1. A 20 year old female was operated for perforation peritonitis and after closing the rectus sheet her abdominal wound was left open to heal with proliferative granulation tissue which contracted and epithelized to form a scar. This patient had undergone healing by:

Primary intention

Secondary intention

Tertiary Intention

Delayed primary intention

2. A 50 year old patient had a haematoma in his left gluteal region which was large, painful and causing some neural deficit. The next plan of management will be to:

Apply some superficial ointment for it to subside

Get an CECT or MRI done

Incise or aspirate the haematoma

Leave it alone

3. An 18 year old boy had a closed lower limb injury while riding his motorbike. He was brought to hospital where on examination he had severe pain which increased on passive movement of effected limb with distal sensory disturbances. What is the probable diagnosis?

Degloving Injury

High Pressure Injection injury

Compartment syndrome

Deep Vein thrombosis

4. A surgeon told the patient's attendant that his patient has "flesh eating bug" which is the cause of such severe infection in his dirty wound on his lower limb. Which organism was the surgeon referring to?

Staphylococcus aureus

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Clostridium difficile

Steptococcus pyogenes

5. In Hernia repair, polypropylene suture is used because

It is a synthetic braided dyed absorbable suture with low tissue reaction and high tensile strength

It is synthetic monofilament dyed non absorbable suture with low tissue reaction and high tensile strength

It is a synthetic monofilament undyed absorbable suture with high tissue reaction and low tensile strength

It is a synthetic monofilament undyed non absorbable suture with high tissue reaction and which degrades at 15-20% per year

6. A 60 year old lady had a pyothorax which was treated with an intercostal chest drain. After two days, the meniscus of the fluid in the tube was not swinging during her respiratory process. What could be the likely problem?

Chest drain blockage

No fluid in the chest drain bag

Water seal not proper

High atmospheric pressure

7. The main principle regarding removal of drain after surgery is

Keep drains as long as possible to prevent complications

Drains kept for colo-rectal anastomosis should be removed within 2 days as they can cause complications

Suction drains can be removed early

Drain should be removed as soon as it is no longer required

8. The Chief of laparoscopic surgery asked his assistant to give him a laparoscopic port which has absolutely no chance of "capacitance coupling" during laparoscopic surgery. Which port should the assistant give to the Chief?

Metal laparoscopic port

Metal port with plastic cuff

Partial plastic port

Complete plastic port

9. Southampton wound grading system and ASEPSIS wound score is used for

Severity of wound infections

Surgical site cosmesis

Surgical scar

Severity of granulation tissue

10. A 75 year old diabetic man had surgery for perforated colonic diverculitis. In his post operative period he complained of severe wound pain and had signs of spreading inflammation with crepitus with subdermal spread of gangrene. He is likely to be suffering from

Clostridial infection

Meleney synergistic gangrene

Abdominal wall cellulitis

Intra-peritoneal collection

11. All of the following are congenital sinuses except:

Pre auricular

Urachal sinus

Coccygeal

Pilonidal

12. An obese 45 year lady who is a chronic smoker came with tender subcutaneous nodules with chronic inflammation with scarring under her left axilla. She is likely to be suffering from:

Lipodystrophy

Hidradenitis suppurativa

Xeroderma pigmentosum

Pyoderma gangrenosum

13. The priority in management of supracondylar fracture of humerus in a child is:

Preservation of Brachial artery entanglement

Debridement of wound

Antibiotics

Immobilization

14. All of the following are premalignant lesions except:

Actinic Solar Keratosis

Bowen's Disease

Giant Hairy Naevus

Rhinophymoma

15. A 50 year old man with long history of swelling in his right parotid region had sudden history of occasional pain, nerve weakness along with paresthesia. His fine needle aspiration cytology was inconclusive. What should be the next step?

Superficial Parotidectomy

Trucut Biopsy

MRI

CT Scan

16. A 70 year old man with history of smoking has a 1 cm ulcerative lesion over the vermilion of his upper lip. What is he likely to be suffering from?

Squamous cell carcinoma

Basal cell carcinoma

Spindle cell carcinoma

Adenoid squamous carcinoma

17. A 55 year old male came with history of hoarseness of voice for which direct laryngoscopy was done and the lesion was biopsied to detect squamous cell carcinoma. He now requires investigation to detect extent of cartilage involvement, imaging of pre and paraglottic spaces and any extension to deep neck structures. Most appropriate investigation of choice will be:

CT Scan

Endo Ultrasound

MRI

Repeat direct laryngoscopy under general anaesthesia

18. Breast imaging reporting and data system Final assessment categorized a 45 year old female to have Category 5 disease. What does the report signify?

