1. Which of the following is NOT correct?

Hepatitis A does not lead to massive hepatic necrosis

Hepatitis B vaccination is part of universal childhood vaccination

Hepatitis C is commonest cause of transfusion transmitted hepatitis

Hepatitis E carries very high mortality in pregnant women

2. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy?

Hydralazine

Amlodipine

Labetalol

Ramipril

3. Which of the following least predisposes to infective endocarditis?

Ventricular septal defect

Atrial septal defect

Patent ductus arteriosus

Tetralogy of Fallot

4. A 60 year old male with Marfan's syndrome comes to emergency department with severe generalised tearing pain localised to chest anteriorly and inter scapular region, sweating and weakness. On examination, his BP is 200/140 mm Hg. X ray chest shows widening of superior mediastinum. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Acute pulmonary embolism

Dissection of aorta

Acute myocardial infraction

Acute pericarditis

5. A patient who is allergic to penicillin can be prescribed which of the following drugs for prophylaxis of acute rheumatic fever?

Ciprofloxacin

Erythromycin

Cotrimoxazole

Tetracycline

6. QT interval is prolonged in:

Hypocalcaemia

Hyperkalaemia

Hypermagnesaemia

Digoxin therapy

7. Differential cyanosis is seen in:

Atrial septal defect with pulmonary arterial hypertension

Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary arterial hypertension

Patent ductus arteriosuswith pulmonary arterial hypertension

Fallot tetralogy

8. Wilson's disease is characterised by all EXCEPT:

Increased urinary copper

Increased hepatic copper

Deposition of copper in Descemet's membrane

Increased serum ceruloplasmin

9. Following drugs are used for H.Pylori eradication EXCEPT:

Amoxycillin

Bismuth subsalicylate

Tetracycline

Cephalexin

10. A 45 year old female comes to you with dysphagia. She is found to have anaemia and koilonychia. Most likely diagnosis is:

Plummer Vinson syndrome

Boerhaave syndrome

Carcinoma oesophagus

Reflux oesophagitis

11. Chest tube insertion should be considered in a patient with parapneumonic effusion include the following EXCEPT:

Loculated pleural effusion

Positive Gram stain/culture of pleural fluid

Pleural effusion is less than 10 mm thickness on decubitus

Pleural fluid pH less than 7.20

12. A patient underwent hip replacement surgery. On fourth post-operative day, he had dyspnoea, pleuritic pain and haemoptysis. Most likely diagnosis is:

Pulmonary embolism

Pneumonia

Pulmonary oedema

Pericarditis

13. A 55 year old male with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease was rushed to emergency department with increasing shortness of breath, fever and a productive cough with yellow green sputum. He has difficulty in communicating because of his inability to complete a sentence. Measurement of arterial blood gas shows pH 7.3, PaCO2 68 mmHg, HCO3 28 mmol/L, and PaO2 60 mmHg. How would you interpret this?

Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated

Respiratory alkalosis, uncompensated

Respiratory acidosis, partially compensated

Respiratory alkalosis, partially compensated

14. A 40 years old woman presents with hematuria, ecchymoses and menorrhagia of six months duration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Haemophilia A

Haemophilia B

Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura

Henoch Schonlein purpura

15. Which of the following heavy metal poisoning strictly affects motor nerve

Cadmium

Mercury

Lead

Thallium

16. A patient develops skin necrosis 3 days after being started on warfarin for deep vein thrombosis. What is the most likely cause?

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

Protein C deficiency

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Thrombotic thrombocytopaenic purpura

17. A 15 year old boy is brought to emergency with two days history of headache, vomiting and altered sensorium. His BP is 70 mmHg systolic and he has ecchymoses on his skin. Most likely organism causing his condition is:

Haemophilus influenzae

Listeria monocytogenes

Neisseria meningitidis

Streptococcus pneumoniae

18. A child presents with episode of hematuria soon after respiratory tract infection. What is the most likely diagnosis?

