1. The external opening of branchial fistula is present in

Lower third of the neck

Middle third of the neck

Upper third of the neck

Suprasternal notch

2. A eight year old male child complains of severe pain in right testes. The most probable diagnosis is

Torsion of right testis

Strangulated Inguinal hernia

Acute epididym-orchitis

Undescended testis

3. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding Gastroschisis?

It is a ruptured exomphalos

Gut has herniated through a defect to right of umbilicus

Normally limited to midgut

There is no covering membrane

4. Heineke-Mikulicz operation is done for:

Ureteric stricture

Urethral stricture

Pyloric stenosis

Stricture common bile duct

5. A 32 year old female underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy which was difficult. On her second post operative day, she develops jaundice. Her LFT parameters show serum bilirubin 6.8 mg/dL; direct bilirubin 5.6 and indirect bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL; and serum alkaline phosphatase 1226 IU/L. She is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice due to:

Bile duct injury

Carcinoma gallbladder

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Carcinoma head of pancreas

6. A 60 year old man presents with painless progressive jaundice for two months. He has a history of weight loss. On examination, his gallbladder is palpable which is smooth, non-tender and globular. His serum bilirubin is 18.2 mg/dL. He is most likely suffering from:

Carcinoma head of pancreas

Carcinoma stomach

Choledocholithiasis

Klatskin tumour

7. A young 23 year old male riding his motorcycle meets with a road accident. He is tachypnoeic with HR 110/m and BP 112/74 mmHg. On examination, he has tenderness over left side of chest with decreased air entry. His trachea is pushed to opposite side. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Most probably he is suffering from:

Haemothorax

Consolidation

Subcutaneous emphysema

Tracheal rupture

8. Mondor's disease is

Lymphangitis of mammary lymphatics

Multiple breast cysts

Eczema by nipple and areola

Thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of breast

9. Which of the following is NOT true regarding 'Renal Carbuncle'?

It is an abscess in renal parenchyma

It occurs in diabetic patient

It is a type of renal tuberculosis

It occurs in intravenous drug abusers

10. Anderson-Hynes operation is performed for:

Achalasia cardia

Pyloric stenosis

Pseudo-pancreatic cyst

Pelvi-ureteric junction obstruction

11. Which of the following is NOT correct for 'strawberry gall bladder'?

It is a malignant condition of gall bladder

It has sub mucous aggregation of cholesterol crystals

It may be associated with cholesterol Stones

Simple cholecystectomy is the treatment of choice

12. Treatment of choice for Recurrent Thyrotoxicosis after surgery is

Further surgery

Radio iodine followed by surgery

Radio iodine

Observe/follow -up

13. All the following are features of Polycystic disease of kidneys EXCEPT:

Haematuria

Hypertension

Renal failure

Erythrocytosis

14. Which one of the following is the most important selection criteria for obesity surgery

BMI>40

BMI 30

BMI 30 with co-morbid disease

BMI 35 without any co-morbid disease

15. A 45 year old underwent abdominal rectal prolapse surgery. At present, he complains of sexual dysfunction which is probably due to the injury of:

Pelvic autonomic nerves

Inferior mesenteric artery

Rectum

Urinary bladder

16. In endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography endoscope used is:

End viewing

Side viewing

Rigid

Front viewing

17. Oliguria is defined as:

Absence of urine production

More than 900 ml of urine excreted in a day

600 ml to 700 ml of urine excreted in a day

Less than 300 ml of urine excreted in a day

18. A 40 year old man, with a history of a reducible left groin swelling of two years, comes with severe pain over left groin. The swelling is now non-reducible and is very tender to touch. The most probable treatment plan for this patient would be:

Continue conservative management

Hot fomentation of groin area

Oral antibiotics

Prepare for emergency surgery

19. During laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, in the 'triangle of the following are true EXCEPT:

Vas deferens on medial side

Cord structures on lateral side

Base by iliac vessels

Dangerous area for dissection

20. All are rare type of lateral Hernia of abdominal wall, EXCEPT:

Spigelian

Obturator

Superior lumbar

Inferior lumbar

21. A 35 year old female had laparoscopic ventral hernia repair using polypropylene mesh in January 2015. In June 2015, she is again admitted with features of subacute intestinal obstruction and is managed conservatively. She continues to have recurrent colicky pain after that. Most probably she is suffering from:

Recurrence of hernia

New hernia

Acute appendicitis

Bowel adhesion to mesh

22. Which of the following is NOT correct for breast abscess?

Drainage of abscess by a radial incision

Antibiotic is given if pus is already present

A counter-incision is made in the dependant part

Dressings are changed frequently

23. Important landmark in submandibular gland dissection is:

Posterior border of mylohyoid muscle

Posterior belly of digastrics muscle

Anterior belly of digastrics muscle

Facial artery

24. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome?