Incomplete assessment

Negative- Annual screening can be recommended.

Probably benign malignant)

Highly suggestive of malignancy malignant)

19. In a male patient of road traffic accident with blood at the tip of external meatus, the likely injury is:

Injury to urethra

Injury to urinary bladder

Injury to kidney

Injury to all of these

20. A 35 year old female has inflammatory carcinoma of left breast, with clinically palpable two left axillary lymph nodes and no clinically or radiologically detectable metastasis. Her TNM staging will be:

T4 N2 M0

T4b N2 M0

T4d N1 M0

T4d N2 M0

21. Milan trial, NSABP trial and EORTC trial in breast cancer compared:

Chemotherapy vs Radiotherapy in breast cancer

Breast conservative therapy vs Mastectomy

Neo adjuvant chemotherapy vs Adjuvant chemotherapy

Hormonal vs Chemotherapy

22. Regarding breast conservative therapy and issue of post operative local recurrence, all are true except:

Lumpectomy can be considered in any size provided the tumour can be excised with clear margins and acceptable cosmetic results

Margins should be clear for invasive cancer

Margins should be clear for ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

Margins should be clear for lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

23. A 75 year old lady came with an incidentally diagnosed splenic artery aneurysm which after radiological investigation confirmed to be calcified. She should be offered:

Observation

Embolisation

Endovascular stenting

Laparoscopic splenic artery ligation and splenectomy

24. Regarding choledochal cysts following features are true except:

Congenital cysts

60% are diagnosed before 10 years

Older presentations have an acquired variant

Increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma in older presentations

25. A 55 year old gentleman presented with history of right upper quadrant discomfort, jaundice, pruritis, fever, fatigue and weight loss. His serum bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels are raised and he also gives history of treatment for inflammatory bowel disease. He is most likely to be suffering from:

Benign bile duct stricture with cholangitis

Biliary worms

Bile duct malignancy

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

26. Regarding carcinoma gall bladder following features are true except:

One can have similar presentation with benign biliary disease

Squamous cell carcinoma is 40% of all cases

Most patients present with advanced disease

Prognosis is poor

27. A 45 year old female presented with a cystic lesion in the lesser sac on CT scan. Endoscopic ultrasound guided aspiration showed amylase to be 500 IU and carcinoembryonic antigen as 500ng/ml. What was she suffering from?

Pseudocyst pancreas with ductal communication

Chronic pseudocyst

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

Mucinous neoplasm of pancreas

28. During Pylorus preserving pancreatico-duodenectomy (PPPD) the following organs are removed except:

Distal Bile Duct

Stomach

Gall bladder

Head of pancreas

29. In Crohn's disease all are true except:

Can occur anywhere in GIT

Fistula formation is common

Crypt abscess are common

Full thickness bowel involvement

30. Glasgow Coma Score Scale pertains to:

Head injury only

Head and cervical injury

Chest injury

Level of consciousness

31. Muscle relaxant ideal for rapid intubation and short procedures is:

Vecuronium

Atracurium

Rocuronium

Suxamethonium

32. A 22 year old male addicted to alcohol and abused with pan-masala-arecanut comes to the clinic with limited mouth opening and restricted tongue movement. The clinical suspicion will be of:

Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis

Sub-mucous fibrosis

Leukoplakia

Sideropenic dysphagia

33. A 56 year old male comes with history of claudication pain in both buttocks, thighs and calves. He also gives history of impotence. The probable site of arterial occlusion is:

Aortoiliac occlusion

Iliac obstruction

Proximal femoral artery occlusion

Distal femoral artery occlusion

34. The earliest clinical sign of an impending burst abdomen is:

Serous wound discharge

Erythema of the wound

Tachycardia and high grade fever

Pus discharge from the wound

35. Most common neoplasm of thyroid gland is:

Papillary carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

Follicular carcinoma

Hashimoto's disease

36. Which of the following blood components has the shortest shelf life?

Red Blood Cells

Platelets

Fresh frozen plasma

Cryoprecipitate

37. Consider the following features:

1. Visible gastric peristalsis

2. Bilious vomiting

3. Palpable tumour

4. Melena

Which of these is/are feature/features of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

