1. In a sutured surgical wound, the process of epithelialization is completed within:

24 hours

48 hours

72 hours

96 hours

2. Extensive surgical debridement, decompression or amputation may be indicated in all the following clinical settings except:

Progressive synergistic gangrene

Acute thrombophlebitis

Acute haemolytic streptococcal cellulitis

Acute rhabdomyolysis

3. Which one of the following bacteria is classified as facultative anaerobe?

Pseudomonas

Bacteroides

Escherichia

Clostridium

4. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding sebaceous cyst?

It has a punctum

Treatment is incision and drainage

Found on hairy areas of the body

Not found on palms and soles

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (carcinoma) List-II (characteristic)

A. Seminoma testis 1. Hormone dependent

B. Carcinoma prostrate 2. Does not spread by lymphatics

C. Basal cell carcinoma 3. Prognosis depends on thickness

D. Malignant melanoma 4. Highly radiosensitive

Code: A B C D

1 2 3

2 1 3

1 2 4

2 1 4

6. Tumours of anterior mediasternum include the following except:

Thymoma

Lymphoma

Germ cell tumour

Schwannoma

7. In India, the commonest cause of unilateral lymphoedema of lower limb is:

Lymphoedema tarda

Carcinoma of penis

Filariasis

Tubercular lymphadenopathy

8. Nottingham prognostic Index is used for:

Cancer stomach

Cancer colon

Cancer lung

Cancer breast

9. A patient has recurrent abdominal pain and jaundice. The blood investigations reveal reticulocytosis and hyperbilirubinemia. What is the clinical diagnosis?

Hereditary spherocytosis

Mirizzi's syndrome

Choledochal cyst

Sclerosing cholangitis

10. In gallstone ileus, obstruction most frequently occurs at:

Duodenum

Jejunum

Proximal ileum

Terminal ileum

11. The following conditions are associated with high incidence of pigment gallstones except:

Cirrhosis

Ileal disease

Thalassemia

Prosthetic heart valve

12. The most common route of spread in a case of pyogenic liver abscess is:

Haematogenous through portal vein

Ascending infection through biliary duct

Hepatic artery

Local spread

13. The most common complication of pancreas divisum is:

Obstructive jaundice

Duodenal obstruction

Recurrent acute pancreatitis

Peptic ulcer

14. The commonest major surgical complication following whipple procedure is:

Disruption of pancreatic anastomosis

Biliary peritonitis

Disruption of gastric anastomosis

GI bleeding

15. A 60 year old male presents with bleeding p/r. Proctoscopy reveals 2nd degree haemorrhoids. The treatment of choice is:

Cryotherapy

Sclerotherapy

Banding

Surgery

16. At present, treatment is recommended for H. pylori in association with the following except:

Duodenal ulcer

Early gastric cancer

MALT-lymphoma

Benign gastric ulcer

17. Pott's puffy tumour is

Tuberculosis of the skull bone

Squamous cell cancer of scalp

Subperiosteal abscess associated with osteomyelitis of frontal bone

Fungating scrotal malignancy

18. With reference to frozen shoulder, consider the following statements:

1. It is associated with diabetes and heart disease.

2. It may follow minor trauma.

3. Its differential diagnosis are infection and fractures.

4. Treatment of choice is surgery.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3

3 and 4

3 and 4 only

19. The prognosis in reduced or unreduced fractures involving epiphyseal plate is very poor if the fracture line:

Runs along the epiphyseal plate

Extends into epiphysis

Crushes the epiphyseal plate

Crosses the epiphyseal plate

20. A 30 year old man met with an accident and presented with multiple fractures of ribs and paradoxical movement with severe respiratory distress. X-ray shows pulmonary contusion on right side without pneumothorax or haemothorax. Which one of the following is the initial choice of treatment?

Immediate internal fixation

Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation

Thoracic epidural analgesia and O2 therapy

Stabilization with towel clips

21. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of tetanus?

