1. Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists

List I List II

a. Kesavananda Bharati V. State of i. Basic structure doctrine new Kerala dimensions added

b. Indira Nehru Gandhi V. Raj Narain ii. Basic structure doctrine created

c. Minerva Mills V. Union of India iii. Basic structure doctrine strengthened

d. I.R. Coelho V. State of Tamil Nadu iv. Basic structure doctrine crystallised

Codes a b c d

ii iii iv i

ii iv i iii

iv i ii iii

iii iv ii i

2. Read Assertion and Reason and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below

Assertion A State made law on any matter of Concurrent List prevails not- withstanding any repugnancy with an earlier law made by the Parliament.

Reason The Parliament can make a law, on any matter in the Concurrent List that prevails over any repugnant state law.

Codes

and are true and is the correct explanation of

and are true, but is not the correct explanation of

is false, but is true.

is true, but is false.

3. Read Assertion and Reason and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below

Assertion The President of India has a right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India on a question of law or fact has arisen or likely to arise, which is of such nature and of such public importance.

Reason The Constitution of India makes it obligatory for the President to accept the advice rendered by the Supreme Court of India.

Codes

and are true and is the correct explanation of

and are true, but is not the correct explanation of

is true, but is false.

is false, but is true.

4. Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists List I List II

a. Art 136 i. Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters.

b. Art 134 ii. Seat of Supreme Court

c. Art 131 iii. Special leave to appeal jurisdiction of the Supreme court over any court or administrative tribunal.

d. Art 130 iv. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Codes a b c d

iv i iii ii

i iii iv ii

ii iv i iii

iii i iv ii

5. Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists List I List II

a. Art 221 i. Transfer of a Judge from one High Court to another

b. Art 222 ii. Appointment of acting Chief Justice of a High Court

c. Art 223 iii. Appointment of additional and acting Judges of the High Court.

d. Art 224 iv. Salaries etc of High Court Judges

Codes a b c d

(1) iv i ii iii

(2) ii iv i iii

(3) iii iv ii i

(4) iii i iv ii

6. Read Assertion and Reason and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below

Assertion An accused person is guaranteed under the Constitution of India the right to be informed of the nature and cause of his accusation.

Reason The accused person has to be produced before the nearest District Judge within twenty four hours.

Codes

and are true and is the correct explanation of

and are true, but is not the correct explanation of

is false, but is true.

is true, but is false.

7. Read Assertion and Reason and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below

Assertion Subject to anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article.

Reason Above statement is Article 368

of the Indian Constitution.

Codes

Both and are correct and is correct reason of

Both and are wrong.

is wrong, but is right.

is wrong, but is right.

8. Read Assertion and Reason and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below

Assertion No person to be eligible for election in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.

Reason Above statement is title of Article 325 of the Indian Constitution. Codes

Both and are correct and is correct reason for

Both and are wrong.

is wrong, but is right.

is wrong, but is right.

9. Discretion, when applied to a court of justice, means sound discretion guided by law. It must be governed by rule, not by humour; it must not be arbitrary, vague and fanciful but legal and regular. This observation was made in

Union of India V. Kuldeep Singh

Reliance Airport Developers Ltd. V. Airports Authority of India.

Maneka Gandhi V. Union of India

National Insurance Co. Ltd V. Keshav Bahadur

10. Under which of the following condition(s) a writ of mandamus can be granted Give correct answer by using the codes

a. There must be a public duty.

b. There must be a specific demand and refusal.

c. There must be a clear right to enforce the duty.

d. The right must be subsisting on the date of the petition.

Codes

All c and d are correct.

Only b and c are correct.

Only a and c are correct.

Only a and b are correct.

11. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court made it explicit that 'even when the authority has statutory power to take action without hearing, it would be arbitrary to take action without hearing and, thus, violative of Article 14 of the Constitution'

A.K. Kraipak V. Union of India

Union of India V. Satish Chandra

A.K. Roy V. State of Punjab

H.L. Trehan V. Union of India

12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List I List II

a. Personal bias i. Jeejeebhoy V. Collector

b. Pecuniary bias ii. Krishna Bus Service Ltd. V. State of Haryana

c. Subject-matter bias iii. Manak Lal V. Dr. Prem Chand

d. Departmental bias iv. G. Nageswara Rao V. A.P.S.R.T.C.

Codes a b c d

i ii iii iv

iii i iv ii

iii ii iv i

iv i ii iii

13. Read the Assertion and Reason and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below

Assertion A writ of prohibition can be issued on the same grounds on which the writ of certiorari can be issued except in case of an error of law apparent on the face of the record.

Reason A writ of certiorari is issued at a stage when proceedings are in progress, to forbid the authority from continuing the proceedings whereas a writ of prohibition is issued at a stage when the authority has given a final decision, to quash the decision.

Codes

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of

Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of

is correct, but is false.

is false, but is correct.

14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List I List II (Subject) (Provision of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013)

a. The composition of Lokpal i. Section

b. Establishment of Lokayukta ii. Section 6

c. Term of office of Chairperson and Members of Lokpal iii. Section 37

d. Removal of Chairperson and Members of Lokpaliv. Section 63

Codes a b c d

ii iii iv

iv ii iii

(3) ii iii i iv

ii iv iii

15. The appointment of Chairperson of Lokpal shall be made by the President after obtaining the recommendation of a selection committee consisting of

The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People and the Chief Justice of India.

The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People; The leader of opposition in the House of the people.

The Prime Minister; The Leader of opposition in the House of the People and one eminent jurist to be nominated by the President.

The Prime Minister; The Speaker of the House of the People, The Leader of opposition in the House of the People, The Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him and one eminent jurist to be nominated by the President.

16. "Law is not only a set of rules but is a method or technique for harmonizing conflicting interests." This statement is of

Auguste Comte

Herbert Spencer

Roscoe Pound

Leon Duguit

17. Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below List I List II (Meaning) (Jurists associated with) a. Jurisprudence is a science of just and unjust. i. Salmond b. Jurisprudence is the science of the first ii. Gray principle of civil law. c. Jurisprudence is the philosophical aspect of iii. Ulpian knowledge of law. d. Jurisprudence is in truth no more a formal iv. Cicero science than physiology.

Codes a b c d

ii iii iv

(2) iii i iv ii

(3) ii iii i iv

(4) iii iv ii i

18. Which one of the following requisites is not necessary to be fulfilled for a custom to be valid and operative as a source of law

Reasonableness

Conformity with statute law

Immemorial antiquity

May not have been practiced continuously

19. Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below List I List II (Theory) (Jurist Associated with) a. Inner Morality i. Compte b. Concept of living law ii. Fuller c. Organic concept of society iii. Burke d. Gradual and organic process iv. Ehrlich

Codes a b c d

(1) ii iv i iii

(2) iii iv i ii

(3) ii iii iv i

ii iii iv

20. If leaves his car with the driver, the driver's possession will be

Immediate whereas that of would be mediate.

Mediate whereas that of would be immediate.

Incorporeal whereas that of would be corporeal.

Corporeal whereas that of would be incorporeal.

21. Read Assertion and Reason and answer using the codes given below

Assertion The legislature can forge a sledge-hammer capable of cracking open the corporate shell.

Reason Corporate personality cannot be used as a shield to harm national interest. Codes

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of

Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of

is true, but is false.

is false, but is true.

22. Read the Assertion and Reason and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below

Assertion The most important power of an owner is the right to exclude others.

Reason The owner may grant to another many of his rights and yet remain owner. Codes

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of

Both and are true, but is not the correct explanation of

is true, but is false.

is false, but is true.

