1. The following statements in relation to right ventricular myocardial infarction are correct except:

It may occur along with inferior wall myocardial infarction

The ECG shows segment elevation in right precordial leads

Prognosis in right ventricular infarction is worse than the left ventricular myocardial infarction

The treatment includes intravenous diltiazem

2. Atrial myxoma is associated with the following except:

Fever

Weight loss

Systolic murmur at apex

Subungual splinter haemorrhage

3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Auscultatory findings) List II (Cardiac condition)

A. Wide fixed split in the second heart sound 1. Pulmonary hypertension hypertension

B. Continuous machinery murmur 2. Atrial septal defect

C. Muffled heart sounds 3. Patent ductus arteriousus

D. Wide variable split in the second heart sound 4. Pericardial effusion

Code: A B C D

2 4 3 1

2 3 4 1

1 4 3 2

1 3 4 2

4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Emergency drugs) List II (Clinical condition)

A. Amiodarone 1. A-V Block, mobitz type II

B. Adenosine 2. Atrial fibrillation

C. Digoxin 3. Ventricular tachycardia

D. Atropine 4. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia Code: A B C D

1 2 4 3

1 4 2 3

3 2 4 1

3 4 2 1

5. Klebsiella pneumonia has the following characteristics except:

Upper lobes are frequently involved

Pneumatocoele may occur commonly

Empyema is much more common

Lung abscess formation is very uncommon

6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Disease) List-II (Antigen leading to hypersensitivity pneumonitis)

A. Bagassosis 1. Oak, Cedar, Pine dust

B. Byssinosis 2. Moldy hay

C. Farmer's lung 3. Cotton

D. Wood worker's lung 4. Sugarcane dust

Code: A B C D

4 3 2 1

4 2 3 1

1 3 2 4

1 2 3 4

7. Which one of the following is not likely to be associated with pulmonary fibrosis?

Coal miners' lung

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Asbestosis

Ankylosing spondylitis

8. Which of the following is/are a feature/features of severity in immediate assessment of acute severe asthma?

1. Pulse rate >110 per min

2. Pulsus paradoxus

3. Unable to speak in sentences Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

9. Cavitating pulmonary lesions can be seen in the following except:

Sarcoidosis

Tuberculosis

Carcinoma of lung

Histoplasmosis

10. A 35 year old 40 kg male patient was diagnosed to be a case of pulmonary tuberculosis. The appropriate conventional regimen of antitubercular drugs would be:

Rifampicin 450 mg Isoniazid 300 mg Pyrazinamide 1500 mg

Rifampicin 600 mg Isoniazid 300 mg Pyrazinamide 1000 mg

Rifampicin 450 mg Isoniazid 200 mg Pyrazinamide 1000 mg

Rifampicin 450 mg Isoniazid 200 mg Pyrazinamide 1500 mg

11. Which of the auscultatory signs is absent in mitral stenosis in the presence of atrial fibrillation?

Mid diastolic murmur

Pre -systolic accentuation

Variable first heart sound

P2 accentuation

12. Which one of the following is not recommended in immediate treatment of acute severe asthma?

Oxygen supplementation

High doses of inhaled B2 -adrenoreceptor agonists

Systemic corticosteroids

Intravenous aminophylline

13. Which one of the following is not a feature of type 2 respiratory failure

pCO2 38 mmHg, and pO2 50 mmHg

pCO2 68 mmHg, and pO2 50 mmHg

Papilloedema

Asterixis

14. Which of the following drugs is not given in dilated cardiomyopathy?

Beta blocker

Calcium channel blocker

Spiranolactone

ACE inhibitors

15. Which of the following features are related to Zollinger Ellison syndrome?

1. Aggressive and refractory peptic ulceration

2. Unregulated gastrin release

3. Beta islet cell tumour of pancreas

4. Diarrhoea present in upto 50% cases Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

3 and 4

2 and 3

2 and 4

16. In which of the following diseases, primary skin lesions are not seen?

Leptospirosis

SLE

Hepatitis-B

Infectious mononucleosis

17. Which of the following is not a common feature of hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

Raised C-Reaction Protein

Chest X-ray may be normal

Lung biopsy may be diagnostic

Eosinophilia

18. Consider the following statements with regard to duodenal ulcers:

1. They occur most often in the second part of duodenum.

2. Infection with H. pylori and NSAID-induced injury account for the majority of duodenal ulcers.

3. Malignant duodenal ulcers are extremely rare.

4. Eradication of H. pylori has greatly reduced the recurrence rates in duodenal ulcers. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