IgA nephropathy

Wegener granulomatosis

Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

Churg Strauss syndrome

19. In microalbuminuria, 24 hours urinary albumin is:

8-10 mg

30-300 mg

300-3000 mg

3000 mg

20. Following are complications of acute renal failure EXCEPT:

Intravascular volume overload

Hyponatraemia

Hyperkalaemia

Metabolic alkalosis

21. Deficiency of which vitamin causes subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord?

Vitamin B1

Vitamin B6

Vitamin B2

Vitamin B12

22. Obstructive lung function tests are seen in which of the following conditions?

Obesity

Kyphoscoliosis

Pleural effusion

Asthma

23. In which of the following conditions is there an increase in lung diffusion capacity?

Emphysema

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Alveolar haemorrhage

Pulmonary oedema

24. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Omalizumab is an antileukotriene

Omalizumab is a blocking antibody that neutralises circulating IgE

Omalizumab is a newer long acting anticholinergic agent

Omalizumab is once a day long acting beta-2 agonistic

25. Widespread concave ST segment elevation and PR depression in most leads except aVR lead favours the diagnosis of:

Acute myocardial infarction

Pericarditis

Digoxin toxicity

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

26. A known case of lepromatous leprosy was initiated on treatment. She developed painful erythmatous papules with fever and lymphadenopathy. What is the likely reactional state?

Type 1 lepra reaction

Type 2 lepra reaction

Lucio's phenomenon

Lupus pernio

27. Which of the following is not true regarding congestive cardiac failure in the elderly?

Incidence rises with age

Common causes include coronary artery disease and hypertension

Diastolic dysfunction is often present

Loop diuretics are usually well tolerated

28. Multidrug resistant tuberculosis is defined as:

At least resistance to three or more antitubercular drugs

At least resistance to Isoniazid, Streptomycin and Ethambutol

At least resistance to Isoniazid and Rifampicin

At least resistance to Streptomycin and Rifampicin

29. Aortic stenosis is associated with:

Pulsus paradoxus

Pulsus parvus et tardus

Pulsus alternates bisferens

Pulsus bigeminus

30. Which of the following is associated with hypercoagulable state?

1. Protein C deficiency

2. Antiphospholipid syndrome

3. Homocysteinemia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

31. A 20 year old male walked into outpatient department with high grade fever, cough and chest pain for one day. Chest X-ray showed consolidation of left upper zone. His respiratory rate is 22/minute, pulse rate 96/minute, BP systolic 120 mmHg and blood urea 18 mg/dl. What is his CURB score?

0

1

2

3

32. Which of the following conditions is an autosomal dominant disorder?

G-6PD deficiency

Sickel cell disease

Fanconi anaemia

Marfan syndrome

33. Consider the following statements regarding the treatment of bronchial asthma:

1. Tablets of ß2 adrenoceptor agonist are better than aerosol therapy

2. Inhaled corticosteroids are contraindicated in acute severe asthma

3. Oral steroids may be necessary for severe acute asthma

4. Anticholinergic bronchodilators are muscarinic antagonists

5. Salmeterol and formoterol are highly selective and potent long acting ß2 adrenoceptor agonists

Which of the statements given above are true?

4 and 5 only

4 and 5 only

2 and 5 only

2 and 3 only

34. Acute massive pulmonary embolism is manifested by the following EXCEPT:

Reduced PaO2 and reduced PaCO2

Pulmonary opacities in chest X ray

S1QmTm with RBBB in ECG

Reduced cardiac output and acute right heart failure

35. The side effects of isoniazid include the following EXCEPT:

Hepatitis

Rash

Peripheral neuropathy

Hyperuricaemia

36. A patient of COPD develops a large pneumothorax during a violent bout of coughing. The most appropriate management would be:

1. Simple aspiration

2. Tube thoracostomy

3. Pleurodesis

Which of the above is/are correct?

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 3

2 only

37. Carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) in arterial blood at sea level is:

Less than 25 mm of Hg

25-35 mm of Hg

35-45 mm of Hg

45-55 mm of Hg

38. The volume of fresh air entering the alveoli each minute is called as:

Dead space

Diffusing capacity

Alveolar ventilation

Ventilation perfusion

39. Exacerbations of bronchial asthma that occur with little or no warning are called:

Brittle asthma

Acute severe asthma

Poorly controlled asthma

Nocturnal asthma

40. Which of the following constituents of antacid can cause constipation?

Magnesium hydroxide

Aluminium hydroxide

Calcium carbonate

Sodium bicarbonate

41. "TIPS" procedure in the treatment of cirrhosis liver stands for:

Transvenous intrahepatic portal shunt

Transvenous intraabdominal portal shunt

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

Transjugular intrahepatic peritoneal shunt

42. The drug of choice in the treatment of oesophageal candidiasis is:

Fluconazole

Nystatin oral suspension

IV amphotericin

Griseofulvin

43. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

Caused by haloperidol

Characterized by muscle rigidity and hyperthermia

There is stimulation of central dopamine receptors in hypothalamus

Treated by IV dantrolene

44. Type IV renal tubular acidosis may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

Low molecular weight heparin

NSAIDS

Penicillin

Trimethoprim

45. Treatment options available for management of renal artery stenosis is/are:

Medical treatment for hypertension by antihypertensive drugs

Angioplasty, with or without stenting

Renal artery bypass surgery

All of these

46. A reversible cause of dementia is:

Alzheimer disease

Huntington chorea

Parkinson disease

Subdural haematoma

47. In Wallenberg syndrome, where is the site of lesion?

Lateral medulla

Medial medulla

Pontomedullary junction

Dorsal midbrain

48. The following are features of polycythaemia vera EXCEPT:

Elevated red cell mass

Normal arterial oxygen saturation

Splenomegaly

Elevated plasma erythropoietin levels

49. Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

Non-specific interstitial pneumonia

Acute interstitial pneumonia

Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia

Desquamative interstitial pneumonia

50. Which of the following is NOT true of Wilson disease?

There is hepatolenticular degeneration

Autosomal recessive transmission

Serum ceruloplasmin is increased

Urinary copper is increased

51. A 55 year old patient on treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis with Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol complain of pain in large and small joints. Which one of the following investigations will you order?

Serum creatinine

Serum amylase

SGOT/SGPT

Serum uric acid

52. The following diseases can cause bullous lesions in the skin EXCEPT:

Pemphigus

Impetigo

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

Pityriasis rosea

53. Which of the following disorder is autosomal recessive?

Cystic fibrosis

Nail-patella syndrome

Myotonic dystrophy

Huntington disease

54. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment for overdose aspirin ingestion?

Acetazolamide

Sodium bicarbonate

Allopurinol

N-acetyl-cysteine

55. Killer T cells which are responsible for defence against intracellular pathogen are expressed by which of the following CD phenotypes?

CD 2

CD 5

CD 8

CD 10

56. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy is approved in the following conditions EXCEPT:

Kawasaki disease

Severe rheumatoid arthritis

Guillain Barre syndrome

Dermatomyositis

57. Which of the following does NOT cause small vessel vasculitis?

Churg Strauss Syndrome

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

Kawasaki disease

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

58. Most common cells in peripheral blood smear of chronic myeloid leukemia are:

Myeloblasts

Promyelocytes

Metamyelocytes

Neutrophils

59. Consider the following statements about infective endocarditis:

1. Modified Duke criteria are used for clinical diagnosis

2. Echocardiographic findings form one of the major Duke criteria

3. Presence of one major and two minor criteria is considered as diagnostic of endocarditis

4. Presence of glomerulonephritis is a minor Duke criterion

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

3 and 4 only

3 and 4

60. A 16 year old had an acute episode of dyspnoea, wheezing and coughing during early morning hours. The episode resolved spontaneously. What is the likely diagnosis?

Pulmonary oedema

Asthma

Panic attack

Pneumonia

61. An elderly patient had cerebrovascular accident which was diagnosed as ischaemic in nature. Which of the following is a contraindication for thrombolysis?

1. Onset of symptoms to time of drug administration is 4.5 hours

2. Gastrointestinal bleeding in preceding 21 days

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

62. Consider the following insulin preparations:

1. Aspart

2. Glulisine

3. Detemir

4. Regular

Which of the above are considered short acting insulin?

1 and 2 only

3 and 4 only

2 and 4 only

3 and 4

63. A middle aged male known smoker presented with recurrent sinusitis, haemoptysis, haematuria, arthralgia and palpable purpura. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Wegener granulomatosis

Goodpasture syndrome

Polyarteritis nodosa

Systemic lupus erythematosus

64. A patient presents with diarrhoea, steatorrhea and weight loss.

Which of the following diseases is LEAST possible?