23. "Law is a social engineering to remove the existing imbalance and to further the progress, serving the needs of the Socialist Democratic Bharat under the rule of Law." This was the observation of Justice K. Ramaswami in

Delhi Transport Corp. V. D.T.C. Mazdoor Congress

Indra Sawhney V. Union of India

State of Karnataka V. Appa Balu Ingale

Parmanand Kataria V. Union of India

24. In which of the crimes retributive theory strikes the moral blameworthiness of the offender to punish him

Clamping prohibitory orders

Sexual harassment at workplace

Wilful attempt to defame

Common intention to commit riot

25. In which of the circumstances the defense of necessity involves a collusion of interest and the consequential judgement of values

Stealing to avert hungers

Absolute necessity for self-preservation

Private homicide for keeping up the honour

Acts done against anarchy

26. Read Assertion and Reason and using the codes given below choose the appropriate answer.

Assertion The apprehension of use of criminal force must emanate from the gesture of a person to attract punishment.

Reason Mere advancing with a threatening attitude will not amount to criminal force.

Codes

Both and are contradictory to each other.

is correct while is not the cause of it.

is incorrect while is appropriate.

is correct while is the cause of it.

27. Read Assertion and Reason and using the codes given below write the correct answer.

Assertion In a case of attempt to rape there must be an indecent assault or action with any resistance from the victim.

Reason There was some action which shows that he was going to have sexual connection with her.

Codes

is correct explanation of and both and are complementary to each other.

is correct but is not complementary to

and have no legal standing in view of change of burden of proof.

is essential to formulate otherwise there may not be a crime.

28. Which of the factors fall under the limits within which the right of private defense should be exercised

Where there is time to have recourse to the protection of the public authorities.

When a public servant performs an act in good faith.

An act committed strictly in conformity with law.

Where the act was irregular and outside the scope of power.

29. Dacoity with murder creates co-extensive responsibility of each participant because

Collective liability is the core-essence whether it was culminated suddenly or not.

Mere non-participation in dacoity will not exempt from criminal liability since there was pre-concert.

Planning was to commit only dacoity, but another person, for earlier enemity, abetted to commit murder while there was no common object.

There must be one or more participants for the constructive action by each member.

30. What offence, if any, has been committed by a married woman giving free consent to her own abduction

Abetting her own abduction

Criminal conspiracy for abduction

No criminal liability against her as the acts was not committed in deceitful manner.

Attempt to abduction when there was failure to obtain clear consent.

31. A young man waves a currency note of rupees one thousand in front of a woman as if he offers the money for an indecent favour from the woman, he may be criminally booked under

Section 506 of IPC

Section 507 of IPC

Section 508 of IPC

Section 509 of IPC

32. One of the following International Convention is not related to wild life conservation. Give the correct answer

Convention on International Trade In Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.

Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in Transboundary Context.

Convention on Migratory Species of Wild Animals.

Convention on International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.

33. The Montreal Protocol is related to

Transboundary Air pollution

Ozone Layer

Climate change

Hazardous waste

34. Read both Assertion and Reason and give the correct answer by using the codes given below

Assertion Over 200 central and state statutes which have atleast some concern with environmental protection, either directly or indirectly have unfortunately not resulted in preventing environmental degradation, on the contrary has increased over the years.

Reason Unless the Government policy is backed by adequate budgetary allocation, changes to the statutory regime and a bureaucratic will, the government's intention are apt to remain on paper. Codes

Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of

Both and are correct, but is not the correct explanation of

is correct, but is wrong.

is wrong, but is correct.

35. Match List I and List II and find correct answer by using codes given below

List I List II

a. Public Liability i. State of Bihar V. Murad Ali Khan

b. Sustainable Development ii. M.C. Metha and Another V. Union of India and Others

c. Wild life protection iii. Research Foundation for Science V. Union of India and Others

d. Hazardous waste material iv. Narmada Bachao Andolan V. Union of India

Codes a b c d

i iii iv ii

ii iv i iii

ii iii iv i

iv ii iii i

36. Give correct answer by using codes given below The Environmental approach has led the Supreme Court to derive, adopt and apply a range of principles to guide the development of environmental jurisprudence. Notable amongst the fundamental norms recognised by the court are

a. Every person enjoys the right to a wholesome environment, which is a facet of the right to life guaranteed under Art. 21 of the Constitution.

b. Enforcement agencies are under an obligation to strictly enforce environmental laws.

c. Government agencies may not plead non-availability of funds, inadequacy of staff or other insufficiencies to justify the non-performance of their obligations under environmental laws.

d. Stringent action ought to be taken against contumacious defaulters and persons who carry on industrial or development activity for profit without regard to environmental laws.

