Exam Details
Subject | animal sciences | |
Paper | ||
Exam / Course | ph d | |
Department | ||
Organization | central university | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | June, 2010 | |
City, State | telangana, hyderabad |
Question Paper
1. Lymphocytes that target and lyse pathogen and virus infected cells are
A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. B lymphocytes
C. Helper T cells
D. Suppressor T cells
2. Deletion I mutation of one or more steroid response elements in the flanking region of a gene results in
A. target gene silencing
B. lowered binding of the hormone
C. decrease in the target gene inducibility
D. no effect
3. The accumulation of glycogen in the vacuoles in Pompe's disease is due to the deficiency of
A. Glucokinase
B. Glycogen synthase
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. a 1,4-glucosidase
4. Which of the following is not caused by a virus?
A. Hepatitis
B. German measles
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Onchocerciasis
5. connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres
A. Corpus callosum
B. Cingulate gyrus
C. Hippocampus
D. Cingulate sulcus
6. Usual site of fertilization in human is
A. Fallopian tube
C. Cervix
B. Cingulate gyrus
D. Cingulate sulcus
7. Archaeopteryx is a transitional fossil between
A. Dinosaur and bird
B. Bird and mammal
C. Snake and bird
Crocodile and salamander
8. DPT vaccine protects against
A. Diphtheria, polio and tetanus
B. Diphtheria, pertussis and typhoid
C. Diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus
D. Diphtheria, polio and typhoid
9. Which of the following is a chemically synthesized promoter?
A. Lac promoter
B. Tac promoter
C. T7 promoter
D. PL promoter
10. Common lesions found in DNA after exposure to ultraviolet light are
A. Pyrimidine dimers
B. Single strand breaks
C. Purine dimmers
D. Transposition
11. The source of N atom at position 7 in the purine ring is derived from
A. Glycine
B. Glutamate
C. Aspartate
D. Glutamine
12. In India, Kala-azar is caused by
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Leishmania major
D. Leishmania chagasi
13. Infection of E. coli with bacteriophage is usually detected by
A. growth of E. coli in agar plates containing ampicillin
B. appearance of plaques on agar plates
C. no growth on agar plates
D. restriction mapping of the bacterial DNA
14.ln S. cervisiae, mutations causing segregation petite phenotype
A. are located in mitochondrial genes
B. prevent growth under all conditions
C. cause mitochondria to have better than normal function
D. are transmitted according to Mendelian rules
15. Stem cells derived from Inner Cell Mass CleM) of mice embryo are
A. totipotent
B. oligopotent
C. pluripotent
D. multipotent
16. For expressing the recombinant proteins in the milk of transgenic dairy animals, the following gene promoters are used, except
A. Albumin
B. Lactalbumin
C. Casein
D. Lactoglobulin
17. Which of the following are least likely to be involved in stabilizing the threedimensional folding of proteins?
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Hydrophobic interactions
C. Ester bonds
D. Disulphide bonds
18. Human heart beat originates from
A. SA node
B. Purkinje fibres
C. AV node
D. Bundle of His
19. The vitamin required for the ,formation of collagen fibres and prevention of
Scurvy is
A. Thiamine
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Riboflavin
D. a-tocopherol
20. Which of the following is not an acquired character of cancer cells
A. Tissue invasion and metastasis
B. Sensitivity to anti-growth signals
C. Expression of novel marker proteins
D. Self sufficiency in growth signals
21. Protein sequencing by Edman's degradation is used to determine
A. N-terminal amino acid
B. Methionine
C. C-terminal amino acid
D. Internal arginine and lysine residues
22. In cell fractionation, acid phosphatase is used as a marker for
A. Nuclei
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Lysosomes
D. Cytosol
23. pS3 regulates cell cycle at the transition point
A. G2
B. Gl
C. Gl/S
D. G2/M
24. The frequency with which an allele is present in the population is primarily influenced by
A. DNA sequence near the allele
B. natural selection
C. Germ line mutations
D. starting frequency of allele
25. The specialized structures located at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are called
A. Terminators
B. Long terminal repeats
C. Telomeres
D. Kinetochores
26. All of the following substances move across the plasma membrane of cells by passive diffusion exceDt
A. Palmitic acid
B. Aldosterone
C. Na+
D. Estrogen
27. A bacterial protein-coding gene contains a terminator codon in the middle of the coding region, yet expression of the gene in the bacterium produces a functional protein. Translation of the gene probably requires
A. the excision of an intron
B. ribosomes that lack 5S rRNA
C. suppressor tRNA
D. nothing specific
28. Incubation of Gram-negative bacteria with lysozyme in an isotonic medium causes rod-shaped bacteria to assume a spherical shape. The cause of this phenomenon is