Risus sardonicus

Opisthotonus

Loss of consciousness

Respiratory failure

22. Hyperchloremic acidosis is a common complication of:

Ureterosigmoidostomy

Diarrhoea

Vomiting

Ileostomy

23. Endoluminal probe for transrectal ultrasonography operates at the frequency of:

2.5 MHz

5.0 MHz

7.5 MHz

15.0 MHz

24. A Seldinger needle is used for:

Liver biopsy

Breast biopsy

Lymphangiography

Arteriography

25. The ideal temperature to store the whole blood in blood-bank is



0°C

4°C

8°C

26. Bisgaard treatment refers to that of:

Ruptured tendo achillis

Venous ulcer

An ischaemic ulcer

An in-growing toe nail

27. Glasgow coma scale score ranges between:

0 and 15

1 and 15

2 and 15

3 and 15

28. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction is:

Obstructed hernia

Inflammatory abdominal conditions

Gastrointestinal malignancy

Bands and adhesions

29. The most common site for nosocomial (hospital acquired) infection is:

Respiratory tract

Urinary tract

Surgical site

Blood stream

30. A patient has carcinoid tumour of appendix of size more than 2.5 cm. The management of choice is:

Appendecectomy

Appendecectomy and 24 hour urinary HIAA

Appendecectomy and abdominal CT scan

Right hemicolectomy

31. What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in neonates?

Meconium ileus

Duodenal atresia

Volvulus neonatorium

Hirschsprung's disease

32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (drug) List-II (complications)

A. Cisplatinum 1. Haemorrhagic cystitis

B. Adriamycin 2. Pulmonary fibrosis

C. Bleomycin 3. Cardiomyopathy

D. Cyclophosphamide 4. Tubular necrosis

Code: A B C D

3 4 2 1

4 3 1 2

3 4 1 2

4 3 2 1

33. Consider the following statements: Haemophilia A (haemophilia) and Haemophilia B (christmas disease)

1. are variants of the same disease process

2. are due to congenital deficiency of factor VIII and factor IX respectively

3. both are sex linked characteristics and transmitted by asymptomatic females

4. can occur both in males and females

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 and 3

2 and4

2 only

3 only

34. A 30 year old lady sustained chest injury in an accident and presented with massive haemothorax on right side. Tube thoracostomy drained 1800 ml of blood. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Correction of hypovolemic shock

Put one more chest tube

Clamp the chest tube to cause the tamponade

Resuscitation and prepare for urgent thoracotomy

35. In a case of obstructed hernia, strangulation is suggested by which of the following?

1. Presence of shock

2. Pain is never completely absent

3. Localised tenderness is associated with rebound tenderness

4. Pain persists despite conservative management

5. An external hernia becomes tense, tender, irreducible, with recent increase in size

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

and 4 only

4 and 5 only

3 and 5 only

4 and 5

36. Regarding haemorrhagic shock, which one of the following statements is correct?

Clinically manifested when 10% of loss of total blood volume occurs

Tachycardia presents in 100% of hypovolemic patients

Loss of 40% of circulating volume is life threatening

In acute stage of shock, systemic vasodilation becomes evident

37. Consider the following statements: Poor prognostic indicators in advanced germ cell tumours show

1. primary sites in mediastinum

2. non-pulmonary metastasis

3. lactate dehydrogenase more than 10 times of normal value

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 3

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

38. Which one of the following structures is not removed during a classical radical neck dissection?

Trapezius

Sternocleidomastoid

Internal jugular vein

Accessory nerve

39. Mousseau-Barbin Tube (M.B.Tube) is used for:

Advance cancer stomach

Advance cancer oesophagus

Advance cancer oropharynx

All of these

40. Which one of the following is the investigation of choice in a patient with haematemesis?

Flexible upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

Barium meal for stomach and duodenum

Contrast enhanced CT scan

Selective left gastric angiography

41. The two important values necessary for describing the variation in a series of observations are:

Mean and standard deviation

Mean and range

Median and range

Median and standard deviation

42. The time period between entry of infective agent in a host and maximal infectivity of that host is:

Incubation period

Serial interval

Generation time

Period of communicability

43. Consider the following statements: Symposium is a method of health education characterised by

1. a series of speeches on a selected topic

2. presentation of different aspects of a topic by 3 or 4 experts.