Codes

only a and b

only b and c

c and d

only a


37. In which of the following case the Supreme Court after referring to International Covenant of Civil and Political Rights and Universal Declaration of Human Rights observed that, "It is almost an accepted proposition of law that rule of customary international law which are not contrary to the Municipal Law shall deemed to be incorporated in the domestic law"

M.C. Mehta V. Union of India

Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra V. State of U.P.

P.U.C.L. V. Union of India

Church of God (Full Gospels) in India V. K.K.R. Majestic Colony Welfare Association

38. Which one of the following is correct The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981 was enacted

by the Parliament under Art 252 of the Constitution after securing enabling resolution from the States.

by the Parliament invoking the power under Art 253 to make laws implementing decisions taken at International Conferences.

by the states, as the executive functions under the Air Act are carried out by the State Pollution Control Board.

by the Parliament based on the directions given by the Supreme Court.

39. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are correctly matched Give correct answer by using the codes given below

i. J.G. Starke An Introduction to International Law

ii. Hackworth Digest of International Law

iii. J.L. Brierly The Changing Structure of International Law.

iv. W. Friedman The Basis of Obligation in International Law. Codes

only ii

i and ii both

ii and iii

ii, iii and iv

40. In which of the following cases the International Court of Justice pointed out that when in regard to any matter or practice, two states follow it repeatedly for a long time, it becomes a binding customary rule

West Rand Central Gold Mining Company Ltd., V. R. Case

South West Africa Case

Right of Passage over Indian Territory Case (Portugal V. India)

North Sea Continental Shelf Case

41. In International law a good example of the application of the principle sovereignty is the "Theory of Auto Limitation". According to this theory, states follow International law because they have by their consent reduced their powers. This principle is based on the principle of state sovereignty. The chief exponent of this principle was

only Anzilotti

Anzilotti and Triepel both

Salmond

Max Huber

42. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect Give correct answer by using the codes given below

I. "Subjugation" is a mode of 'acquisition' of Nationality under the International Law.

II. Stock V. The Public Trustee is a case related to Double Nationality.

III. Articles 3 to 6 of the Hague Convention of 1930 provide the provisions for solving the problem of Double Nationality of married women.

IV. "Cession" is a mode of of Nationality under the International Law.

Codes

only II is incorrect.

II and III are incorrect.

II, III and IV are incorrect.

II, III and IV all are incorrect.

43. Read Assertion and Reason both and give the correct answer by using the codes given below

Assertion The General Assembly is one of the principal organ of the United Nations which consists of all the members of United Nations.

Reason The Resolutions or Declaration of the General Assembly are not binding upon the States. They are merely recommendations.

Codes

Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of

Both and are correct individually, but is not correct explanation of

is correct, but is wrong.

is wrong, but is correct.

44. Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists

List I (Jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice) List II (Case decided)

i. Case decided under contentious jurisdiction Nicaragua V. United States of America

ii. Under Advisory Jurisdiction b. North Sea Continental Shelf Case

iii. Courts' competence in respect of determination of its own jurisdiction c. Western Sahara Case

iv. Transferred Jurisdiction d. Anglo-Iranian Oil Company Case

Codes a b c d

iv i ii iii

i ii iii iv

ii iii iv i

iii iv i ii

45. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are not correctly matched Give correct answer by using the codes given below

i. Composition of the Security Council of U.N. Article 23 of the U.N. Charter

ii. Composition of the Economic and Social Council Article 61 of the U.N. Charter

iii. Composition of the General Assembly of the United Nations Article 86 of the U.N. Charter

