Exam Details
Subject | environmental sciences | |
Paper | paper 3 | |
Exam / Course | ugc net national eligibility test | |
Department | ||
Organization | university grants commission | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | June, 2012 | |
City, State | , |
Question Paper
PAPER-III ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE Signature and Name of Invigilator
1.
(Signature) OMR Sheet No. ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2.
(Signature) (In figures as per admission card)
(Name) Roll (In words)
J 8 9 1 2
Time 2 1/2 hours] [Maximum Marks 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet 12 Instructions for the Candidates
1.
Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2.
This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions.
3.
At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below
To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.
Each item has four alternative responses marked
and You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item.
Example
where is the correct response.
5.
Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6.
Read instructions given inside carefully.
7.
Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8.
If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.
You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10.
Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11.
Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12.
There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
Number of Questions in this Booklet 75
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J-89-12 1 P.T.O.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper III
Note This paper contains seventy five objective type questions, each question carrying two
marks. All questions are compulsory.
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20, the population and sample means are 35 and 33, respectively and the t-statistic at 95% confidence level is 2.5, the sample size is
100 125
250 625
2. For 5 degrees of freedom, the variance of .2 distribution is
10 5
16 4
3. Identify the random sampling method among the following
Judgement sampling
Quota sampling
Convenience sampling
Stratified sampling
4. Consider a Box model for an urban area. Assuming that the pollutants are conservative and that the mixing is rapid inside the Box, the concentration
of pollutants varies with the mixing height as
1 1
C . C .
H H2
1
C .
C . H
5. At higher pH, majority of iron is present as
Fe2+
Fe3+
Fe2+ and Fe3+
Fe(OH)2 and Fe(OH)3
6. In living organisms phosphorous is largely associated with
Carbohydrate Lipids
Nucleic acids Proteins
7. Molar extinction coefficient of
malondialdehyde at 532 nm is 0.155 M-1
cm . The concentration of malondialdehyde in a solution which has absorbance of 0.31 in a 1 cm curette will be
0.5 M 1.0 M
1.5 M 2.0 M
8. pOH of 0.001 M solution of HCl is
0.1 1
10 11
9. The molecular weight of DDT is 354.5. The quantity of DDT required to prepare one litre of 10 ppm DDT solution is
10 mg 35.45 mg
354.5 mg 354.5 µg
Paper-III 2
J-89-12
10. Which one of the following is referred to as superoxide radical
O O2
O O
32
11. The net primary productivity of an ecosystem is
the gross primary productivity minus plant respiration
the primary productivity at herbivore level
the primary productivity at consumer level
the productivity at top consumer level minus respiration at all levels
12. Which of the following habitats has not been included as Indian biodiversity hot spots
The Eastern Ghats
The Western Ghats
North-Eastern Hills
South-Eastern Hills
13. The area of the biosphere which is protected entirely, without any experimentation and research and no biotic interference, is known as
Undisturbed zone
Buffer zone
Core zone
Principal zone
14. When a mixture of Azospirillum, Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to rhizosphere, fixation of atmospheric nitrogen was increased. It was due to activity of
All the three
Azospirillum and Vibrio
Azotobacter and Vibrio
Azotobacter and Azospirillum
15. Which type of forests are found at an altitude of 5300 ft chiefly on mountains of Himalayas and Nilgiri
Dry deciduous forest
Moist tropical forest
Temperate forest
Tropical moist deciduous forest
16. The sequence of events that occur during primary succession is as follows
Nudation Colonisation Ecesis
Aggregation
Aggregation Colonization Ecesis Nudation
Ecesis Nudation Aggregation
Colonization
Nudation Ecesis Colonization
Aggregation
17. As per Raunkaiers law of frequency, five different frequency classes D and in a natural undisturbed community exhibit one of the following relationship