2 and 4 only

and 4

19. Carcinoid tumours commonly arise from:

G.cells in pancreas

Argentaffin cells of small intestine

Pancreatic endocrine tumour

Colon polyps

20. Which of the following viral markers signifies the ongoing viral replication in the case of Hepatitis-B infection?

Anti-HBs

Anti-HBc

HBe Ag

HBs Ag

21. The following may result in polyuria except:

Chronic renal failure

Hypoadrenalism

Hypercalcaemia

Lithium carbonate therapy

22. Regarding adult polycystic kidney disease, which one of the following statements is not correct?

Inherited as autosomal dominant with 100% penetrance

Often associated with hepatic cysts

Associated with increased incidence of subarachnoid haemorrhage

Renal cell carcinoma is a frequent association

23. Which of the following is not a feature of chronic renal failure?

Hyperparathyroidism

Osteomalacia

Hyperthyroidism

Decreased 25(OH)2 vitamin D3 level

24. A patient with past history of recurrent headache, presents with irregular, dazzling, enlarging visual phenomena that obstructs vision in the affected region and remains for several minutes. The symptoms are indicative of:

Acute angle closure glaucoma

Retinal detachment

Migraine

Intumescent cataract

25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Disease) List-II (Cause)

A. Macrocytic anaemia 1. Iron deficiency

B. Microcytic anaemia 2. Hypothyroidism

C Hemolytic anaemia 3. Vitamin B12 deficiency

D. Megaloblastic anaemia 4. Alpha methyldopa

Code: A B C D

3 1 4 2

3 2 1 4

2 1 4 3

1 4 3 2

26. Haemolysis in G6PD (glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase) enzyme deficiency may occur with all of the following drugs except:

Primaquine

Phenacetin

Probenecid

Penicillin

27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Blood picture) List-II (Type of Anaemia)

A. Microcytic, hypochromic red cells 1. Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia

B. Macrocytic, hypochromic red cells 2. Thalassemia major

C Large number of early, intermediate and late erythroblasts 3. Aplastic anaemia

D. Low reticulocyte count 4. Iron-deficiency anaemia

Code: A B C D

1 4 2 3

2 3 4 1

4 1 2 3

3 1 2 4

28. Which of the following conditions does not cause pancytopenia?

Hypersplenism

Aplastic anaemia

Cancer infiltrating the bone-marrow

Haemolysis from G6PD enzyme deficiency

29. Which of the following drugs does not cause oedema?

Growth hormone

Beta blocker

Anabolic steroids

Calcium-channel blockers

30. A patient of hypoglycemia fails to regain consciousness after blood glucose is restored to normal. The complication that carries high mortality and morbidity is:

Cerebral oedema

Lacunar infarct

Post ictal state

Cerebral haemorrhage

31. An adult patient presents with systemic hypertension, renal calculus disease and peptic ulcer disease. Which one of the following is most likely occurrence in this case?

Milk alkali syndrome

Hypervitaminosis D

Primary hyperparathyroidism

Tubulo interstitial renal disease

32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List-I (types of hyperlipidemia) List-II (feature)

A. Hyperchylomicronaemia 1. Palmar plantar xanthoma

B. Hyperbetalipoproteinaemia 2. Subcutaneous extensive tendon xanthoma

C Type III hyperlipoproteinaemia 3. Eruptive xanthoma over buttocks

D. Familial LPL deficiency 4. Triglyceride level above 1000 mg

Code: A B C D

3 1 2 4

3 2 1 4

4 1 2 3

4 2 1 3

33. Which of the following is least suggestive of poliovirus infection?

Low grade fever and malaise with complete resolution in 2 to 3 days

Biphasic illness with several days of fever, then meningeal symptoms and asymmetric flaccid paralysis 5 to 10 days later

Descending motor paralysis with preservation of tendon reflexes and absent sensation