A. absorption of water
B. change in gene expression
C. damage to plasma membrane
D. destruction of the cell wall
29. Which of the following is the smallest peptide hormone in animals?
A. GnRH
B. GnIH
C. ACTH
D. TRH
30. The following statements about poly(A) tail in eukaryotic mRNA is true except
A. It helps to align eukaryotic mRNA on the ribosome during translation
B. It is added to the primary transcript in the nucleus
C. It is not essential for protein synthesis
D. It stabilizes and increases the half life of the mRNA
31. At the end of 5 phase of the cell cycle of a mammalian cell, the following are true except
A. Histone content per cell is the same as that of cells in G1.
B. Each replicated chromosome has four telomeres.
C. Sister chromatids remain together and do not disjoin.
D. The nucleus contains the equivalent amount of DNA of a tetraploid cell in G1.
32. Which of the following hormone is secreted principally by the corpus luteum of the human ovary?
A. Leutinizing hormone
B. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
C. Follicle stimulating hormone
D. Progesterone
33. Which of the following matings between E. coli strains would result in a high frequency of transfer of chromosomal genes?
A. F+x
B. Hfr x Hfr
C.
D. HfrxF-
34. Actin filaments are found in all of the fonowing except
A. Flagella of bacteria
B. Microvilli of intestinal brush border
C. Sarcomeres of skeletal muscle cells
D. Contractile rings of dividing animal cells
35. Pertussin toxin modifies the a -subunit of G proteins by
A. Phosphorylation
B. ADP-ribosylation
C. Glycosylation
D. Acetylation
36. Maturity onset diabetes of the young, MODY is
A. Monogenic, autosomal dominant inherited disease
B. Monogenic, sex-linked inherited disease
C. Type 2 diabetes in a young person
D. Type 2 diabetes involVing multiple genes
37.Glucose and mannose are epimers because
A. they are mirror images of each other
B. they differ only in the configuration about one carbon atom.
C. they rotate the plane of light in opposite directions.
D. one of them is an aldose and the other a ketose
38. Virus-mediated transfer of cellular genetic material from one bacterial cell to another is called
A. transfection
B. transformation
C. transduction
D. transposition
39. 'Zinc fingers' are important in cellular recognition because they are
A. at the catalytic site of many kinases
B. associated with growth factor receptors
C. structural motif in many DNA-binding
D. structures with high redox potential proteins
40. Which of the following adaptations appeared for the first time in the common ancestor of the mammals, birds and modern reptiles?
A. Membranous lungs
B. Hinged jaws
C. Tetrapod limbs
D. Amniotic eggs
41. The Vmax and Km values determined for succinate dehydrogenase are 20 and 4 respectively. What will happen to these values in the presence of malonate?
A. Vmax remains same but Km increases
B. Vmax does not change but Km decreases
C. Vmax decreases but Km is constant
D. Both Vmax and Km decrease
42. Which of the following best describes an enhancer?
A. It induces the activity of the promoter, independent of its orientation and distance
B. Its activity is dependent on its distance from the start site of transcription
C. It enhances transcription only when positioned at the end of the gene
D. It activates the promoter only when positioned at the end of the gene
43. The following gene family produces paracrine factors, which play an important role during embryogenesis
A. Hox
B. Pax
C. GATA
D. Hedgehog
44. Skin testing for tuberculosis by Mantoux test is
A. antibody mediated
B. autoimmune reaction
C. delayed type hypersensitivity reaction
D. immediate hypersensitivity reaction
45. Proteins that are destined for secretion are sorted and packaged in the
A. Lysosomes
B. Peroxisomes
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Trans Goigi network
46. Which of the following is added to the nuclear lamins that facilitate their targeting to the nuclear envelope during mitosis?