A C D E
A C D E
A C D E
A C D E
18. Which one of the following category of earthworms is most suitable for Vermicomposting
Epigeic
Anecic
Endogeic
All the above
19. Which one of the following is an in situ method of biodiversity conservation
Reserve forest
National parks
Sanctuaries
All the above
20. Match the contaminant in Column I with the disease in Column II
Column I Column II
Mercury 1. Methamoglobinemia
Nitrate 2. Itai Itai
Nitrogen
(iii)Cadmium 3. Silicosis
Coal 4. Minamata Choose the correct code
Codes
2 3 4 1
3 4 2 1
1 2 3 4
4 1 2 3
21. Which of the following types of coal contains higher percentage of volatile matter
Peat
Lignite
Bituminous
Anthracite
22. Carbon dioxide evolved from soil mainly comes from
Microbial respiration
Root respiration
Soil animals respiration
All the above
23. Which one of the following pesticides persists for a long period in soil
Lindane
Monocrotophos
Carbaryl
Parathion
24. Organic matter content of soil can be calculated from organic carbon by using the formula
OM OC × 1.724
OM OC × 1.247
OM OC × 1.472
OM OC × 1.427
25. The problem of thermal pollution can be alleviated by using
Cooling ponds
Cooling towers
More efficient electricity generating plants
All the above
Paper-III 4
J-89-12
26. According to Recycled Plastics (Manufacture and Usage) Rules 1999, the minimum thickness of carry bags shall not be less than
10 microns 20 microns
30 microns 50 microns
27. Match the Act mentioned in Column I with the year of enactment mentioned in Column II
Column I Column II
The Water 1. 2002 (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
The Air (Prevention 2. 1986 and Control of Pollution) Act
(iii)The Environmental 3. 1974 (Protection) Act
The Biological 4. 1981 Diversity Act
Choose the correct code
Codes
1 4 3 2
3 4 2 1
3 2 1 4
2 4 3 1
28. Which one of the following is not an energy recovery method of solid waste management
Pelletisation
Biomethanation
Pyrolysis
Composting
29. The colour code of the container for collection of waste scrap generated from Hospitals is
Red Blue
White Green
30. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion When quantitative probabilistic risk assessment is performed on hazardous waste sites they usually turn out to be of relatively low threats.
Reason In hazardous waste sites the chance of exposure is low because of isolation of drinking water supplies and prevention of access.
Choose the correct answer
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but
is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
31. In India, an Environment Impact Assessment report of a proposed mining project after environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years
5 years 10 years
30 years 2 years
32. An increase of one unit of Richter Scale represents an increase in amplitude by a factor of
10 100
1000 2
33. Which rare earth element is not present in the earth's crust but for commercial purpose comes from the Nuclear reactors
Promethium Lanthanum
Cerium Samarium
34. To display green colour in the monitor the amount of RGB should be
255 0 0
255 255 255
0 0 0
0 255 0
35. When the temperature range in geothermal resource is generally low, electrical power generation from such resources require the use of secondary low boiling point fluid. This is generally known as
Rankine cycle
Production well cycle
Flash stem cycle
Hard Dry Rock cycle
36. The Global Warming Potential is the least for which of the following greenhouse gases
CO2
N2O SF6
4
37. The maximum specific power output
from a MHD power generator varies with the velocity of hot ionized gas as
p . u p . u2 3/2 3
p . p . u
38. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion Electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) can be harmful if not operated properly.
Reason Corona discharge in ESPs produces ozone. Choose the correct answer
Both and are correct and
is the correct explanation of
Both and are correct and
is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
Both and are false.
39. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion Vegetation hedges are the best way to control noise. Reason Vegetation hedges scatter noise. Choose the correct answer.
Both and are correct and
is the correct explanation of
Both and are correct, but
is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
Paper-III 6
J-89-12
40. If w and ws are mixing ratio and saturation mixing ratio respectively; T and Td are the ambient temperature and dew point temperature respectively, then identify the correct expression of relative humidity
w at Td
RH
w at T
w at T
RH
w at Td ws at Td
RH
ws at T
ws at T
RH
ws at Td
...