3. a discussion among the symposium members

4. the chairperson making a comprehensive summary at the end of the session

Which of these statements are correct?

2 and 3 only

3 and 4

2 and 4

2 and 3

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Major Group of Insecticides) List-II (Name of Insecticide)

A. Stomach poison 1. Temephos

B. Organo-chlorine compound 2. Propoxur

C. Organo-phosphorous compound 3. Sodium fluoride

D. Carbamates 4. Dieldrin

Code: A B C D

4 3 1 2

4 3 2 1

3 4 1 2

3 4 2 1

45. Consider the following diseases:

1. Rift valley fever

2. Yellow Fever

3. Chickungunya fever

4. West Nile fever

Which of the above diseases are transmitted by Aedes mosquito?

2 and 3

3 and 4

2 and 4

3 and 4

46. Consider the following statements: Prophylactic disinfection includes

1. disinfection of urine specimen of patient with enteric fever

2. pasteurization of milk

3. disinfection of contaminated linen

4. disinfection of water by chlorine

Which of these statements are correct?

3 and 4

2 and 4 only

2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

47. Consider the following statements:

1. Registration of birth, even if the child is born in a hospital, is essentially the responsibility of parents only.

2. At present, the registration of birth has to be done not more than 15 days after the birth.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

48. Sullivan Index is the measure of which of the following?

Disability rate

Pregnancy rate

Literacy rate

Quality of life

49. Consider the following statements: The strategy to eradicate poliomyelitis in India comprised of

1. conducting national immunisation days

2. mopping up rounds with OPV

3. acute flaccid paralysis surveillance

4. public awareness through multimedia

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

2 and 3 only

3 and 4

50. In the estimation of statistical probability, Z score is applicable to:

Normal distribution

Skewed distribution

Binomial distribution

Poisson distribution

51. Consider the following vectors:

1. Aedes mosquito

2. Flea

3. Ticks

4. Itchmite

Transovarian transmission is demonstrated in

1 and 2

2 and 4

1 and 3

3 and 4

52. The most sensitive indicator of the health status of a community is the:

Crude death rate

Maternal mortality rate

Infant mortality rate

Child mortality rate

53. Chemoprophylaxis is an example of:

Specific protection

Health promotion

Early detection

Rehabilitation

54. A rapid mass screening method that can be employed by a paramedical worker for detecting malnutrition in pre-school 1 to 5 years) children is:

Weight for age

Height for age

Mid-arm circumference

Body Mass Index

55. The most important single determinant of infant mortality is:

Birth weight

Age of the mother

Order of birth

Inteval between births

56. The immunoglobulins that can be transported across the placenta include:

IgG only

IgA only

Both IgG and IgA

Neither IgG nor IgA

57. Consider the following statements:

1. The duration of immunity is longer when live vaccine is administered as compared to the administration of killed vaccine.

2. In the case of killed vaccine, single dose is sufficient whereas multiple doses are always required in the case of live vaccines.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Disease) List-II (Incubation Period) A. Measles 1. 6 weeks to 6 months B. Diphtheria 2. 15 to 50 days C. Hepatitis A 3. 10 to 14 days D. Hepatitis B 4. 2 to 6 days Code: ABCD 4 1 2

3 2 1

3 1 2

4 2 1

59. Throat swab positive and Schick test negative indicate that the person is:

Suffering from diphtheria

Susceptible to diphtheria

Hypersensitive to diphtheria

Immune to diphtheria

60. The following are manifestations of psychosis except:

Psychoneurosis

Schizophrenia

Manic depressive psychosis

Paranoia

61. Consider the following definitions:
'Effectiveness measures the extent to which predetermined objectives are achieved. Efficiency measures how well the resources are utilized.' In view of these definitions, which of the following assertions are true?