A. Myristoyl group
B. 2-geranyl-geranyl group
C. Isoprenoid tail group
D. Farnesyl &myristoyl groups
47. Upon exposure to an antigenic determinant, rises first, followed
by
A. IgG,lgM
B. IgM,lgG
C. IgG,lgE
D. IgM, IgE
48. 1 ml of 0.04 M sucrose contains of sucrose
A. 40 pmoles
B. 40 nmoles
C. 40 IJmoles
D. 40 moles
49. Microarray analysis revealed the up-regulation of 8 genes in a mammalian cell line exposed to a drug. Which of the following techniques can be used to validate the microarray data?
A. Northern hybridization and Real Time-
B. Southern hybridization and PCR PCR
C. Southern hybridization and Real Time
D. Southern hybridization and fluorescence PCR in situ hybridization
50. The melting curve of two DNA samples X and at the same pH and ionic strength have Tm values of 80°C and 65°C respectively. This indicates that
A. AT content of X Yare equal
B. AT content of X Y
C. GCcontentis ofX>Y
D. GCcontentis ofX<Y
51. Which one of the following amino acid contributes to the fluorescence of a protein?
A. Tryptophan
B. Proline
C. Leucine
D. Cysteine
52. Retroviruses replicate
A. via a double-stranded DNA intermediate
B. by duplicating its genetic material by elaborating RNA dependant RNA polymerase
C. independently in the host cytoplasm by virtue of the reverse transcriptase activity
D. by integrating directly into the host genome
53. All the following statements about genomic imprinting are true except
A. it involves modification of DNA bases
B. i.n humans, imprinting is both maternally and paternally inherited
C. in mice, it is maternally inherited
D. it is erased in germ cells
54. Memory and learning are associated with which of the following part of the brain?
A. Brodmann area
B. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
C. Hippocampus and amygdala
D. Neurohypophysis
55. Inheritance of mitochondrial DNA is
A. only paternal
B. both maternal and paternal
C. only maternal
D. Offspring's own DNA gives rise to
mitochondrial DNA
56. Which of the following processes leads to the formation of polytene
chromosomes?
A. Recombination between adjacent chromosome segments
B. Sister chromatid exchange
C. Repeated replication without separation of chromatids
D. Inactivation of one chromosome of each homologous pair
57. All the following statements are true about heterotrimeric G proteins exceptthey
A. have GTPase activity
B. phosphorylate proteins
C. act as binary on-off switches
D. help to amplify a hormone's signal
58. In E. coli, the respiratory chain components are located in the
A. plasmids
B. cytoplasmic membrane
C. cytosol
D. mitochondrial membrane
59. Anaphylatoxins are a group of
A. toxins released by bacteria and viruses
B. complement proteins released during complement activation
C. proteins released during cell death
D. cytokines secreted by cytotoxic T cells
60. Which hormone acts by first binding to a cytoplasmic receptor, followed by the binding of the receptor-hormone complex to DNA?