41. Identify mesoscale phenomenon.
Tornado
Sea breeze
Cyclone
Eddies
42. For elevations less than few hundred metres, if the wind speeds are u1 and u2 at elevations z1 and z2 respectively, the
1 2
...
...
...
u
z
1
following equation holds
u
z
2
43. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion Noise gets attenuated more in dry atmosphere.
Reason Moist air is less denser than dry air.
Choose the correct answer
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true and is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
•
44. OH radicals in atmosphere play a role of
scavenger
acidifier
reducing agent
greenhouse gas
45. The slow neutrons initiating nuclear
fission with U235 have energies of the order of
0.25 MeV
0.15 MeV
p
0.25 eV
.
0.025 eV
The value of the exponent p is
0.6
1
0.6
negative
46. The most suitable range of wind speeds for wind power generation is
1 5 m/s
4 12 m/s
10 20 m/s
20 50 m/s
47. For energy to be produced from nuclear fusion of Deuterium and Tritium the mixture of D T has to be heated up to energies of at least
1 KeV
10 KeV
500 eV
1 MeV
48. Element contaminating the water body is determined and quantified by using one of the following methods
Colorimeter
Spectrophotometer
Atomic absorption spectrometer
All the above
49. In which type of chromatography four modes viz, Absorption, partition, Ion exchange and exclusion, are present
HPLC
Liquid-liquid chromatography
Ion-exchange chromatography
Adsorption chromatography
50. The metal which is generally absorbed by plants along with Zn and causes "Ouch Ouch" disease in human beings is
Pb
Cd
Hg
Cr
51. Radioactive isotopes of which of the elements in human body decay every second
K40
and C14
C14
and N6
N16
and K40
None of the above
52. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for determining crystalline structure of environmental samples
Infrared spectroscopy
X-ray diffraction
Microspectrophotometry
Raman spectroscopy
53. Which one of the following is the most predominant element in a majority of igneous rocks
Al Fe
O Si
54. Match the entries in Group-I with the process parameters in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
Clark electrode 1. Dissolved Oxygen
Redox Probe 2. pH (iii)Load cell 3. Liquid level
Diaphragm 4. Vessel
gauge pressure Choose the correct code
Codes
1 2 3 4
2 1 4 3
1 4 3 2
4 3 2 1
Paper-III 8
J-89-12
55. Which one of the following is used to determine total organic matter by Walkley and Black method
KOH and H2SO4
NaSO and HSO
KCrO and HSO
HNO3 and H2SO4
22324
22724
56. As per WHO standards the maximum permissible level of coliform organisms per 100 ml of drinking water is
10 100
150 1000
57. Progressive increase in concentration of a xenobiotic compound when it passes through the food chain is called
Biomagnification
Hyper accumulation
Bioaccumulation
None of the above
58. Highest level of biotic interaction is
Mutualism
Predation
Parasitism
Amensalism
59. Which one of the following is considered as indicator of aquatic pollution
Rotifers
Copepods
Mysids
Calanoids
60. Poorly nourished lakes are known as
Oligotrophic
Eutrophic
Mesotrophic
Xerotrophic
61. Identify a sampling method which is not non-destructive.
Sub-surface coring
Using of neutron probes to measure soil water
Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy
Time domain refractometry to measure soil water
62. Ministry of Environment and Forests amended the EIA notification making public hearing mandatory for environmental clearance on
27th January 1996
10th April 1997
27th January 1997
None of the above
63. The allochthonous microorganisms of an ecosystem are
Indigenous microorganisms
Migrant
Parasitic
Pathogenic
64. The rate of evaporation of oil spilled into the sea depends on
The elemental concentration of sea water
The composition of sea water microflora
Composition of the crude oil
The temperature of the sea
65. The most dangerous and heat resistant spoilage organism in canning industry is
Clostridium cellulolyticum
Bacillus subtilis
E.coli
Clostridium botulinum
66. Oxygen concentrations in compost developed in static piles usually
Ten times lower than in ambient air
Five times lower than in ambient air
Two times more than in ambient air
Five times more than in ambient air
67. If a bacterium with a 20 minute generation time is grown under optimal conditions (37 one cell would
multiply to 103 (1000) cells in 3.3 hours, then how much time it will take to multiply to 106 cells
5.3 hrs. 6.6 hrs.