Hyperthermia more than 380C)

Hypothermia (less than 360C)

Leucocytosis

Bradycardia

25. A 35 year old man presents to Emergency with acute onset pain abdomen radiating to whole abdomen and abdominal distension for one day. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding all over abdomen with pulse rate of 100/m and BP 116/84 mmHg. Chest X-ray erect position shows gas under bilateral domes of diaphragm. Probably he is suffering from:

Acute pancreatitis

Ruptured liver abscess

Appendicular perforation

Colonic perforation

26. A 70 year old man comes to Emergency with pain lower abdomen and not passing urine for eight hours. He has a past history of urgency, hesitancy and frequency of urine. On examination, he has a lump up to the umbilicus which is slightly tender. What is the next step of management?

Get an urgent USG

Per rectal examination

Per urethral catheterise the patient

Start antibiotics

27. 'Swiss cheese defects' of anterior abdominal wall after exploratory laparotomy is best seen while doing:

Open ventral hernia repair

Open inguinal hernia repair

Laparoscopic ventral hernia repair

Laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair

28. A 35 year old male patient comes to casualty with acute pain abdomen; and on examination found to have cold, clammy extremities, sunken eyes, dry tongue, thready pulse, drawn and anxious face with abdominal guarding and rigidity. This clinical picture indicates:

Local peritonitis

Diffuse early peritonitis

Diffuse late peritonitis

Acute cholecystitis

29. All of the following statements are true for keloids EXCEPT:

It is rarely seen in white skinned persons and is more common over the sternum

True keloid continues to become worse even after one year

True keloid does not spread into surrounding tissue

The maturation and stabilization of the collagen fibrils is inhibited

30. Which of these is a palliative shunt procedure created between the left subclavian artery and pulmonary artery to treat cyanotic congenital heart disease?

Gott's shunt

Lieno renal shunt

Blalock-Taussig shunt

Waterstons shunt

31. A young male is undergoing emergency surgery for a clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Intraoperatively minimal pus was found but the appendix was normal. What is the next step of management?

Appendectomy

Right hemicolectomy

Close the abdomen without doing anything

Search for perforated Meckel's diverticulum

32. Which of the following is NOT considered as an indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation?

Urine output

Respiratory rate

Pulse

Blood pressure

33. In a 65 year old, double contrast barium enema shows cancer of colon with an apple core appearance. Colonoscopic biopsy shows adenocarcinoma. What will be the next step of management?

Surgery

Chemotherapy

CECT to stage disease

Radiotherapy

34. A 35 year old woman presented with a lump in her upper abdomen for two months which was slightly increasing. She also complained of early satiety. She gave a history of acute severe pain in upper abdomen for which she was admitted in hospital for 10 days, about three months ago. On examination, the mass was firm, smooth surfaced and not moving with respiration. She was most likely suffering from:

Cancer stomach

Cancer colon

Pseudocyst pancreas

Splenic cyst

35. While working in a primary health centre, an elderly patient presents with a history of sudden loss of vision and curtain falling sensation in one eye. This symptom is highly suggestive that the patient has the following condition:

Retinal detachment

Vitreous haemorrhage

Acute onset ptosis

Intracranial haemorrhage

36. Pringle's manoeuvre is done to stop bleeding at:

Left gastric artery

Splenic artery

Renal artery

Hepatoduodenal ligament

37. What is the most common malignant tumour of eyelid?

Neurofibroma

Meibomian cancer

Basal cell cancer

Pseudotumour

38. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of atherosclerotic occlusive disease at the bifurcation of aorta (Leriche syndrome)?