Whipple disease

Tropical sprue

Celiac disease

Menetrier disease

65. Consider the following statements regarding post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)

1. Immunosupressive therapy is effective

2. PSGN develops one to three weeks after streptococcal pharyngitis

3. PSGN develops two to six weeks after impetigo

4. The classic presentation is acute nephritis

Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

1 and 4 only

3 and 4

66. A patient with long term implantable cardioverter defibrillator device developed neck and facial swelling, hoarseness of voice, nasal congestion, dysphagia and haemoptysis. The facial swelling increased on supine position. This patient most likely developed:

(a)Cardiac tamponade

(b)Intracardiac thrombosis

(c)Superior vena cava obstruction

(d)Pulmonary thromboembolism

67. A patient of AIDS developed ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and global confusion. He is likely to have the deficiency of:

Biotin

Niacin

Pyridoxine

Thiamine

68. An elderly male presents with persistent productive cough with large volume purulent sputum production. He has had several episodes in the past. He also had digital clubbing. He is a case of:

Empyema

Bronchiectasis

Bronchopneumonia

Necrotising pneumonia

69. A chemical factory worker has acute onset dyspnoea with fever, chills, and malaise, following a few hours of exposure to a new chemical. These symptoms resolve in four to five days after removal from exposure. He is likely to have:

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

Atypical pneumonia

Cryptogenic organising pneumonia

Non-specific interstitial pneumonia

70. A 25 year old man presents with nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea with crampy abdominal pain. He gives history of consumption of rice preparation in his last meal. What is the likely organism causing the above complaints?

Clostridium perfringens

Bacillus cereus

Staphylococcus aureus

Campylobacter jejuni

71. A five year old child was diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome, 18 months back. He was treated and successfully went into remission at that time. Following, the initial episode, the child has had 3 relapses, each of which was successfully treated with oral prednisolone until remission, followed by 40mg/m^2 single dose, alternate days for four weeks. What is the diagnosis?

Nephrotic syndrome, infrequent relapses

Nephrotic syndrome, frequent relapses

Nephrotic syndrome, steroid dependent

Nephrotic syndrome, steroid resistant

72. A 7 year old girl presents to you with non-specific abdominal pain, mild abdominal distension, and not growing well. The child weighs 14 kg and height is 95 cm. Systemic examination is normal. The haemoglobin was 7.5 g/dL (microcytic hypochromic RBCs) and has not responded to iron therapy. Which of the following will be the first investigation you will like to do for diagnosing the condition?

Bone marrow aspiration

Tissue transglutaminase antibodies

Lower GI contrast examination

Colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy

73. A seven year old boy weighing 20 kg presented with bleeding from upper GI tract (haemetemasis) for last 18 hours. On examination, RR-16/m and BP-100/70 mmHg; and spleen is palpable 5 cm below costal margin. There is no other abnormality. Liver function tests are normal. What is the next best step in management?

Fluid resuscitation with crystalloids

Intravenous vasopressin

Intravenous propranolol

Transdermal nitroglycerine

74. A seven year old girl presents in emergency room with hypertension, lethargy, headache, seizures, and visual disturbances. Fundus examination reveals haemorrhages and exudates. Which of the following treatment regimen will be the most appropriate for this child?

Sublingual nifedipine

Intravenous labetalol infusion

Intravenous minoxidil

Furosemide

75. On routine newborn screening at day 3 of life, the baby was found to have TSH level 40mU/L. What should be the next step?

Repeat thyroid profile within one week

Start child on thyroxine immediately

Repeat thyroid profile after four weeks

Repeat thyroid profile/ start thyroxine, if the child has clinical features of congenital hypothyroidism, otherwise wait and watch

76. A five year old girl is brought to you with history of fever for seven days associated with rash, anorexia, myalgia and petechial haemorrhages. Which of the following investigations will be most appropriate for making a diagnosis of dengue fever?

Detection of NS1 antigen

Platelet count

IgG capture ELISA

Detection of IgM antibodies for dengue

77. An eight year old boy was diagnosed to have P.vivax malaria and was treated with appropriate dosages of chloroquine. The fever subsided but recurred after 3 weeks. Peripheral smear was again positive for P.vivax. This child should now be treated as a case with

Relapse

Recrudescence

Either relapse/recrudescence

Fresh infection

78. A two day old neonate is brought with cyanosis, single second heart sound, and pansystolic murmur on the left sternal border. ECG reveals left axis deviation, right atrial overload and left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Tetrology of Fallot

Tricuspid atresia

Transposition of great arteries

Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection

79. A three year old girl is brought with complaint of not being able to ever stand or walk. She achieved head control at one year of age. Examination reveals generalised hypotonia, brisk knee jerk, and ankle clonus. What is the likely diagnosis?