9.9 hrs. 6.3 hrs.
68. The biodegradation of plant material is slow because of presence of
Cellulose
Xylene
Extensin/protein
Lignin
69. The widely used aerobic suspension type of liquid waste treatment system is
Rotating Biological Contactor
Percolating filter
Activated sludge process
Septic tank
70. The treatment designed to remove non-biodegradable organic pollutants and mineral nutrients from waste water is
Lagoons
Imhoff tank
Secondary treatment
Tertiary treatment
Paper-III 10
J-89-12
71. An ecotype is
Genetically different forms of the same organisms
Genetically similar forms of the same organisms
Morphologically different forms of the same organisms
Both and
72. Ultraviolet radiations are lethal due to inactivation of
Proteins, nucleic acids and pigments
Minerals, water and air
Carbohydrates, fats and vitamins
O2, CO2 and water
73. The following are the characters of species diversity
More richness
More evenness
More dominance
Less dominance
Less richness
Less evenness
Point out the combination of conditions in which species diversity of an ecosystem will be more.
and
and
and
and
74. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion If natality is greater than mortality, it leads to population explosion.
Reason The scientific study of various species of human population is called demography.
Choose the correct answer
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but
is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
Both and are false.
75. Match Column I with Column II Column I Column II
Chipko 1. Medha Movement Patkar
Narmada 2. Al Gore Bacchao Andolan
(iii)Climate Change 3. Rachel Carson
Silent Spring 4. Sundarlal Bahuguna
Choose the correct code
Codes
1 2 3 4
2 3 4 1
4 1 2 3
3 4 1 2
Space For Rough Work
Paper-III 12
J-89-12
1.
(Signature) OMR Sheet No. ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2.
(Signature) (In figures as per admission card)
(Name) Roll (In words)
J 8 9 1 2
Time 2 1/2 hours] [Maximum Marks 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet 12 Instructions for the Candidates
1.
Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2.
This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions.
3.
At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below
To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.
Each item has four alternative responses marked
and You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item.
Example
where is the correct response.
5.
Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6.
Read instructions given inside carefully.
7.
Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8.
If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.
You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10.
Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11.
Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12.
There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
Number of Questions in this Booklet 75
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J-89-12 1 P.T.O.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper III
Note This paper contains seventy five objective type questions, each question carrying two
marks. All questions are compulsory.
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20, the population and sample means are 35 and 33, respectively and the t-statistic at 95% confidence level is 2.5, the sample size is
100 125
250 625
2. For 5 degrees of freedom, the variance of .2 distribution is
10 5
16 4
3. Identify the random sampling method among the following
Judgement sampling
Quota sampling
Convenience sampling
Stratified sampling
4. Consider a Box model for an urban area. Assuming that the pollutants are conservative and that the mixing is rapid inside the Box, the concentration
of pollutants varies with the mixing height as
1 1
C . C .
H H2
1
C .