A. Estradiol
B. Glucagon
C. Insulin
D. Norepinephrine
61. The homeobox is associated with genes coding for proteins that
A. regulate homeostasis
B. are involved in segmentation
C. regulate development
D. do not play any significant role in eukaryotes
62. The semi-conservative mechanism of replication was proved by
A. Hershey and Chase
B. Barbara McClintock
C. Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod
D. Meselson and Stahl
63. Which of the following statements about IgG is false?
A. It is the principal immunoglobulin in secondary immune response.
B. It is important in mucosal immunity.
C. It is the most common circulating immunoglobulins in serum.
D. It is the only immunoglobulin capable of crossing the placenta.
64. Which of the following statement is incorrect about thyroxine?
A. It is formed by iodination of tyrosine.
B. T3 is more active than T4.
C. Most of it is bound to proteins.
D. Secretion is under the direct control of TRH.
65. tRNA has a clover leaf structure because
A. of complementary base pairing between inverted repeats in its sequence
B. RNA polymerase has the unique property of synthesizing it as a folded structure.
C. of interaction with proteins
D. it assumes this shape when it enters the ribosome during protein translation
66. Pasteurisation of milk, fruit juices and beer is done to
A. kill all bacteria B. inactivate the enzymes
C. reduce the number of viable pathogenic bacteria
D. retain the natural flavor
67. Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator is used for the treatment of
A. Hepatitis
B. Hemophilia
C. Thrombolytic stroke
D. Thalassemia
68. An organism that has lost the ability to synthesise a particular organic compound for its growth is called
A. Heterotrophy
B. Auxotroph
C. Autotroph
D. Prototroph
69. Which of the following metal ions is commonly used in the affinity purification of His-tagged recombinant proteins?
A. Iron
B. Magnesium
C. Nickel
D. Molybdenum
70.The distribution of transmembrane proteins in thee plane of a cell membrane can best be visualized by which of the following?
A. Thin section transmission electron
B. Scanning electron microscopy microscopy
C. Freeze fracture electron microscopy
D. Ultraviolet spectroscopy
71. Cancer may result upon infection with
A. Baculovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Papillomavirus
D. T4 bacteriophage
72. In which order do stem cells go in hierarchy?
A. Pluripotent, totipotent and multipotent
B. Totipotent, multipotent and pluripotent
C. multipotent, pluripotent and totipotent
D. Totipotent, pluripotent and multipotent
73. The following are true about adult stem cells except
A. They are undifferentiated cells
B. They are found throughout the body
C. They are also known as somatic stem
D. They cannot be used to regenerate cells damaged tissues
74. A homozygous Rh positive man marries an Rh negative woman. The first child is normal but the second child develops hemolytic disease of the newborn. The first child does not develop the hemolytic disease because
A. the child was heterozygous
B. the child lacked the Rh antigen
C. the mother had a previous blood transfusion that protected the child against her antibodies
D. the mother developed anti-Rh antibodies only after the delivery of the first child
75. A protein was purified by gel filtration chromatography as a 160 kOa protein. When subjected to 50S-PAGE, a 40 kOa band was detected. This indicates
A. degradation of the protein
B. that gel filtration chromatography cannot give the correct size of the protein
C. that the protein consists of
D. that the protein migrates very fast monomers of identical molecular due to the presence of positively mass charged amino acids
A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. B lymphocytes
C. Helper T cells
D. Suppressor T cells
2. Deletion I mutation of one or more steroid response elements in the flanking region of a gene results in
A. target gene silencing
B. lowered binding of the hormone
C. decrease in the target gene inducibility
D. no effect
3. The accumulation of glycogen in the vacuoles in Pompe's disease is due to the deficiency of
A. Glucokinase
B. Glycogen synthase
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. a 1,4-glucosidase
4. Which of the following is not caused by a virus?
A. Hepatitis
B. German measles
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Onchocerciasis
5. connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres
A. Corpus callosum
B. Cingulate gyrus
C. Hippocampus
D. Cingulate sulcus
6. Usual site of fertilization in human is
A. Fallopian tube
C. Cervix
B. Cingulate gyrus
D. Cingulate sulcus
7. Archaeopteryx is a transitional fossil between
A. Dinosaur and bird
B. Bird and mammal
C. Snake and bird
Crocodile and salamander
8. DPT vaccine protects against
A. Diphtheria, polio and tetanus
B. Diphtheria, pertussis and typhoid
C. Diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus
D. Diphtheria, polio and typhoid
9. Which of the following is a chemically synthesized promoter?
A. Lac promoter
B. Tac promoter
C. T7 promoter
D. PL promoter
10. Common lesions found in DNA after exposure to ultraviolet light are
A. Pyrimidine dimers
B. Single strand breaks
C. Purine dimmers
D. Transposition
11. The source of N atom at position 7 in the purine ring is derived from
A. Glycine
B. Glutamate
C. Aspartate
D. Glutamine
12. In India, Kala-azar is caused by
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Leishmania major
D. Leishmania chagasi
13. Infection of E. coli with bacteriophage is usually detected by
A. growth of E. coli in agar plates containing ampicillin
B. appearance of plaques on agar plates
C. no growth on agar plates
D. restriction mapping of the bacterial DNA
14.ln S. cervisiae, mutations causing segregation petite phenotype
A. are located in mitochondrial genes
B. prevent growth under all conditions
C. cause mitochondria to have better than normal function
D. are transmitted according to Mendelian rules
15. Stem cells derived from Inner Cell Mass CleM) of mice embryo are
A. totipotent
B. oligopotent
C. pluripotent
D. multipotent
16. For expressing the recombinant proteins in the milk of transgenic dairy animals, the following gene promoters are used, except