Failure to isolate a virus from the CSF in the presence of marked meningismus

34. The following conditions can cause interstitial nephritis except:

Infections

Hepatorenal syndrome

Lymphoma

Sarcoidosis

35. Which of the following are characteristics features of tuberculoid leprosy?

1. Type 2 lepra reaction

2. A few lesions with well demarcated edges

3. Early and marked nerve damage

4. Tendency to heal spontaneously Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 and 3

3 and 4

1 and 4

2 and 3 only

36. Which of the following immunological reactions occurs in Goodpasture syndrome

Type I atopy

Type II cytotoxic

Type III immune complex

Type IV cell mediation

37. Regarding erythema nodosum leprosum, which one of the following is not correct?

It is usually during initiation of treatment

Tender subcutaneous nodules observed

Lymphadenopathy is common

Ophthalmic involvement can occur

38. The most common microorganism known to cause tropical pyomyositis is

Streptococcus viridans

Staphylococcus albus

Klebseilla pneumonia

staphylococcus aureus

39. Following are the common features of Cushing's syndrome except:

Truncal obesity

Osteoporosis

Distal myopathy

Glucose intolerance

40. A farmer presents with history of fever and chills, severe bodyache, headache, conjuctival suffusion and jaundice. He has severe muscle tenderness, leukocytosis and mild uraemia. The most likely diagnosis would be:

Leptospirosis

Typhoid fever

Typhus

Viral hepatitis

41. Consider the following statements regarding falciparum malaria: 1. The mortality rises steeply when the proportion of infected erythrocytes increases above 3 percent. 2. The patient may develop hypoglycemia even when not treated with quinine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

42. "Loeffler's syndrome" is characterized by:

Transient, migratory pulmonary infiltrations

Fibrosis in the pulmonary apices

Fibrosis in the base of one or both lungs

Miliary mottling

43. Keyboard operators and typists are especially susceptible to injury of the

Axillary nerve

Median nerve

Ulnar nerve

Radial nerve

44. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of Kwashiorkor?

Bipedal oedema

Visible severe wasting

Low serum albumin

Moon face

45. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Clinical features) List II (Deficiency of)

A. Flaky paint rashes of lower extremity 1. Niacin

B. Goose-hump skin lesion 2. Thiamine

C. Confabulation 3. Zinc

D. Dementia 4. Vitamin A

Code: A B C D

1 2 4 3

1 4 2 3

3 4 2 1

3 2 4 1

46. Consider the following:

1. Psoriasis

2. Atopic dermatitis

3. Leprosy

4. Vitiligo PUVA therapy can be used to treat which of the above?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3

2 and 4

3 and 4

47. The cutaneous viral infection which is commonly seen in children and characterized by single or multiple pearly-white skin colored smooth dome shaped papules with central pitting is:

Chicken pox

Herpes zoster

Molluscum contagiosum

Verruca vulgaris

48. Consider the following statements about polyarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis:

1. It is more common in girls

2. Five or more joints are affected within the first six months of onset

3. Uveitis occurs in 95% patients

4. Rheumatoid factor may be negative

Which of the statements given above are true

1 and 4 only

2 and 4

3 and 4

2 and 3 only

49. Consider the following statements regarding schizophrenia:

1. Patient feels that other persons put thoughts into his mind

2. Patient feels that he is being punished for his wrong doings

3. He may be in a state of catatonia Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

50. Lithium carbonate is employed in the following conditions except:

To treat acute episodes of mania

To prevent recurrence of mania

To prevent depression in bipolar disorders

To prevent depression in unipolar disorders

51. The following conditions can cause protein-losing enteropathy except:

Ulcerative colitis

Irritable bowel syndrome

Celiac disease

Lymphoma

52. Which of the following ocular findings is a component of Foville syndrome?

Lateral gaze palsy

6th N Palsy

3rd N Palsy

Nystagmus

53. The following features are suggestive of Behcet's syndrome except:

Orogenital ulcers

Polyarthritis

Uveitis

Livedo reticularis

54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (drug) List-II (side effect)

A. Phenytoin sodium 1. Hypothyroidism

B. Para aminosalicylic acid 2. Hepatotoxicity

C Rifampicin 3. 8th nerve damage D. Streptomycin

4. Cerebellar dysfunction

Code: A B C D

4 1 2 3

4 2 1 3

3 2 1 4

2 1 4 3

55. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (disease state) List-II (clinical feature)