Claudication of the buttock and thigh

Claudication of the calf

Sexual impotence

Gangrene localised to the feet

39. Which of the following factors is labelled as cytokine in the pathogenesis of Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome

Nitric oxide

Complements

Leukotrienes

Tumor necrosis factor

40. Vocal cord palsy after thyroid surgery is due to injury to:

Superficial laryngeal nerve

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

Ansa cervicalis

Vagus nerve

41. A infertile woman presents with yellow or green vaginal discharge, bartholin cyst and proctitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Syphilis

Trichomomiasis

Gonorrhoea

Candidiasis

42. Absolute contraindication to combined oral contraceptive is:

History of GDM

History of thrombo-embolism

History of previous two caesarean section

History of gallbladder disease

43. A 28 year old P1L1 presents with severe pain in her abdomen and is taken for laparotomy. On opening the abdomen pseudomyxoma of the peritoneum is present. What should be the probable reason?

Mucinous cystadenoma of ovary

Serous cystadenoma of ovary

Rupture of dermoid tumor

Endometriosis

44. In a 40 year old woman, pap smear shows atypical glandular cells. The next step of management should be:

Repeat pap smear after three months

Colposcopic directed cervical biopsy

Colposcopy, cervical biopsy, endocervical curettage and endometrial biopsy

Hysteroscopy and directed endometrial biopsy

45. A 50 year old P4L4 has a simple left ovarian cyst of 10cm. Ca 125 is 30u/ml. Treatment of choice would be:

TAH BSO (Total abdominal hysterectomy Bilateral salpingo-oopherectomy)

Laparoscopic cystectomy

Laparoscopic oophorectomy

Medical management with oral contraceptives

46. A seven year old girl with precocious puberty is found to be having a 10 cm. ovarian cyst on USG. The most likely etiology is

Benign cystic teratoma

Brenner tumour

Choriocarcinoma

Granulosa cell tumour

47. A 17 year old girl presents with an ovarian cyst of 5cm. The cyst is echo free, unilocular and CA 125 of 8U/ml. What is most appropriate management?

Laproscopy for cyst removal

Laparotomy for cyst removal

Conservative with follow up ultrasound

Medical treatment

48. The contraceptive choice for a 38 year old P1L1 woman having chronic hypertension, dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia is:

Copper intrauterine device

Sterilization

Levenorgestrel intrauterine device

Combined oral contraceptive pills

49. Most probable cause of heavy bleeding in a P2L2 during tenth day post partum is:

Retained bits of cotyledons and membranes

Subinvolution of placental site

Resumption of menstruation

Infected episiotomy wound

50. A woman with which of the following health problems should avoid centchromen?

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Woman with dysfunctional uterine bleeding

Endometrial hyperplasia

Endometriosis

51. Combined contraceptive pills give protection from the following EXCEPT:

Cancer of ovary

Cancer of endometrium

Cancer of cervix

Ectopic pregnancy

52. A woman presents with heavy foul smelling discharge with sharply demarcated ulcers without induration on the perineum and the labia majora. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is also present. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Gonorrhoea

Tuberculosis

Chancroid

Trichomoniasis

53. A 28 year old woman develops amenorrhoea after having dilatation and curettage. The most likely diagnosis is

Kallman syndrome

Asherman syndrome

Anorexia nervosa

Turner syndrome

54. Which of the following tests is NOT used for diagnosing syphilis?

Frie's test

Direct fluorescent antibody test

FTA ABS test

TPHA

55. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome involving perihepatitis is present in the following:

Moniliasis

Syphilis

Tuberculosis

Gonorrhoea

56. Which of the following cause/causes bacterial vaginosis?

1. Gardnerella

2. Mycoplasma

3. Ureaplasma urealyticum

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1,2and3

57. Where are antisperm antibodies usually present?

Uterus

Vagina

Fallopian tube

Cervix

58. Modified Bishop's score includes all EXCEPT:

Cervical length and dilatation

Consistency of cervix

Position of os

Position of occiput

59. The engaging diameter of brow presentation is:

Mento-vertical

Submento-vertical

Suboccipito-bregmatic

Submento-bregmatic

60. Intramuscular injection of iron dextran is given by technique to:

Alleviate the pain

Decrease the incidence of infection

Reduce the staining

Increase the iron absorption

61. Which of the following is/are the risk factors for acute pelvic inflammatory disease in women?

1. Intercourse during menstruation

2. Multiple sex partners

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

62. The umbilical cord normally contains:

Two arteries and two veins

One artery and one vein

Two arteries and one vein

One artery and two veins

63. Painless genital ulcer is found in which one of the following genital infections?

Grannloma inguinale

Chancroid

Lymphogranuloma venerum

Herpes simplex

64. Medical management of tubular ectopic pregnancy can be done in the following EXCEPT:

Period of gestation 5 weeks

ß HCG level more than 10,000 IU

Absent foetal cardiac activity

Gestational sac diameter 3 cm.

65. Cholestasis may lead to the following complications EXCEPT:

Intrauterine foetal death

Meconium stained liquor

Preterm labour

Neonatal jaundice

66. Which of the following genital infections is associated with preterm labour?

Human Papilloma Virus

Trichomonas vaginalis

Monilial vaginitis

Bacterial vaginosis

67. Multiple pregnancy is associated with an increased incidence of the following EXCEPT:

Hyperemesis gravidarum

Congenital malformations

Pregnancy induced hypertension

Post date pregnancy

68. Which of the following conditions of the endometrium is associated with a significantly increased risk of development of cancer?

Simple hyperplasia

Complex hyperplasia with atypia

Simple atypical hyperplasia

Complex hyperplasia

69. Surgical staging is done for all the genital malignancies EXCEPT:

Ovarian malignancy

Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia

Endometrial carcinoma

Fallopian tube malignancy

70. B-Lynch suture for atonic postpartum haemorrhage

compresses the uterus

ligates the uterine arteries

ligates the utero-ovarian anastomosis

ligates the ovarian vessels

71. Regarding 'Delancy's levels of vaginal support', consider the following pairs:

1. Level I .......... Supports distal urethra perineal body

2. Level II .......... Supports mid-vagina

3. Level III .......... Supports apical defect

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1 and 3 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

1,2and3

72. Regarding "conjoined twins", which of the following statements is/are true?

1. These are always monozygotic

2. These result when division occurs before the embryonic disc is formed

3. Most common variety is thoracopagus

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1,2and3

73. The appropriate treatment for the baby of a woman who is HBsAg positive but HBeAg negative is

Both active and passive immunisation soon after birth

Passive immunisation soon after birth but active immunisation after one year of age

Only active immunisation soon after birth

Only passive immunisation soon after birth

74. Consider the following pairs regarding foetal heart during labour: Term .... Description

1. Early decelerations .... Most common during labour and are due to cord compression

2. Late decelerations .... Result due to any process leading to maternal hypotension, placental insufficiency or excessive uterine activity

3. Variable decelerations .... Are due to head compression leading to vagal stimulation

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 3

2 only

75. A 26 year old woman P1L1 reports with High Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion (HGSIL) on Pap smear (Papanicolaou smear). Further management for her is:

VIA, VILI

Colposcopy and directed biopsy

LEEP

Conisation

76. With reference to the displacement of uterus, the treatment of choice for genuine stress urinary incontinence is:

Kegel's perineal exercises

Kelly's placation

TVT-O mid urethral tape

Periurethral injection of bulking agents

77. Regarding placental separation in III stage of labour, consider the following statements:

1. Separation of placenta occurs at deciduas spongiosa

2. In Shultz method, separation of placenta starts at centre

3. In Mathew Duncan's method, separation begins at margin

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1,2and3

78. A 16 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea with absent vagina, cervix and uterus in the presence of normal secondary sexual characteristics. Ovaries are present on USG. The most probable diagnosis is:

Kleinfelter's syndrome

Androgen Insensitivity syndrome

Mayer Rockitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome

Prader Willi syndrome

79. A 32 year old woman is noted to have 1200 cc of blood loss following a spontaneous vaginal delivery and delivery of placenta. The uterine fundus is palpated and noted to be firm.

Which of the following is the most likely treatment for this patient?

lynch suture

Surgical repair of cervical tear

Intramuscular prostaglandin

Replacement of inverted uterus

80. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding physiology of menstruation?

