D)Water resources of the area


70. What was the objective of Basel Convention (1989) under UNEP

I. Minimize generation of hazardous wastes in terms of quantity and hazardousness

II. Disposal of hazardous wastes as close to the source of generation as possible.

III. Reduce the movement of hazardous wastes.

Choose the correct code

and II only.


and III only.


II and III.


only.


71. Global Warming Potential of a greenhouse gas is a comparison of global warming impact between

kg of GHG and 1 kg of methane


kg of GHG and 1 kg of CO2


kg of GHG and 1 kg of N2O


kg of GHG and 1 kg of CFC-11


72. Which of the following mixture of gases is called biogas


CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)


CH4, NH3, H2S, H2O (vapour)


CH4, N2O, NH3, H2O (vapour)


NOx, H2O, CH4


73. Environmental ethics deal with moral relationship of human beings to

(A)the value and moral status of the environment and its non­human contents


(B)the values that are important to development and economic growth


(C)the conservation values of selected species


(D)the development of genetically modified organisms



74. The major source of BaP (Benzo-a­pyrene) in atmospheric environment is


(A)residential wood burning


(B)gasoline


(C)coal tar


(D)cooked meat


75. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below

List I (Materials) List II (Applications)

Trichloro ethylene 1. Gasoline

Toluene 2. Wood treatment

Zinc 3. Dry cleaning

Phenol 4. Mining

Codes



3 1 4 2


2 3 1 4


1 4 2 3


4 2 3 1


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