Cerebral palsy

Spinal muscular atrophy

Congenital hypothyroidism

Congenital myotonic dystrophy

80. A child presents with sensations of itching, burning and a probable foreign body beneath the eyelids. Examination reveals photophobia, large oval follicles within the conjunctiva and preauricular adenopathy. The most likely diagnosis is:

Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

Vernal conjunctivitis

Trachomatous conjunctivitis

Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

81. A seven year old boy presents with acute onset of mild intermittent pain in the right groin and a limp. Abduction and internal rotation of the hip were restricted on the affected side. There was no fever. Radiographs of the pelvis were normal. The most likely diagnosis is

Transient monoarticular synovitis

Legg Calve Perthes disease

Slipped capital femoral epiphyses

Osteochondritis dissecans

82. A child is brought with history of ingestion of an unknown substance. On examination child has excess salivation, lacrimation, miosis, gastrointestinal cramps and emesis. What was the most likely substance ingested?

Carbamates

Phenothiazines

Opioids

Tricyclic antidepressants

83. A term newborn presents with respiratory failure which is refractory to mechanical ventilation, surfactant replacement therapy, glucocorticoid administration and extra corporeal membrane oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis is:

Surfactant Protein B deficiency

Primary ciliary dyskinesia

Persistent tachypnea of infancy

Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis

84. A child after snake bite develops petechiae and ecchymosis on the skin. In addition, child develops bleeding from venipuncture site and oliguria. The most likely snake species is:

Pit viper

Cobra

Mamba

Python

85. A six year old boy presents with short neck, low hairline and restriction of neck movements. The child also has Sprengel anomaly, scoliosis, and fused cervical vertebrae. The most likely diagnosis is:

Atlantoaxial instability

Klippel Feil syndrome

Noonan syndrome

Sandifer syndrome

86. A 10 year old boy presents with recurrent bouts of nasal congestion, itching, sneezing, clear rhinorrhoea and conjunctival irritation. On examination he has conjunctival hyperaemia, allergic gape and a transverse nasal crease. Which of the following drugs is preferred for management of this child?

Diphenhydramine

Fluticasone

Cetirizine

Ipratropium bromide

87. A two year old child presents with partial albinism and susceptibility to infection. Peripheral smear examination reveals giant peroxidise positive lysosomal granules in granulocytes. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?

Angelman Syndrome

Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome

Waardenburg Syndrome

Chediak Higashi syndrome

88. A one year old child on exclusive milk feeds presents with constipation. On examination there is no fecal impaction. What is the next step in management?

Oral lactulose

Increasing intake of vegetables and cereals

Colonic enemas using polyethylene glycol

Milk of Magnesia

89. A six year old boy presents with generalized seizure disorder and hypo pigmented skin lesions. On examination he has tiny red nodules over the nose and cheeks. The most likely diagnosis is:

Tuberous sclerosis

Sturge Weber disease

PHACE Syndrome

Neurofibromatosis

90. Which of the following can cause bilateral sensorineural hearing loss?

Histiocytosis

Cholesteatoma

Loop diuretics

Glomus tumors

91. The joint sitting of Parliament for transacting a legislative business is presided over by:

The President of India

The Vice President of India

The Prime Minister of India

The Speaker of Lok Sabha

92. Recently, a massive coral bleaching has been reported in the 'Great Barrier Reef'. It is located near the coast of:

Queensland

Maldives

Hawaii

Andaman

93. Who is the first Law Officer of the Government of India?

Chief Justice of India

Attorney General of India

Law Secretary

Union Law Minister

94. In the context of Genetic Engineering, scientists have developed a new computational method called 'Target Finder' which can predict where non- coding DNA interacts with genes. Which of the following is a likely advantage of this?