C . H
5. At higher pH, majority of iron is present as
Fe2+
Fe3+
Fe2+ and Fe3+
Fe(OH)2 and Fe(OH)3
6. In living organisms phosphorous is largely associated with
Carbohydrate Lipids
Nucleic acids Proteins
7. Molar extinction coefficient of
malondialdehyde at 532 nm is 0.155 M-1
cm . The concentration of malondialdehyde in a solution which has absorbance of 0.31 in a 1 cm curette will be
0.5 M 1.0 M
1.5 M 2.0 M
8. pOH of 0.001 M solution of HCl is
0.1 1
10 11
9. The molecular weight of DDT is 354.5. The quantity of DDT required to prepare one litre of 10 ppm DDT solution is
10 mg 35.45 mg
354.5 mg 354.5 µg
Paper-III 2
J-89-12
10. Which one of the following is referred to as superoxide radical
O O2
O O
32
11. The net primary productivity of an ecosystem is
the gross primary productivity minus plant respiration
the primary productivity at herbivore level
the primary productivity at consumer level
the productivity at top consumer level minus respiration at all levels
12. Which of the following habitats has not been included as Indian biodiversity hot spots
The Eastern Ghats
The Western Ghats
North-Eastern Hills
South-Eastern Hills
13. The area of the biosphere which is protected entirely, without any experimentation and research and no biotic interference, is known as
Undisturbed zone
Buffer zone
Core zone
Principal zone
14. When a mixture of Azospirillum, Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to rhizosphere, fixation of atmospheric nitrogen was increased. It was due to activity of
All the three
Azospirillum and Vibrio
Azotobacter and Vibrio
Azotobacter and Azospirillum
15. Which type of forests are found at an altitude of 5300 ft chiefly on mountains of Himalayas and Nilgiri
Dry deciduous forest
Moist tropical forest
Temperate forest
Tropical moist deciduous forest
16. The sequence of events that occur during primary succession is as follows
Nudation Colonisation Ecesis
Aggregation
Aggregation Colonization Ecesis Nudation
Ecesis Nudation Aggregation
Colonization
Nudation Ecesis Colonization
Aggregation
17. As per Raunkaiers law of frequency, five different frequency classes D and in a natural undisturbed community exhibit one of the following relationship
A C D E
A C D E
A C D E
A C D E
18. Which one of the following category of earthworms is most suitable for Vermicomposting
Epigeic
Anecic
Endogeic
All the above
19. Which one of the following is an in situ method of biodiversity conservation
Reserve forest
National parks
Sanctuaries
All the above
20. Match the contaminant in Column I with the disease in Column II
Column I Column II
Mercury 1. Methamoglobinemia
Nitrate 2. Itai Itai
Nitrogen
(iii)Cadmium 3. Silicosis
Coal 4. Minamata Choose the correct code
Codes
2 3 4 1
3 4 2 1
1 2 3 4
4 1 2 3
21. Which of the following types of coal contains higher percentage of volatile matter
Peat
Lignite
Bituminous
Anthracite
22. Carbon dioxide evolved from soil mainly comes from
Microbial respiration
Root respiration
Soil animals respiration
All the above
23. Which one of the following pesticides persists for a long period in soil
Lindane
Monocrotophos
Carbaryl
Parathion
24. Organic matter content of soil can be calculated from organic carbon by using the formula
OM OC × 1.724
OM OC × 1.247
OM OC × 1.472
OM OC × 1.427
25. The problem of thermal pollution can be alleviated by using
Cooling ponds
Cooling towers
More efficient electricity generating plants
All the above
Paper-III 4
J-89-12
26. According to Recycled Plastics (Manufacture and Usage) Rules 1999, the minimum thickness of carry bags shall not be less than
10 microns 20 microns
30 microns 50 microns
27. Match the Act mentioned in Column I with the year of enactment mentioned in Column II
Column I Column II
The Water 1. 2002 (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
The Air (Prevention 2. 1986 and Control of Pollution) Act
(iii)The Environmental 3. 1974 (Protection) Act
The Biological 4. 1981 Diversity Act
Choose the correct code
Codes
1 4 3 2
3 4 2 1
3 2 1 4
2 4 3 1
28. Which one of the following is not an energy recovery method of solid waste management
Pelletisation
Biomethanation
Pyrolysis
Composting
29. The colour code of the container for collection of waste scrap generated from Hospitals is
Red Blue
White Green
30. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion When quantitative probabilistic risk assessment is performed on hazardous waste sites they usually turn out to be of relatively low threats.