2 and 3

1 and 3 only

2 and 4

4 only

38. A 24 year old married lady presents with sudden onset right iliac fossa pain. On examination she has marked pallor and is hypotensive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Appendicular perforation

Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

Twisted ovarian cyst

Small bowel perforation

39. Which of the following layers is most important in intestinal anastamosis?

Mucosa

Submucosa

Muscularis propria

Serosa

40. The best cure rates for keloids are achieved by:

Surgical excision

Localised irradiation

Intralesional injection of triamcinolone

Intralesional excision followed by radiotherapy

41. A 30 year old G2P1L0 with history of anencephaly in previous pregnancy has a nuchal fold thickness of 2.5 mm with other normal fetal parameters. She may be having:

Trisomy 21

Spina bifida

Normal pregnancy

Trisomy 18

42. A 26 year old primigravida presents with blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg, proteinurea and congestive heart failure. Which drug is not useful in this situation?

Methyl-dopa

Labetalol

Nifedipine

Diuretics

43. A pregnant woman with 30 weeks gestation presents with BP 166/110 mmHg with pulmonary edema with convulsions. The woman is given magnesium sulphate. The following drug should be avoided:

Intravenous Labetalol

Sublingual Nifedipine

Intravenous Frusemide

Intravenous Hydralazine

44. A woman undergoing treatment of infertility presents with triplet pregnancy. The most probable drug given to her for treatment of infertility would have been:

Clomiphene Citrate

Inj HMG

Inj hCG

Inj GnRH analogue

45. A woman presents with abdominal pain and nausea with amenorrhea of 5-6 weeks. Ectopic pregnancy can be diagnosed if:

Serum progesterone 25 ng/ml

Beta hCG .1000 IU/L with endometrial thickness of 14mm

Beta hCG 2000 IU/L with no gestational sac in the uterus on transvaginal sonography

Beta hCG >3000 IU/L with empty uterus on transvaginal sonography

46. A woman suffering from active tuberculosis not on ATT has a full term vaginal delivery. All the following should be done except:

Breastfeed the neonate

BCG should be given to the neonate

Neonate should be given INH

Neonate should be isolated from mother

47. A woman with post-term pregnancy with unripe cervix should not be induced with misoprostol if she has:

Asthma

Diabetes

Hepatitis B antigen positive

Decompensated heart disease

48. An overweight, hirsuit woman of 30 years, with one live issue presented to the family planning clinic for advice for contraception. The best suited oral contraceptive will contain the following:

Norgestrel

Noretisterone

Cyproterone acetate

Medroxyprogesterone acetate

49. Contraceptive options for a 28 year old woman who is breastfeeding a six week old baby, wanting to avoid pregnancy for a longer interval are the following except:

LNG-IUD

IUD- 380A

Implanon

Combined oral contraceptives

50. A woman using combined oral contraceptive has the following non contraceptive benefits except:

Protection against PID

Prevention of colorectal malignancy

Protection against ovarian cancer

Protection against cervical cancer

51. A 40 year old lady is examined and found to have uterovaginal prolapse. What is the appropriate surgery to prevent recurrence?

Abdominal hysterectomy with Moscowitz operation

Vaginal hysterectomy with anterior and posterior colporrhaphy and McCall culdoplasty

Vaginal hysterectomy with McCall culdoplasty

Vaginal hysterectomy with sacrospinocolpopexy

52. Cervical mucus examination of a 22 year old infertile woman is done to look for all the following except:

Cellularity of mucus

Presence of HPV

Ferning

Spinnbarkitt

53. In a 28 year old infertile woman with anovulation ,the following parameters will indicate ovulation except:

Insler score

Vaginal smear

Serum estradiol levels

Urinary LH levels

54. Therapeutic options for a 30 year old woman suffering from severe pain due to endometriosis are the following except:

Mirena

Oral contraceptives

Letrozole

Sildenafil

55. Waste disposal of placenta after delivery is done by

Disposing it in blue bags

Autoclaving

Incineration

Microwaving

56. Features of Janani Suraksha Yojana are the following except:

100% Centrally sponsored scheme

ASHA is a link between woman and Government

Cash assistance is given to mothers for high and low performing states

It promotes institutional deliveries

57. Ideal time to perform post partum sterilization as per Government of India guidelines is:

From 12 hours to 7 days of delivery

From 24 hours to 7 days of delivery

From 48 hours to 7 days of delivery

Within 7 days of delivery

58. Regimen for medical abortion upto 7 weeks of gestation as per Government of India guidelines includes:

200 mg of misfepristone on D1 followed by 800 µg of misoprostol on D3

200 mg of misfepristone on D1 followed by 400 µg of misoprostol on D3

400 mg of misfepristone on D1 followed by 800 µg of misoprostol on D3

400 mg of misfepristone on D1 followed by 400 µg of misoprostol on D3

59. The most common sign of rupture of previous LSCS scar during labour is:

Cessation of uterine contractions

Non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern

Tenderness in lower abdomen

Haemorrhagic shock

60. Serum CA-125 levels can be raised in all the following except:

Epithelial ovarian cancer

Endometriosis

Tubercular ascitis

Mature cystic teratoma of ovary

61. A 30 year old healthy woman presents with decreased bleeding during menstruation. The cause could be all of the following except:

Endometriosis

Tuberculosis

Intrauterine adhesions

Breastfeeding

62. For the treatment of a woman with frothy vaginal discharge with fishy smell the following are essential except:

Partner treatment

Use of condom by partner

Metronidazole

Washing of private parts with antiseptics /disinfectants

63. During immediate puerperium,

the number of white cells decreases

the number of white cells increases

the number of eosinophils increases

the number of lymphocytes increases

64. Which one of the following is the best contraceptive for a newly married couple who wants to postpone pregnancy for one year?

Intrauterine contraceptive device

Condom with spermicidal cream

Safe period method

Combined oral contraceptives

65. Which one of the following is not a branch of internal iliac artery?

Superior gluteal

Inferior gluteal

Uterine artery

Ovarian artery

66. A 30 year old multiparous woman comes with an ultrasound report of fibroid uterus measuring 3 x 3 cm. Her only complaint is mild pain during menstruation. The best management in this would be:

Hysterectomy

Myomectomy

Gn-RH analogues

Reassurance

67. The most accurate method to diagnose adenomyosis is:

MRI

PET-CT

Transvaginal sonography

Hysterosalpingography

68. On ultrasonography low-lying placenta is labelled when implantation in the lower uterine segment is such that:

Placental edge does not reach the internal os and remains 2 cm wide perimeter around the os

Placental edge does not reach the internal os and remains 3 cm wide perimeter around the os

Placental edge does not reach the internal os and remains 4 cm wide perimeter around the os

Internal os is covered partially or fully by the placenta

69. Which one of the following cardiovascular parameters decreases during pregnancy?

Arterial blood pressure

Cardiac output

Blood volume

Red cell mass

70. A multipara with 8 gm% haemoglobin at 30 weeks' gestation should be treated by:

Oral iron therapy

Parenteral iron

Whole blood transfusion

Packed cell transfusion

71. The progress of labour can be monitored by observing the following except:

The intensity of uterine contractions by abdominal examination

The descent of foetal head by abdominal examination

The formation of caput by vaginal examination

Gradual increase in cervical dilatation by vaginal examination

72. Prophylactic intravenous methergin should not be given in cases of:

Multipara

Hydramnios

Heart disease complicating pregnancy

Anaemia

73. During labour, which one of the foetal heart patterns is ominous?

Variable deceleration

Tachycardia

Early deceleration

Late deceleration

74. A case of ante-partum haemorrhage is seen at a Primary Health Centre. The treatment will consist of:

Assessment of general condition of the patient, intravenous drip and reference to a hospital

Vaginal examination and reference to a hospital only if diagnosed as placenta praevia

Packing the vagina to stop the bleeding and then reference to a hospital

Internal podalic version and delivery

75. A 20 year old full term primigravida is admitted with full dilatation of the cervix and breech presentation. Breech is not engaged. Foetal heart is normal. The proper procedure for the management would be:

Caesarean section

Breech extraction

Oxytocin drip augmentation

To bring down the leg

76. Which one of the following factors is the most significant as a risk factor for post-partum psychosis?

Primiparity

Undesired pregnancy

Unmarried status

History of post-partum psychosis

77. The main cause of perinatal mortality in 'Frank breech presentation' is:

Trauma to foetal viscera

Foetal abnormalities

Intracranial haemorrhage

Prolapse of umbilical cord

78. A 45 year old woman presents with continuous vaginal bleeding for 15 days. Her bleeding should be controlled by:

Conjugated equine oestrogens

Synthetic progestogens

Testosterone propionate

Curettage followed by progestogens

79. The treatment of primary spasmodic dysmenorrhoea in a young girl as a first measure would be:

Presacral neurectomy

Analgesics and antispasmodics

Oral contraceptives

Dilatation and curettage

80. A 44 year old woman presents with polymenorrhoea for one year. Clinical examination reveals bulky uterus with no other abnormality. D C report is simple hyperplasia. What is the treatment of choice?

Progestogen therapy

GnRH analogues

Combined oral pills

Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

81. Consider the following:

1. Health Education

2. Treatment of hypertension

3. Screening for cervical cancer

4. Changing lifestyles to prevent stress

Which are the examples of primordial prevention?

1 and 4

2 and 3

1 and 3

2 and 4

82. When the prevalence rate is used without any qualification, it is taken to mean as

point prevalence rate

period prevalence rate

annual prevalence rate

mean duration prevalence rate

83. An outbreak of viral hepatitis A was reported from a town between June and August of a particular year. Of total cases, 60% occurred in July. Exposure of the community to infection is from

a common single source for a short period

a common single source for a prolonged period

multiple sources for a short period

multiple sources for a prolonged period

84. Rheumatic Heart Disease can be prevented by:

Screening of school going children

Vaccination against Streptococcus

Treatment of respiratory infections in children

All of these

85. The addition of killed Bordetella pertusis microorganisms to diphtheria toxoid enhances the antibody response of the latter because of

exotoxin of the Bordotella organism

additive action of the two antigens

formation of local granuloma

endotoxin of the Bordotella organism

86. Post exposure prophylaxis against HIV infection should not be delayed beyond:

4 hours

8 hours

24 hours

48 hours

87. With reference to meningococcal meningitis, which one of the following statements is not correct?

Fatality in untreated cases is 60%

Disease spreads mainly by droplet infection

Treatment of cases has no significant effect in epidemiological pattern of disease

Mass chemoprophylaxis causes immediate drop in incidence rate of cases

88. Which of the following vaccines is/are contraindicated in pregnancy?

1. Rubella

2. Hepatitis-B

3. Diphtheria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

89. In a case of paucibacillary leprosy, treatment is considered adequate if the patient has received the six monthly doses of combined therapy within:

6 months

9 months

12 months

15 months

90. Chemoprophylaxis is indicated in the following conditions except:

Cholera

Meningococcal meningitis

Plague

Typhoid

91. Chandler's index is used in the epidemiological studies of

Ascariasis

Hookworm infection

Taenia solium infection

Guineaworm disease

92. Consider the following diseases:

1. Measles

2. Polio

3. Staphylococcal food poisoning

4. Typhoid

Which of the above are the correct examples for incubation period of 10-14 days?

1 and 3

2 and 4

1 and 4

3 and 4

93. Which of the following is the most common malignant tumour in adult males in India?

Lung cancer

Oro-pharyngeal carcinoma

Gastric carcinoma

Colo-rectal carcinoma

94. Eight months old child had history of unusual crying and convulsions following previous vaccination after BCG, DPT OPV first dose), and Hepatitis B. Now parents have brought child for next doses of vaccination. Which vaccine is contraindicated in this situation?

Measles

DPT

Hepatitis B

DT

95. The clinical features of Turner Syndrome in girls include the following except:

Severe mental retardation

Webbing of the neck

Delayed puberty

Short stature

96. Occupational exposure to Benzol may lead to

Lung cancer

Leukaemia

COPD

Neurofibromas

97. Marriage between two heterozygous individuals for the same disorder is prevented by:

Retrospective genetic counselling

Prospective genetic counselling

Legislation

Mass health education

98. The benefits of ESI Act include the following except:

Medical benefit

Rehabilitation allowance

Sickness benefit

Nutritional allowance

99. The following are the group health education approaches except:

Lecture

Demonstration

Role play

Documentary

100. Current WHO recommendations for initiating Antiretroviral treatment in HIV +ve individuals is:

CD4 cells less than 200 cells/mm^3

CD4 cells less than 250 cells/mm^3

CD4 cells less than 300 cells/mm3

CD4 cells less than or equal to 350 cells/mm^3

101. The following are the principles of Primary Health Care except:

Intersectoral coordination

Provision of specialist services at Primary Health Centres

Appropriate technology

Equitable distribution of health care

102. Which one of the following is a quantitative method of health management?

Cost effectiveness analysis

Human Resource Management

Communication management

Supportive supervision and leadership

103. Acute Respiratory Infections are important causes of under-five mortality in India. In remote areas, children develop frequent episodes of ARI. What measures will you take for prevention and control of ARI amongst under-five children in that area?