1. LH surge precedes ovulation

2. There are two peaks in serum estradiol levels, first in follicular and second in luteal phase

3. Serum progesterone has only one peak i.e., in luteal phase

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1,2and3

81. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) of dispersion

1. Mode

2. Median

3. Standard Deviation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

3 only

2 and 3 only

1,2and3

82. Which among the following is/are the examples of primordial prevention

1. Adopting healthy lifestyles from childhood

2. Immunization of infants

3. Screening of cervical cancer

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1,2 and 3

83. The appropriate statistical test to find out obesity as a significant risk factor for breast cancer is:

Student's paired test

Student's unpaired test

Chi-square test

Wilcoxon's signed rank test

84. In a case control study, confounding factors can be minimized by the following EXCEPT:

Matching of variables such as age and sex

Randomization during selection

Stratification during analysis

Increasing sample size for cases and controls

85. Which one of the following is FALSE regarding confounding factor in epidemiological studies

Associated both with exposure and disease

Distributed equally between study and control groups

Independent risk factor for disease in question

Source of bias is interpretation

86. Denominator in calculation of case fatality rate is:

Total number of deaths due to all causes

Total number of hospital admissions

Total number of cases due to the disease concerned

Total number of deaths due to the disease concerned

87. A well of contaminated water resulting in an epidemic of acute watery diarrhoea is a typical example for

Common source, single exposure epidemic

Common source, continuous exposure epidemic

Slow epidemic

Propagated epidemic

88. An important measure of communicability of a disease is

Incidence rate

Case fatality rate

Prevalence rate

Secondary attack rate

89. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding case fatality rate?

Very useful indicator for both acute and chronic diseases

One of the measures related to virulence

It is the ratio of deaths to cases expressed as percentage

Variation can occur for the same disease because of changes in the agent factors

90. Farmer's lung is caused by the inhalation of:

Grain dust with actinomycetes

Sugarcane dust

Silica dust

Cotton fibre dust

91. Suraksha Clinics are conducted under the aegis of which National Health Programme?

Revised National Tuberculosis Control programme

Iodine Deficiency Disorders Programme

National AIDS Control Programme

Reproductive and Child Health Programme

92. Mean 2 S.D. contains

68.3 values

91.2 values

95.4 values

99.7 values

93. Infant Mortality Rate is expressed per:

1000 pregnancies

1000 live births

1000 under five children

100,000 live births

94. Which of the following tests is NOT used for checking quality of pasteurisation of milk?

Phosphatase test

Standard Plate count

Coliform count

Orthotoludine test

95. Which of the following are components of epidemiological triad?

Sensitivity, specificity and predictive value

Time, place and person distribution

Agent, host and environmental factors

Prevalence, incidence and attack rate

96. By applying the principles of ergonomics which of the following can be improved?

1. Designing of equipment and tools

2. Human efficiency

3. Layout of place of work

4. Reduction in industrial accidents

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1,2 and 3 only

and 4

2,3 and 4 only

1,3 and 4 only

97. The risk of disease is measured by

Prevalence Rate

Incidence Rate

Attrition Rate

Fatality Rate

98. Tetanus spores can only be killed by

Large doses of penicillin

Anti tetanus Serum

Tetanus toxoid

Gamma irradiation

99. Which is/are the correct statements regarding the cut off points for the diagnosis of anaemia?

1. Haemoglobin for adult males is 13 g/dl

2. Haemoglobin for adult non-pregnant female is 12 g/dl

3. Haemoglobin for adult pregnant female is 11 g/dl

4. Haemoglobin for children six months to six years of age is 11 g/dl

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

and 4

2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

100. Health functionary at PHC level is:

ASHA

Anganwadi Worker

Health Assistant (Female)

Health Worker (Female)

101. Due to a measles outbreak in a community, a medical officer decided to immunize a child aged seven months with measles vaccine. When should the next measles vaccine be administered?