1. Percentage of bed occupancy measures effectiveness

2. Immunization coverage rate measures efficiency

3. Cost per patient treated measures efficiency

4. Reduction in mortality measures effectiveness

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2

2 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

3 and 4

62. With reference to the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme, consider the following statements:

1. Active case finding is pursued under this Programme.

2. Microscopy centres are established in the districts for every one lakh population and in hilly and tribal areas for every 50,000 population.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

63. Districts are classified into different categories regarding neonatal tetanus risk. Which one of the following correctly describes 'Neonatal Tetanus Elimination' status?

Incidence rate more than 2/1000 births, two doses of TT vaccine coverage less than attended deliveries between 60% and 70%

Incidence rate between 1 to 2/1000 births, three doses of TT vaccine coverage attended deliveries more than 75%

Incidence rate 0.5 to 1/1000 births, three doses of TT vaccine coverage between 70% and attended deliveries between 65% and 70%

Incidence rate less than 0.1/1000 births, two doses of TT vaccine coverage more than attended deliveries more than 75%

64. Influenza vaccine is recommended for:

1. Elderly

2. Persons with underlying chronic diseases

3. HIV infected

4. General population

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

4

2 and 3 only

2 and 3

65. With reference to mumps, consider the following statements:

1. The average age of incidence of mumps is higher than that of measles and chicken pox.

2. The mumps disease tends to be more severe in adults than in children.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

66. Consider the following statements about content/yield of 100 gm of some foodstuffs:

1. Fat content of Bengal gram is less than that of maize

2. Protein content of maize is more than that of rice

3. Calorie yield of fish and egg is same

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

67. Consider the following statements:

1. Protein content of soyabean is more than that of meat (per 100 gm)

2. Fat content of fish is more than that of soyabean (per 100 gm)

3. Calorie yield for each 100 gm of fish is almost the same as for 100 gm of banana

4. Fat content of soyabean is more than that of eggs (per 100 gm)

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2

1 and 4 only

2 and 3

3 and 4

68. Consider the following features of food poisoning: 'Incubation period less than 24 hours, source of infection is milk products, and symptoms include diarrhoea and vomiting.' To which of the following does the above description apply?

1. Staphylococcal food poisoning

2. Salmonella food poisoning

3. Botulism

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2

1 and 3

2 only

69. For adolescents, what is the weekly iron and folic acid supplementation dose?

60 mg elemental iron and 400 microgram folic acid

100 mg elemental iron and 500 microgram folic acid

120 mg elemental iron and 400 microgram folic acid

150 mg elemental iron and 500 microgram folic acid

70. Which of the following statements is/are true about proportional case rate of malaria?

1. This indicator is used since morbidity rate is difficult to determine

2. This is defined as the number of cases of malaria for every 100 patients seen in hospital OPDs

3. It is a crude index since cases are not related to their time and space distribution

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

2 and 3

71. Consider the following statements:

1. Type 2 poliovirus was eliminated in India in 2005.

2. Main cause of vaccine derived polioviruses (VDPV) is Type 2 component of OPV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

72. Which of the following statements is true about hydatid disease?

It is a zoonosis

It is rare in sheep rearing countries

It is a protozoal disease

Man is the definitive host

73. Which of the following statements is true about direct age standardization?

Standardized mortality ratio is used

A standard population is used

Age specific death rates are not known

Number of people in each age group is not known

74. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Disease) List II (Example)

A. Nosocomial 1. Cytomegaloviral infection

B. Opportunistic 2. Hepatitis B viral infection

C. Iatrogenic 3. Aplastic anemia

D. Epornithic 4. Influenza

75. With reference to International Certificate of Vaccination for Yellow Fever, the validity of the certificate begins how many days after the vaccination?

5 days

10 days

14 days

20 days

76. With reference to dengue virus, consider the following statements:

1. In India, all the four serotypes are found.

2. The reservoir of infection is both man and mosquito.

3. Adults usually have a milder disease than children.

4. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is caused by infection with more than one dengue virus.