Case management and Health education to mothers

Vaccination

Controlling malnutrition, Promoting breast feeding and vitamin A supplementation

All of these

104. The following are objectives of Indian Public Health Standards for Primary Health Centres except:

Provision of comprehensive primary health care

Achievement of an acceptable quality of health care

Provision of accident and emergency care

Making services more responsive to the needs of the community

105. A pregnant woman in third trimester having fever was diagnosed as a case of Falciparum malaria. Under the National Health Programme, which drug is recommended?

ACT only

ACT accompanied by single dose of Primaquine on day 2

Only Quinine

Chloroquine

106. Which of the following genetic disorders leads to mental retardation?

Haemophilia

Phenylketonuria

Cystic fibrosis

Sickle cell anaemia

107. Biomedical waste from a yellow plastic bag is disposed by:

Autoclaving

Microwaving

Incineration

Chemical treatment

108. Which of the following is not a feature of heat stress?

Hyperpyrexia

Syncope

Cramps

Numbness

109. The denominator for calculating proportional mortality rate from a specific disease is:

Mid-year population during that year

Population at risk in that particular area

Total deaths in that year

Attributable deaths of a particular disease

110. Which one of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

Mean

Range

Mean deviation

Standard deviation

111. Analytical studies include the following methods of studies except:

Case control studies

Randomised controlled trials

Cohort studies

Cross sectional studies

112. Which of the following statements is false?

Gestational diabetes can lead to Type-II diabetes after delivery.

Gestational diabetes is always transient and cured after delivery.

Gestational diabetes is a risk factor for diabetes in children born to mothers with GDM.

Screening for gestational diabetes should be included in antenatal care.

113. Cu-T-380 A IUCD should be replaced in:

4 years

6 years

8 years

10 years

114. Consider the following:

1. Coconut oil

2. Groundnut oil

3. Mustard oil

Which of the above is/are dietary sources of linoleic acid?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3

3 only

2 and 3 only

115. A 20 year old male is diagnosed as a case of dengue fever at a Primary Health Centre. What are the suitable measures to be taken for the prevention and control of dengue in that area?

Case management for DF and DHF and vaccination

Case management for DF and DHF, isolation and individual protection from mosquitoes

Case management for DF and DHF, isolation and individual protection from mosquitoes and vaccination

Case management for DF and DHF, isolation and individual protection from mosquitoes and environmental measures for elimination of breeding places

116. WHO defines a multi-drug resistant Tuberculosis strain as one that is:

At least resistant to INH

At least resistant to Rifampicin

Resistant to INH and Rifampicin with or without resistant to other anti TB drugs

Resistant to Streptomycin only

117. Which of the following are the characteristic features of screening tests?

1. Done on healthy people

2. Done on unhealthy people

3. More accurate

4. Less accurate

5. Less expensive

6. More expensive

7. Not a basis for treatment

8. Used as a base for treatment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5 and 8

5 and 8

6 and 7

5 and 7

118. Which National Programe came into existence during 11th Five Year Plan?

National Cancer control programme

National Cardiovascular diseases Stroke control programme

National Diabetes and Cancer control programme

National Programme for prevention and control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular diseases and Stroke

119. Which states are qualified as high prevalence states in the context of HIV/AIDS?

When prevalence in high risk groups is more than and less than in antenatal women

When prevalence in high risk groups is more than and or more in antenatal women

When prevalence in high risk groups is less than and more than in antenatal women

None of these

120. Consider the following diseases:

1. Yellow fever

2. Q fever

3. Chikungunya fever

4. Relapsing fever

5. Japanese encephalitis

6. Sleeping sickness

Which of the above are transmitted by mosquitoes?

and 6

3 and 5

5 and 6

3 and 5