Not required

After four weeks

When the child completes nine months of age

When the child completes fifteen months of age

102. Which of the following is/are the methods of assessment of nutritional status?

1. Clinical examination

2. Anthropometry

3. Biochemical evaluation

4. Orthotolidine test

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 3 only

1,2 and 3only

and 4

103. Retrospective cohort studies have the following features EXCEPT:

Outcomes have occurred before the start of the study

Generally more expensive than prospective studies

Results are obtained more quickly

Investigator goes back in time to select study groups

104. What is the correct sequence of the following levels of prevention?

1. Specific protection

2. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment

3. Disability limitation and rehabilitation

4. Health promotion

Select the correct sequence from the code given below:









105. Which of the following items are among the uses of epidemiology?

To study historically the rise and fall of the diseases

To arrive at community diagnosis

To identify syndromes

All of these

106. Consider the following statements regarding folic acid:

1. It is needed for normal development of blood cells in the marrow

2. It has a role in synthesis of nucleic acids

3. It is resistant to boiling

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

1and2

1and3

2and3

107. The maternal and child health care indicator that gives a good indicator of the extent of pregnancy wastage as well as the quantity and quality of health care available to the mother and new born is:

Maternal Mortality Rate

Still Birth Rate

Infant Mortality Rate

Perinatal Mortality Rate

108. To control Mansonoides mosquitoes, the most effective method is:

Oiling of water

Larvicidal insecticides

Avoidance of water collections

Removal of water plants

109. What is the fertility indicator that gives the approximate magnitude of completed family size?

General Fertility Rate

Age Specific Fertility Rate

Total Fertility Rate

Gross Reproduction Rate

110. For a child aged four years, an Anganwadi Worker detects that the weight is lower than expected. What should the Anganwadi Worker do first regarding the malnutrition detected in the child?

Refer the child to the nearby Health Centre

Refer the child a nearby nutritional rehabilitation centre

Give nutritional counselling to the mother

Start fortnightly deworming

111. Which of the following anthropometrical measurements is/are carried out to assess the growth of children under five years of age?

1. Weight measurement

2. Height measurement

3. Mid upper arm circumference

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1,2and3

112. Which of the following is included in detecting a child with severe acute malnutrition?

1. Weight for age Z-score less than minus three SD

2. Bilateral pitting oedema

3. Weight for height Z-score less than minus three SD

4. Mid upper arm circumference of less than 12 cm.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

1,2,3and4

113. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Essential Obstetric Care under the Reproductive, Maternal, Newborn and Child Health care Programme?

1. Early registration of pregnancy

2. Provision of first referral units

3. Provision of safe delivery practices

4. Provision of at least four postnatal checkups

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1,2,3and4

114. A pregnant woman visits a medical officer for an antenatal check up. The woman mentions that she had received two doses of Tetanus Toxoid vaccine four years ago. Which of the following steps should the medical officer take with regard to administration of Tetanus Toxoid vaccine as per the Government of India recommended schedule?

Tetanus Immunoglobulin should be administered in the third trimester of pregnancy

Two doses of Tetanus Toxoid vaccine should be administered with an interval of four weeks between the two doses

Only one dose of Tetanus Toxoid vaccine is required

No Tetanus Toxoid vaccine is required

115. With reference to quarantine measures to prevent the spread of a disease, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In addition to human beings, quarantine measures are at times also applied to an aircraft or a train or a container etc.

2. The duration of the quarantine period is equivalent to the minimum incubation period for the disease

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

116. Which is the first step in carrying out an Adverse Event Following Immunization

Formulate a working hypothesis

Observe the immunization service in action

Confirm information in report

Collect data about the suspected vaccine

117. At the end of an immunization session, you found that a reconstituted BCG vaccine vial has around two doses left in it. What should be done in such a situation?

Can reuse the remaining two doses during the next immunization session

Discard the vial in a black coloured bin

Discard the vial in a red coloured bin

Take decision depending upon the Vaccine Vial Monitor(VVM) status

118. With reference to Vaccine Vial Monitors(VVM) being used on vaccine vials, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It gives information about heat exposure over a period of time

2. It directly indicates vaccine potency

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

119. Why is matching done in a case-control study?

1. To remove the effect of known confounders

2. To remove the effect of unknown confounders

3. To eliminate selection bias

4. To eliminate interviewer's bias

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3

1,3 and 4

4 only

120. Which of the following vaccines has NOT been introduced in the Universal Immunization Programme in India?

Pentavalent vaccine

MMR vaccine

Injectable polio vaccine

Cervical cancer vaccine