Reason In hazardous waste sites the chance of exposure is low because of isolation of drinking water supplies and prevention of access.
Choose the correct answer
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but
is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
31. In India, an Environment Impact Assessment report of a proposed mining project after environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years
5 years 10 years
30 years 2 years
32. An increase of one unit of Richter Scale represents an increase in amplitude by a factor of
10 100
1000 2
33. Which rare earth element is not present in the earth's crust but for commercial purpose comes from the Nuclear reactors
Promethium Lanthanum
Cerium Samarium
34. To display green colour in the monitor the amount of RGB should be
255 0 0
255 255 255
0 0 0
0 255 0
35. When the temperature range in geothermal resource is generally low, electrical power generation from such resources require the use of secondary low boiling point fluid. This is generally known as
Rankine cycle
Production well cycle
Flash stem cycle
Hard Dry Rock cycle
36. The Global Warming Potential is the least for which of the following greenhouse gases
CO2
N2O SF6
4
37. The maximum specific power output
from a MHD power generator varies with the velocity of hot ionized gas as
p . u p . u2 3/2 3
p . p . u
38. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion Electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) can be harmful if not operated properly.
Reason Corona discharge in ESPs produces ozone. Choose the correct answer
Both and are correct and
is the correct explanation of
Both and are correct and
is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
Both and are false.
39. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion Vegetation hedges are the best way to control noise. Reason Vegetation hedges scatter noise. Choose the correct answer.
Both and are correct and
is the correct explanation of
Both and are correct, but
is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
Paper-III 6
J-89-12
40. If w and ws are mixing ratio and saturation mixing ratio respectively; T and Td are the ambient temperature and dew point temperature respectively, then identify the correct expression of relative humidity
w at Td
RH
w at T
w at T
RH
w at Td ws at Td
RH
ws at T
ws at T
RH
ws at Td
...
41. Identify mesoscale phenomenon.
Tornado
Sea breeze
Cyclone
Eddies
42. For elevations less than few hundred metres, if the wind speeds are u1 and u2 at elevations z1 and z2 respectively, the
1 2
...
...
...
u
z
1
following equation holds
u
z
2
43. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion Noise gets attenuated more in dry atmosphere.
Reason Moist air is less denser than dry air.
Choose the correct answer
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true and is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
is false, but is true.
•
44. OH radicals in atmosphere play a role of
scavenger
acidifier
reducing agent
greenhouse gas
45. The slow neutrons initiating nuclear
fission with U235 have energies of the order of
0.25 MeV
0.15 MeV
p
0.25 eV
.
0.025 eV
The value of the exponent p is
0.6
1
0.6
negative
46. The most suitable range of wind speeds for wind power generation is
1 5 m/s
4 12 m/s
10 20 m/s
20 50 m/s
47. For energy to be produced from nuclear fusion of Deuterium and Tritium the mixture of D T has to be heated up to energies of at least
1 KeV
10 KeV
500 eV
1 MeV
48. Element contaminating the water body is determined and quantified by using one of the following methods
Colorimeter
Spectrophotometer
Atomic absorption spectrometer
All the above
49. In which type of chromatography four modes viz, Absorption, partition, Ion exchange and exclusion, are present
HPLC
Liquid-liquid chromatography
Ion-exchange chromatography
Adsorption chromatography
50. The metal which is generally absorbed by plants along with Zn and causes "Ouch Ouch" disease in human beings is
Pb
Cd
Hg
Cr
51. Radioactive isotopes of which of the elements in human body decay every second
K40
and C14
C14
and N6
N16
and K40
None of the above
52. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for determining crystalline structure of environmental samples