Code: A B C D

2 1 3 4

2 1 4 3

1 2 4 3

1 2 3 4

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 4

4 only

3 and 4

77. What is the window period for HIV infection?

3 -15 days

6 24 weeks

6 8 months

None of these

78. Among the following foodstuffs, which one has the highest protein content per 100 gm?

Black gram

Egg

Ragi

Wheat

79. Smoking is associated with all the following diseases except:

Emphysema

Cardiovascular disease

Sarcoidosis

Lung cancer

80. Consider the following:

1. Skin

2. Water

3. Faeces

4. Urine

Bleaching powder can be used for disinfection of which of the above?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3

2 and 3 only

3 and 4

81. A 35 year old nulliparous woman complains of menorrhagia and mass per abdomen. On examination, the positive findings are: she is anaemic, has a pelvic mass of 16-18 weeks size, firm in consistency which moves with the movement of cervix. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

Leiomyoma

Adenomyosis

Endometrial carcinoma

Ovarian tumour

82. Abundant cornified cells in vaginal exfoliative cytology indicate:

Early proliferative phase

Late proliferative phase

Early secretory phase

Late secretory phase

83. Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon dioxide is the safest gas for creating pneumoperitoneum in operative laparoscopy.

2. Laparoscopic sterilization is not recommended during the period of immediate postpartum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

84. Polyhydramnios at term is diagnosed when AFI is more than:

10 cm

15 cm

20 cm

25 cm

85. Which of the following is not a potentially teratogenic infection if contracted in pregnancy?

Rubella

Cytomegalovirus

Influenza virus

Chicken pox

86. Active management of 3rd stage of labour includes the following except:

Injection oxytocin 10 IU intramuscularly

Controlled cord traction

Uterine massage

Injection oxytocin 10 IU intravenously

87. Regarding hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, the following are true except:

Significant proteinuria is more than/equal to 0.3 g/24hr

Eclampsia may present in the absence of hypertension

A protein:creatinine ratio more than 30 mg/mmol is considered significant

Urinary dipstick result of is equivalent to urinary protein concentration of 300 mg/dl

88. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome?

Cardiac anomalies

Mullerian duct aplasia

Renal abnormalities

Skeletal abnormalities

89. Which one of the following is not a contraindication for prescribing combined oral contraceptive pills?

Thromboembolic disease

Viral hepatitis

Rheumatic heart disease

Pelvic inflammatory disease

90. The following are used in the staging of carcinoma of the cervix except:

Pelvic lymph node involvement

Vaginal involvement

Hydroureter

Parametrial involvement

91. Presence of signet-ring cells in a cellular or myxomatous stroma is diagnostic of:

Gynandroblastoma

Hilus cell tumour

Struma ovarii

Krukenberg tumour

92. A 58 year old woman, post menopausal for last 8 years comes with history of spotting per vaginum. What is the most likely cause?

Endometrial hyperplasia

Endometrial carcinoma

Atrophic endometritis

Estrogen replacement therapy

93. A diabetic obese patient comes with history of post-menopausal bleeding. On examination, there is a supra pubic mass and per vagina there is purulent discharge. The probable diagnosis is:

Carcinoma cervix

Carcinoma endometrium

Uterine myoma

Ovarian carcinoma

94. An adolescent girl with stage 1a dysgerminoma is managed by:

Unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy alone

Total abdominal hysterectomy with unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy alone

Chemotherapy

95. Which of the following conditions is best treated by a posterior colpotomy?

Pelvic abscess

Pyometra

Pyosalpinx

Pelvic haematocele

96. Which of the following suture materials has the least tissue reaction?

Cotton Linen

Stainless steel

Chromic catgut

Silk

97. Menopause is associated with the following except:

Osteoporosis

Ischemic heart disease

Loss of libido

Delusion

98. Which one of the following conditions simulates the menstrual pattern of pain?

Intramural fibroid

Adenomyosis

Haematometra

Granulosa cell tumour of ovary

99. Which of the undermentioned conditions does not cause postmenopausal vaginal bleeding?

Benign cystic teratoma of ovary

Senile vaginitis

Carcinoma of cervix

Prolapse of uterus with decubitus ulcer

100. Defective fusion of the Mullerian ducts may give rise to which of the following?

Uterus bicornis unicollis

Imperforate anus

Imperforate hymen

Absence of the ovaries

101. For a woman who has had unprotected intercourse two days ago, which one of the following emergency contraceptive methods cannot be suggested?