iv. Composition of Trusteeship Council Article 28 of the U.N. Charter

Codes

only iv

iii and iv both

ii and iii

ii, iii and iv all

46. Match List I and List II and find correct answer by using the codes given below List I List II (Case Law) (Decision)

a. Saroj Rani V/s. Sudarshan Kumar i. Uniform Civil Code

b. Jorden Diengdeh V/s. S.S. Chopra ii. Meaning of Hindu

c. Russel V/s. Russel iii. Constitutionality of Section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

d. Shastri V/s. Muldas iv. Meaning of Cruelty

Codes a b c d

ii iii i iv

iv ii iii i

iii i iv ii

i iv iii ii

47. A marriage solemnized between any two Hindus who are Sapindas of each other shall be

Valid, if the custom or usage governing any of them permits a marriage between the two.

Valid, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two.

Voidable, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two.

Void, if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two.

48. Read the following and give correct answer with the help of codes given below A married Hindu female can adopt a child

i. Only with the consent of her husband.

ii. In case of void marriage, consent of husband is necessary.

iii. In case of voidable marriage, consent of husband is not necessary.

iv. If husband has converted to Muslim religion, his consent is not necessary.

Codes

i and iv are correct, but ii and iii are incorrect.

iii and iv are correct, but ii is incorrect.

ii and iv are correct, but i and iii are incorrect.

iv and ii are correct, but iii and i are incorrect.

49. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce available to wife under section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

Pre-Act bigamy of the husband

Repudiation of marriage

Cruelty by the husband

Husband is guilty of rape, sodomy and bestiality

50. Read the following statements and give correct answer with the help of codes given below

i. A Muslim woman can marry a Kitabi.

ii. A Shia male can contract with a fire worshipper.

iii. Marriage of a Muslim woman with a Hindu would be irregular.

iv. A Muslim man cannot marry with his niece.

Codes

i and ii are correct, but iii and iv are incorrect.

ii and iii are correct, but i and iv are incorrect.

iii and iv are correct, but i and ii are incorrect.

ii and iv are correct, but i and iii are incorrect.

51. Read the following statements in the light of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and give correct answer with the help of codes given below

i. The obligation of husband to maintain his wife is co-extensive with his property.

ii. Sec. provides for maintenance and separate residence of wife in some conditions.

iii. Father-in-law's obligation to maintain widowed-daughter-in-law is a personal obligation.

iv. An unchaste and non-Hindu wife is not entitled to maintenance.

Codes

i and iv are correct, but ii and iii are incorrect.

ii and iv are correct, but i and iii are incorrect.

iii and iv are correct, but i and ii are incorrect.

i and iii are correct, but ii and iv are incorrect.

52. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce under section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939

7 years imprisonment to the husband

Failure of the husband to pay maintenance for the last two years.

Whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of 3 years.

Failure of the husband to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of three years.

53. Which of the following are not available to a Hindu husband as grounds of Judicial Separation Answer with the help of codes given below

i. Extra marital sex by wife

ii. Conversion of wife to a non-Hindu religion

iii. Wife's pre-marriage pregnancy

iv. Non consummation of marriage owing to impotence of wife.

Codes

i and ii only

ii and iii only

iv and i only

iii and iv only

54. Which Article of the U.N. Charter charges the U.N. to promote "Universal respect for, and observance of, human rights and fundamental freedoms for all without distinction as to sex, race, language or religion"

Article 56

Article

Article 62

Article

55. Match List I and List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below

List I List II

a. The Commission on Human Rights was i. December 15, 1989 established by the Economic and Social Council on

b. The General Assembly created the position of ii. 20 December, 1993 U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights on

c. The General Assembly adopted Second iii. February, 1946 Optional Protocol to the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights on

d. The Optional Protocol to the International Law iv. March 23, 1976 on Civil and Political Rights, 1966 came into force on