Infrared spectroscopy
X-ray diffraction
Microspectrophotometry
Raman spectroscopy
53. Which one of the following is the most predominant element in a majority of igneous rocks
Al Fe
O Si
54. Match the entries in Group-I with the process parameters in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
Clark electrode 1. Dissolved Oxygen
Redox Probe 2. pH (iii)Load cell 3. Liquid level
Diaphragm 4. Vessel
gauge pressure Choose the correct code
Codes
1 2 3 4
2 1 4 3
1 4 3 2
4 3 2 1
Paper-III 8
J-89-12
55. Which one of the following is used to determine total organic matter by Walkley and Black method
KOH and H2SO4
NaSO and HSO
KCrO and HSO
HNO3 and H2SO4
22324
22724
56. As per WHO standards the maximum permissible level of coliform organisms per 100 ml of drinking water is
10 100
150 1000
57. Progressive increase in concentration of a xenobiotic compound when it passes through the food chain is called
Biomagnification
Hyper accumulation
Bioaccumulation
None of the above
58. Highest level of biotic interaction is
Mutualism
Predation
Parasitism
Amensalism
59. Which one of the following is considered as indicator of aquatic pollution
Rotifers
Copepods
Mysids
Calanoids
60. Poorly nourished lakes are known as
Oligotrophic
Eutrophic
Mesotrophic
Xerotrophic
61. Identify a sampling method which is not non-destructive.
Sub-surface coring
Using of neutron probes to measure soil water
Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy
Time domain refractometry to measure soil water
62. Ministry of Environment and Forests amended the EIA notification making public hearing mandatory for environmental clearance on
27th January 1996
10th April 1997
27th January 1997
None of the above
63. The allochthonous microorganisms of an ecosystem are
Indigenous microorganisms
Migrant
Parasitic
Pathogenic
64. The rate of evaporation of oil spilled into the sea depends on
The elemental concentration of sea water
The composition of sea water microflora
Composition of the crude oil
The temperature of the sea
65. The most dangerous and heat resistant spoilage organism in canning industry is
Clostridium cellulolyticum
Bacillus subtilis
E.coli
Clostridium botulinum
66. Oxygen concentrations in compost developed in static piles usually
Ten times lower than in ambient air
Five times lower than in ambient air
Two times more than in ambient air
Five times more than in ambient air
67. If a bacterium with a 20 minute generation time is grown under optimal conditions (37 one cell would
multiply to 103 (1000) cells in 3.3 hours, then how much time it will take to multiply to 106 cells
5.3 hrs. 6.6 hrs.
9.9 hrs. 6.3 hrs.
68. The biodegradation of plant material is slow because of presence of
Cellulose
Xylene
Extensin/protein
Lignin
69. The widely used aerobic suspension type of liquid waste treatment system is
Rotating Biological Contactor
Percolating filter
Activated sludge process
Septic tank
70. The treatment designed to remove non-biodegradable organic pollutants and mineral nutrients from waste water is
Lagoons
Imhoff tank
Secondary treatment
Tertiary treatment
Paper-III 10
J-89-12
71. An ecotype is
Genetically different forms of the same organisms
Genetically similar forms of the same organisms
Morphologically different forms of the same organisms
Both and
72. Ultraviolet radiations are lethal due to inactivation of
Proteins, nucleic acids and pigments
Minerals, water and air
Carbohydrates, fats and vitamins
O2, CO2 and water
73. The following are the characters of species diversity
More richness
More evenness
More dominance
Less dominance
Less richness
Less evenness
Point out the combination of conditions in which species diversity of an ecosystem will be more.
and
and
and
and
74. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion If natality is greater than mortality, it leads to population explosion.
Reason The scientific study of various species of human population is called demography.
Choose the correct answer
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
Both and are true, but
is not the correct explanation of
is true, but is false.
Both and are false.
75. Match Column I with Column II Column I Column II
Chipko 1. Medha Movement Patkar
Narmada 2. Al Gore Bacchao Andolan
(iii)Climate Change 3. Rachel Carson
Silent Spring 4. Sundarlal Bahuguna
Choose the correct code
Codes
1 2 3 4
2 3 4 1
4 1 2 3
3 4 1 2
Space For Rough Work
Paper-III 12
J-89-12
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