Artificial induction of beneficial mutations so as to develop high-yielding varieties

Finding new drug targets to treat some genetic diseases

Rapid cloning of domesticated animals

All of these

95. Consider the following: 1. Gold 2. Platinum 3. Silver Which of the above is/are found in e-waste?

1 and 2 only

3 only

2 and 3

None

96. "Boil a small quantity of khoya with some water, cool and add a few drops of iodine solution and see the formation of blue colour". This is the test to find the presence of which of the following?

Fructose

Gram flour

Starch

Urea

97. Which of the following CANNOT be used as a biofertilizer in rice cultivation?

Azolla

Azospirillum

Blue green algae

Rhizobium

98. Groundwater in many areas in West Bengal has been contaminated leading to a large number of cases of poisoning. What is the substance responsible for such cases?

Arsenic

Cyanide

Polonium

Lead

99. For acquiring ethanol for blending with petrol, the oil companies in India depend on:

Cosmetic industry

Food processing plants

Fertilizer factories

Sugar mills

100. Consider the following statements: Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services Act, 2016 aims to 1. strengthen the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana 2. provide funds for the relief of farmers Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

101. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna aims to promote:

Financial inclusion

Collateral security in housing for rural and urban poor

Cashless financial transactions

Financial literacy

102. The objective of the ''Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana" is to promote:

Conservation of groundwater

Cultivation of wild varieties of cereal crops

Dryland farming

Organic farming

103. Which among the following is a very water intensive crop?

Grapes

Finger millet

Sugarcane

Wheat

104. Which of the following does nanoscience have applications?

1. Drug delivery

2. Electronics

3. Food processing

4. Water purification

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

3 and 4

105. Which of the following is/are the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha as compared to Rajya Sabha?

1. Introducing money bills

2. Passing a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

106. Who among the following do not participate in the election of the President of India?

Elected members of Rajya Sabha

Elected members of Vidhan Sabhas

Elected members of Lok Sabha

Elected members of Vidhan Parishads

107. There is a popular opposition to the use of ''plastic microbeads". In the manufacture of which of the following are they used?

Cosmetics

Electronics

Wooden furniture

Synthetic textiles

108. Consider the following statements:

1. In certain parts of India, the cultivation of opium is legally allowed.

2. Opium gum is mixed with cluster bean gum in fracking technology that is used in the shale gas extraction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

109. There is a worldwide protest against the use of hydrofluorocarbons. In which of the following household things are they used?

Air-conditioning machines

Cooking gas cylinders

Gas geysers

Microwave ovens

110. What is/are the objectives of Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety?

1. Establishing or promoting in-situ conservation facilities for rare and endangered organisms

2. Maintaining the worldwide network of gene banks for all the known flora and fauna

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

111. Consider the following animals:

1. Sloth bear

2. Jaguar

3. Hoolock gibbon

Which of the above is/are found in India in their natural habitat?

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

112. Consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitude as compared to higher latitudes.

2. Along the mountain gradient, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to higher altitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

113. Aflatoxins are formed by:

Aspergillus flavus

Candida albicans

Cryptococcus neoformans

Coccidioides schenckii

114. Consider the following districts:

1. Munnar

2. Mandi

3. Krishna

Which of the above districts is/are well known for tea plantations?

3 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 only

115. 'Fly ash' is emitted from:

Brick kilns

Motor vehicles

Sewage treatment plants

Thermal power plants

116. Calcium carbide is used

as rodent killer

as insecticide

for fruit ripening

for lowering soil salinity

117. With reference to food additives, consider the following statements:

1. Benzoic acid and sorbic acid function as antimicrobial agents.

2. Citric acid is used to suppress browning of fruits and vegetables.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

118. With reference to the use of microorganisms in food processing, consider the following statements:

1. Lactic acid bacteria can ferment any monosaccharide or polysaccharide into lactic acid.

2. Baker's yeast is manufactured from single cell isolates of Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

119. Which of the following chemicals is/are used in food preservation?

1. Calcium propionate

2. Potassium metabisulphite

3. Lecithin

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

3 only

2 and 3

None of them is used in food preservation

120. What is 'M-cessation', sometimes seen in news?

An initiative to help tobacco users to quit tobacco

A mobile phone service that delivers audio messages on pregnancy, child birth and child care

An app to learn all the methods of cashless financial transactions

A government initiative to eradicate the availability of narcotics to general public