Codes a b c d

(1) iii ii i iv

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) iii iv ii i

(4) ii i iv iii

56. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are not correctly matched Give the correct answer by using the codes given below

i. The World Conference on Human Rights was held at Vienna Year 1993

ii. International Conference on Human Rights at Tehran was held Year 1958

iii. First World Conference on Women was held on Beijing in 1985

iv. International Convention on Elimination of all forms of Racial Discrimination 1973 Codes

only ii

i and ii

ii, iii and iv

ii, iii and iv

57. Which of the following has commented on the legal significance of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights thus, "The declaration is merely a statement of principles, not a legally binding instrument; but it has become one of the best known international documents, and it has been often referred to in resolutions of the U.N., the Specialised Agencies, regional arrangements and other International Organisations, and in national constitutions; legislation and court decision. It is a beacon light for all mankind even though it has been honoured more often in the breach than in the observance"

Starke

H. Lauterpacht

Oppenheim

Palmer and Perkins

58. Read both Assertion and Reason and give the correct answer by using the codes given below

Assertion The Universal Declaration of Human Rights does not define the term 'Human Rights'. It refers them as "the equal and inalienable rights of all members of the Humanity".

Reason The framers of the Indian Constitution were influenced by the concept of Human Rights and guaranteed most of the Human Rights contained in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Codes

Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of

Both and are correct, but is not the correct explanation of

is correct, but is wrong.

is wrong, but is true.

59. To which of the following International Conventions on Human Rights, India has become party to such conventions Give correct answer with the help of codes given below

i. Convention on the Political Rights of Women.

ii. Convention on the Right of the Child.

iii. Convention for the Suppression of the Traffic in Person and of exploitation of the prostitution of others.

iv. Convention on International Recovery of Child Support and Other Forms of Family Maintenance. Codes

only i

i and iv only

ii and iii

ii, iii and iv all

60. Match List I and List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below

List I (Provisions of Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993) List II (Relevant Sections)

a. Section 12 i. Removal of a Member of the Commission

b. Section 4 ii. Functions of the Commission

c. Section 5 iii. Procedure with respect to Armed Forces

d. Section 19 iv. Appointment of Chairperson and other Members

Codes a b c d

(1) ii iv i iii

ii iii iv

(3) iii i ii iv

(4) iv iii i ii

61. In which among the following cases malice becomes relevant to determine a person's liability in law of torts. Answer by using codes below

a. Malice may result in aggravation of damages.

b. In torts of decit and conspiracy one of the essential is malice.

c. When act is lawful, intention can be gathered from past circumstances.

d. Causing of personal comfort by lawful means may turn lawful act into a tort.

Codes

a and b

a and c

b and c

c and d

62. Match List I (Maxims) with List II (Cases) and give correct answer by using codes given below

List I (Maxims) List II(Cases)

a. Damnum sine injuria i. Padmavati Vs. Dugganika

b. Injuria sine damno ii. Vishnu Datt Vs. Board of Higher Secondary
and Intermediate Education, U.P.

c. Volenti non fit injuria iii. Bindra Devi Chauhan Vs. State of H.P.

d. Res ipsa loquitor iv. Bhim Singh Vs. State of Jammu and Kashmir

Codes a b c d

ii iv iii i

ii iii i iv

ii iv i iii

i ii iv iii

63. In which of following cases originator of defamatory statement will be liable for the damage resulting from repetitive publication by third persons Answer by using codes below

a. He himself authorized repetition.

b. Repetition was the natural and probable consequence of his act.

c. There was immoral obligation on the person in whose presence the slander was made to repeat it.

d. There was moral obligation on the person in whose absence the slander was made to repeat it.

Codes

a and b

a and c

a and d

b and d

64. Which of the following is true in relation to nuisance

An action for nuisance is actionable per se and no special damage need to be proved.

It can be committed through the medium of intangible objects.

It is direct interference with the possession of plaintiff.

There is no interference with plaintiff's use or enjoyment of land.

65. Read Assertion and Reason and answer by using codes below

Assertion The law takes no cognizance of carelessness in the abstract.

Reason Cause of action for negligence accrues when damage that is real damage is suffered.