LNG IUD (LNg IUD)

Ulipristal acetate

Levonorgestrel 150 mg

Yuzpe regimen

102. Deep transverse arrest of head in labour occurs in:

Android pelvis

Anthropoid pelvis

Platypelloid pelvis

Gynaecoid pelvis

103. Early deceleration of foetal heart rate in labour is due to:

Congenital heart block

Umbilical cord compression

Foetal head compression

Hyperpyrexia

104. McRoberts manoeuvre is used during labour for management of:

Normal labour to assist extension of head

Extended arms of breech during assisted breech delivery

Shoulder dystocia

Delivery of after coming head of breech

105. Which one of the following is not a suitable condition for outlet forceps application?

Cervix fully dilated

Membranes absent

Vertex presentation

Head is above ischial spine level

106. Polyhydramnios is not caused by which one of the following?

Anencephaly

Spina bifida

Single kidney

Oesophageal atresia

107. Which of the following is the type of antepartum haemorrhage where blood loss is foetal?

Abruptio placenta

Placenta previa

Vasa previa

Cirumvallate placenta

108. Which one of the following conditions is not associated with oligohydramnios during pregnancy?

Post term pregnancy

Ruptured membrane

Intra uterine growth restriction

Oesophageal atresia

109. A 23 year old presents with recurrent abortions at 16 weeks gestation. She should be investigated for:

TORCH infection

Hepatitis B infection

Incompetent cervix

Balanced paternal translocation

110. Which of the following is the most common cause of abortion during first trimester?

Cervical incompetence

Progesterone deficiency

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

Chromosomal anomalies of foetus

111. Abnormally low alpha-fetoprotein in maternal serum indicates:

Down's syndrome

Anencephaly

Encephalocele

Meningocele

112. Umbilical cord blood stem cells are used to treat all the following diseases except

Parkinsonism

Leukemia

Diabetes

Osteoporosis

113. A patient of ectopic pregnancy had beta-hCG less than 6000 IU/ml. Medical management was done by single dose methotrexate. Beta-hCG repeated after 48 hours was found 7000 IU/ml. What will you do further?

Repeat the injection of methotrexate

Operate the patient

Follow up with Beta-hCG after one week

Follow up with Beta-hCG after 72 hours

114. A 35 year old married woman with no risk factors for cervical cancer is having Pap smear showing 'atypical squamous cells of undermined significance for the first time. What is the further step in the management?

Repeat Pap immediately

Cryotherapy

Large loop excision of the transformation zone

To follow up with Pap test at 6 months

115. For a primary amenorrhoea individual having an XY karyotype, normal infantile female external and internal genitalia fibrous bands in place of gonad, lack of development of secondary sexual characters, what is the most probable diagnosis?

Testicular ferminization syndrome

Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

Swyer syndrome

Defective antimullerian harmone

116. A lady who is using oral contraceptive pills comes with a complaint of vaginal discharge and pruritus vulvae. On local examination, there is curdy white discharge from the vagina. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

Trichomonal vaginitis

Monilial vaginitis

Gardnerella vaginalis

Atrophic vaginitis

117. Antisperm antibodies are usually present in:

Cervix

Vagina

Uterus

Fallopian tube

118. For a woman who has been operated for chocolate cyst with normal menstrual cycle, any of the following may be prescribed except:

Injection leuprolide

Tranexamic acid

Tablet dienogest

Oral progestogens

119. For a 40 year old hypertensive woman, which one of the following is not recommended for contraception?

NuvaRing

Minipill

IUCD

LNG IUD (LNg IUD)

120. A 30 year old female has severe dysmenorrhoea and dyspareunia. On examination, uterus is 8 weeks size, uniformly enlarged and there is tenderness in posterior fornix. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Fibroid uterus

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

Adenomyosis

Endometrial carcinoma