A. Albumin
B. Lactalbumin
C. Casein
D. Lactoglobulin
17. Which of the following are least likely to be involved in stabilizing the threedimensional folding of proteins?
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Hydrophobic interactions
C. Ester bonds
D. Disulphide bonds
18. Human heart beat originates from
A. SA node
B. Purkinje fibres
C. AV node
D. Bundle of His
19. The vitamin required for the ,formation of collagen fibres and prevention of
Scurvy is
A. Thiamine
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Riboflavin
D. a-tocopherol
20. Which of the following is not an acquired character of cancer cells
A. Tissue invasion and metastasis
B. Sensitivity to anti-growth signals
C. Expression of novel marker proteins
D. Self sufficiency in growth signals
21. Protein sequencing by Edman's degradation is used to determine
A. N-terminal amino acid
B. Methionine
C. C-terminal amino acid
D. Internal arginine and lysine residues
22. In cell fractionation, acid phosphatase is used as a marker for
A. Nuclei
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Lysosomes
D. Cytosol
23. pS3 regulates cell cycle at the transition point
A. G2
B. Gl
C. Gl/S
D. G2/M
24. The frequency with which an allele is present in the population is primarily influenced by
A. DNA sequence near the allele
B. natural selection
C. Germ line mutations
D. starting frequency of allele
25. The specialized structures located at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are called
A. Terminators
B. Long terminal repeats
C. Telomeres
D. Kinetochores
26. All of the following substances move across the plasma membrane of cells by passive diffusion exceDt
A. Palmitic acid
B. Aldosterone
C. Na+
D. Estrogen
27. A bacterial protein-coding gene contains a terminator codon in the middle of the coding region, yet expression of the gene in the bacterium produces a functional protein. Translation of the gene probably requires
A. the excision of an intron
B. ribosomes that lack 5S rRNA
C. suppressor tRNA
D. nothing specific
28. Incubation of Gram-negative bacteria with lysozyme in an isotonic medium causes rod-shaped bacteria to assume a spherical shape. The cause of this phenomenon is
A. absorption of water
B. change in gene expression
C. damage to plasma membrane
D. destruction of the cell wall
29. Which of the following is the smallest peptide hormone in animals?
A. GnRH
B. GnIH
C. ACTH
D. TRH
30. The following statements about poly(A) tail in eukaryotic mRNA is true except
A. It helps to align eukaryotic mRNA on the ribosome during translation
B. It is added to the primary transcript in the nucleus
C. It is not essential for protein synthesis
D. It stabilizes and increases the half life of the mRNA
31. At the end of 5 phase of the cell cycle of a mammalian cell, the following are true except
A. Histone content per cell is the same as that of cells in G1.
B. Each replicated chromosome has four telomeres.
C. Sister chromatids remain together and do not disjoin.
D. The nucleus contains the equivalent amount of DNA of a tetraploid cell in G1.
32. Which of the following hormone is secreted principally by the corpus luteum of the human ovary?
A. Leutinizing hormone
B. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
C. Follicle stimulating hormone
D. Progesterone
33. Which of the following matings between E. coli strains would result in a high frequency of transfer of chromosomal genes?
A. F+x
B. Hfr x Hfr
C.