Codes

Both and are true and is right explanation of

Both and are true, but is not right explanation of

is right, but is wrong.

is wrong, but is right.

66. Which of the following is not correct in relation to the Consumer Protection Act

It extends to whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may by notification appoint.

This Act shall be in addition to and not in derogation of provisions of any other law for the time being in force.

This Act shall overside the provisions of Sale of Goods Act.

67. What is the period of limitation to file a complaint before the Consumer Dispute Redressal Agencies

Within one year from the date of cause of action.

Within two years from the date of cause of action.

Within three years from the date of cause of action.

No limitation period to file a complaint.

68. Read Assertion and Reason and answer by using codes below

Assertion Salary drawn by a partner from the firm for his services rendered to it has been treated different from his right to get an additional amount in the form of salary as his share of the firm's profit.

Reason Because R.M. Chidambaram Pillai Vs. Commissioner of Income tax case laid down above principle.

Codes

Both and are correct and is correct reason for

Both and are wrong.

is right, but is wrong.

is right, but is wrong.

69. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

List I (Principles of mutual rights and liabilities of partners) List II (Relevant case-law)

a. Remuneration to a partner in absence of an agreement on this matter. i. Md. Abdul Sattar Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh

b. Fixation of remuneration by agreement in respect of a partner does not alter his status as a partner ii. Ghisulal Vs. Ghumbirmal

c. Interest on the capital of a partner iii. Shelat Brothers Vs. Nanalal Harilal Shelat

d. Action against a partner for balance due to another iv. Bhagchand Vs. Kaluram Moolchand

Codes a b c d

iv ii i iii

iii i ii iv

i iii iv ii

iii i iv ii

70. Read Assertion and Reason and answer using codes given below

Assertion Partner of an erstwhile unregistered partnership firm can bring a suit to enforce a right arising out of a contract falling within the ambit of section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act.

Reason Because Judgement in case of Loonkaran Sethia Vs. Ivan E. John laid down above judicial principle.

Codes

Both and are correct and is correct reason for

Both and are wrong.

is right, but is wrong.

is wrong, but is right.

71. Which of the following statement is correct according to section of the Sale of Goods Act "Mercantile Agent" means a mercantile agent

having in the usual course of business as such seller authority either to sell goods, or to consign goods for the purpose of sale, or to buy goods, or to distribute money for security of goods.

having in the customary business as such agent power either to sell goods, or to mortgage goods for purpose of sale.

having in the customary course of business as such agent authority to sell goods.

having in the normal course of business as such agent authority to confine goods or to raise goods for purpose of the security of money.

72. Which of the following statements are correct. Answer using the codes given below

a. Ascertainment of goods for sale is done by buyer.

b. Appropriation of goods for sale is done by seller.

c. Distinction between ascertainment of goods and appropriation of goods that former involves "the element of common intention between buyer and seller", whereas later can be a unilateral act by buyer.

d. Property in goods does not pass to buyer till appropriation.

Codes

only c and d are correct.

only b is correct.

only d is correct.

only c is correct.

73. Which of the following are presumptions as to a negotiable instrument under section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act Answer using codes given below

a. Presumption of contractual capacity

b. Presumption of consideration

c. Presumption of maturity of instrument

d. Presumption of date

Codes

only a and c

only b and d

only a and d

only a and b

74. Which of the following statement is correct Answer using codes given below

a. Doctrine of indoor management apply in case of knowledge of irregularity in company.

b. Doctrine of indoor management does not apply in case of suspicion of irregularity.

c. Doctrine of indoor management apply in case of forgery.

d. Doctrine of indoor management does not apply if the act of an officer of a company is one which would ordinarily be beyond the powers of such an officer.

Codes

only a is correct.

only b is correct.

only c is correct.

only d is correct.

75. Find answer by using codes given below Director may be removed by

a. Other Directors

b. Creditors

c. Central Government

d. Shareholders in a general meeting

Codes

only a and b are correct.

only b and c are correct.

only c and d are correct.

only d and a are correct.