D. HfrxF-
34. Actin filaments are found in all of the fonowing except
A. Flagella of bacteria
B. Microvilli of intestinal brush border
C. Sarcomeres of skeletal muscle cells
D. Contractile rings of dividing animal cells
35. Pertussin toxin modifies the a -subunit of G proteins by
A. Phosphorylation
B. ADP-ribosylation
C. Glycosylation
D. Acetylation
36. Maturity onset diabetes of the young, MODY is
A. Monogenic, autosomal dominant inherited disease
B. Monogenic, sex-linked inherited disease
C. Type 2 diabetes in a young person
D. Type 2 diabetes involVing multiple genes
37.Glucose and mannose are epimers because
A. they are mirror images of each other
B. they differ only in the configuration about one carbon atom.
C. they rotate the plane of light in opposite directions.
D. one of them is an aldose and the other a ketose
38. Virus-mediated transfer of cellular genetic material from one bacterial cell to another is called
A. transfection
B. transformation
C. transduction
D. transposition
39. 'Zinc fingers' are important in cellular recognition because they are
A. at the catalytic site of many kinases
B. associated with growth factor receptors
C. structural motif in many DNA-binding
D. structures with high redox potential proteins
40. Which of the following adaptations appeared for the first time in the common ancestor of the mammals, birds and modern reptiles?
A. Membranous lungs
B. Hinged jaws
C. Tetrapod limbs
D. Amniotic eggs
41. The Vmax and Km values determined for succinate dehydrogenase are 20 and 4 respectively. What will happen to these values in the presence of malonate?
A. Vmax remains same but Km increases
B. Vmax does not change but Km decreases
C. Vmax decreases but Km is constant
D. Both Vmax and Km decrease
42. Which of the following best describes an enhancer?
A. It induces the activity of the promoter, independent of its orientation and distance
B. Its activity is dependent on its distance from the start site of transcription
C. It enhances transcription only when positioned at the end of the gene
D. It activates the promoter only when positioned at the end of the gene
43. The following gene family produces paracrine factors, which play an important role during embryogenesis
A. Hox
B. Pax
C. GATA
D. Hedgehog
44. Skin testing for tuberculosis by Mantoux test is
A. antibody mediated
B. autoimmune reaction
C. delayed type hypersensitivity reaction
D. immediate hypersensitivity reaction
45. Proteins that are destined for secretion are sorted and packaged in the
A. Lysosomes
B. Peroxisomes
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Trans Goigi network
46. Which of the following is added to the nuclear lamins that facilitate their targeting to the nuclear envelope during mitosis?
A. Myristoyl group
B. 2-geranyl-geranyl group
C. Isoprenoid tail group
D. Farnesyl &myristoyl groups
47. Upon exposure to an antigenic determinant, rises first, followed
by
A. IgG,lgM
B. IgM,lgG
C. IgG,lgE
D. IgM, IgE
48. 1 ml of 0.04 M sucrose contains of sucrose
A. 40 pmoles
B. 40 nmoles
C. 40 IJmoles
D. 40 moles
49. Microarray analysis revealed the up-regulation of 8 genes in a mammalian cell line exposed to a drug. Which of the following techniques can be used to validate the microarray data?
A. Northern hybridization and Real Time-
B. Southern hybridization and PCR PCR
C. Southern hybridization and Real Time
D. Southern hybridization and fluorescence PCR in situ hybridization
50. The melting curve of two DNA samples X and at the same pH and ionic strength have Tm values of 80°C and 65°C respectively. This indicates that
A. AT content of X Yare equal
B. AT content of X Y
C. GCcontentis ofX>Y
D. GCcontentis ofX<Y
51. Which one of the following amino acid contributes to the fluorescence of a protein?
A. Tryptophan
B. Proline
C. Leucine
D. Cysteine
52. Retroviruses replicate
A. via a double-stranded DNA intermediate
B. by duplicating its genetic material by elaborating RNA dependant RNA polymerase
C. independently in the host cytoplasm by virtue of the reverse transcriptase activity
D. by integrating directly into the host genome
53. All the following statements about genomic imprinting are true except
A. it involves modification of DNA bases
B. i.n humans, imprinting is both maternally and paternally inherited
C. in mice, it is maternally inherited
D. it is erased in germ cells
54. Memory and learning are associated with which of the following part of the brain?
A. Brodmann area
B. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
C. Hippocampus and amygdala
D. Neurohypophysis
55. Inheritance of mitochondrial DNA is
A. only paternal
B. both maternal and paternal
C. only maternal
D. Offspring's own DNA gives rise to
mitochondrial DNA
56. Which of the following processes leads to the formation of polytene
chromosomes?
A. Recombination between adjacent chromosome segments
B. Sister chromatid exchange
C. Repeated replication without separation of chromatids
D. Inactivation of one chromosome of each homologous pair
57. All the following statements are true about heterotrimeric G proteins exceptthey
A. have GTPase activity
B. phosphorylate proteins
C. act as binary on-off switches
D. help to amplify a hormone's signal
58. In E. coli, the respiratory chain components are located in the
A. plasmids
B. cytoplasmic membrane
C. cytosol
D. mitochondrial membrane
59. Anaphylatoxins are a group of
A. toxins released by bacteria and viruses
B. complement proteins released during complement activation
C. proteins released during cell death
D. cytokines secreted by cytotoxic T cells
60. Which hormone acts by first binding to a cytoplasmic receptor, followed by the binding of the receptor-hormone complex to DNA?
A. Estradiol
B. Glucagon
C. Insulin
D. Norepinephrine
61. The homeobox is associated with genes coding for proteins that
A. regulate homeostasis
B. are involved in segmentation
C. regulate development
D. do not play any significant role in eukaryotes
62. The semi-conservative mechanism of replication was proved by
A. Hershey and Chase
B. Barbara McClintock
C. Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod
D. Meselson and Stahl
63. Which of the following statements about IgG is false?
A. It is the principal immunoglobulin in secondary immune response.
B. It is important in mucosal immunity.
C. It is the most common circulating immunoglobulins in serum.
D. It is the only immunoglobulin capable of crossing the placenta.
64. Which of the following statement is incorrect about thyroxine?
A. It is formed by iodination of tyrosine.
B. T3 is more active than T4.
C. Most of it is bound to proteins.
D. Secretion is under the direct control of TRH.
65. tRNA has a clover leaf structure because
A. of complementary base pairing between inverted repeats in its sequence
B. RNA polymerase has the unique property of synthesizing it as a folded structure.
C. of interaction with proteins
D. it assumes this shape when it enters the ribosome during protein translation
66. Pasteurisation of milk, fruit juices and beer is done to
A. kill all bacteria B. inactivate the enzymes
C. reduce the number of viable pathogenic bacteria
D. retain the natural flavor
67. Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator is used for the treatment of
A. Hepatitis
B. Hemophilia
C. Thrombolytic stroke
D. Thalassemia
68. An organism that has lost the ability to synthesise a particular organic compound for its growth is called
A. Heterotrophy
B. Auxotroph
C. Autotroph
D. Prototroph
69. Which of the following metal ions is commonly used in the affinity purification of His-tagged recombinant proteins?
A. Iron
B. Magnesium
C. Nickel
D. Molybdenum
70.The distribution of transmembrane proteins in thee plane of a cell membrane can best be visualized by which of the following?
A. Thin section transmission electron
B. Scanning electron microscopy microscopy
C. Freeze fracture electron microscopy
D. Ultraviolet spectroscopy
71. Cancer may result upon infection with
A. Baculovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Papillomavirus
D. T4 bacteriophage
72. In which order do stem cells go in hierarchy?
A. Pluripotent, totipotent and multipotent
B. Totipotent, multipotent and pluripotent
C. multipotent, pluripotent and totipotent
D. Totipotent, pluripotent and multipotent
73. The following are true about adult stem cells except
A. They are undifferentiated cells
B. They are found throughout the body
C. They are also known as somatic stem
D. They cannot be used to regenerate cells damaged tissues
74. A homozygous Rh positive man marries an Rh negative woman. The first child is normal but the second child develops hemolytic disease of the newborn. The first child does not develop the hemolytic disease because
A. the child was heterozygous
B. the child lacked the Rh antigen
C. the mother had a previous blood transfusion that protected the child against her antibodies
D. the mother developed anti-Rh antibodies only after the delivery of the first child
75. A protein was purified by gel filtration chromatography as a 160 kOa protein. When subjected to 50S-PAGE, a 40 kOa band was detected. This indicates
A. degradation of the protein
B. that gel filtration chromatography cannot give the correct size of the protein
C. that the protein consists of
D. that the protein migrates very fast monomers of identical molecular due to the presence of positively mass charged amino acids
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