A. Pemphigus vulgaris 1. Acro -osteolysis

B. Psoriasis 2. Brachydactyly

C. Turner syndrome 3. Koebner phenomenon

D. Primary hyperparathyroidism 4. Nikolsky sign

Code: A B C D

1 2 3 4

1 3 2 4

4 2 3 1

4 3 2 1

56. A 10 year old child "blanks out" in class (e.g. stops talking midsentence and then continues as if nothing had happened). During spells there is slight quivering of lips. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Mutism

Autism

Adjustment disorder

Absence seizure

57. A 45 year old man presents with hematuria. Renal biopsy demonstrates a focal necrotizing glomerulitis with crescent formation. The patient gives history of intermittent hemoptysis and intermittent chest pain of moderate intensity. A previous chest X-ray had demonstrated multiple opacities, some of which were cavitated. The patient also has chronic cold like nasal symptoms. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Aspergillosis

Polyarteritis nodosa

Renal carcinoma metastatic to lung

Wegner's granulomatosis

58. A 28 year old woman presented with high grade fever, cough, diarrhea and mental confusion for 4 days. X-ray chest revealed bilateral pneumonitis. Search for etiology will most likely reveal

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Staphylococcus aureus

Legionella pneumophila

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

59. Congenital heart disease associated with pre-excitation is:

Atrial septal defect

Bicuspid aorta valve

Ebstein's anomaly

Patent ductus arteriosus

60. Hockey-stick appearance in echocardiography is a feature of:

Mitral stenosis

Mitral incompetence

Aortic stenosis

Aortic regurgitation

61. Hutchinson sign is a feature of ocular involvement by which of the following viruses?

Herpes simplex

Epstein-Barr virus

Cytomegalovirus

Herpes zoster

62. Well recognised side-effects of prolonged phenytoin use may result in all except:

Hirsutism

Lymphadenopathy

Ataxia

Hypoglycaemia

63. First order neurons in the visual pathway are constituted by:

Bipolar cells

Amacrine cells

Ganglion cells

Rods and cones

64. Level of which hormone is likely to increase after hypothalamic ablation?

Growth hormone

Prolactin

FSH

ACTH

65. A 50 year old patient with signs of peripheral neuropathy is found to have diabetes mellitus. He has no ocular symptoms. When would you refer this patient for retina evaluation?

When he develops ocular symptoms

Immediately

If he needs insulin for blood sugar

Five years after diagnosis

66. Which one of the following tests has the highest chance of detecting HIV infection in a blood donor during the window period?

Demonstration of antibody to HIV by ELISA

CD4 count

P24 antigen detection

Western blot test

67. The following are exotoxin-mediated infections except:

Cholera

Typhoid

Botulism

Tetanus

68. The following tests can be used for diagnosing celiac disease except:

Anti-gliadin antibodies

Anti-nuclear antibodies

Anti-endomycial antibodies

Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies

69. Which one of the following is not an early complication of acute myocardial infarction?

Papillary muscle dysfunction

Ventricular septal defect

Pericarditis

Dressler's syndrome

70. Consider the following conditions:

1. Thyrotoxicosis, phaeochromocytoma and acromegaly

2. Haemochromatosis

3. Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)

4. Pancreatic carcinoma

Which of the above may result in secondary diabetes mellitus?

2 and 3 only

2 and 4

3 and 4

2 and 3

71. Consider the following statements: Gastric lavage is contraindicated in children in case of

1. iron poisoning

2. kerosene poisoning

3. corrosive poisoning

4. aspirin poisoning Which of the above statements are correct?

3 and 4

2 and 4

2 and 3 only

1 and 3

72. Consider the following:

1. Visible gastric peristalsis

2. Bilious vomiting

3. Palpable mass

4. Melena

Which of the above is/are the feature/features of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

2 and 3

1 and 3 only

2 and 4

4 only

73. A very large ventricular septal defect should be operated

In school going age

Only if CHF is uncontrolled

Before six months of age

Soon after birth

74. A 2 year old boy is being evaluated for severity of malnutrition. The child weighs 7 kg and measures 74 cm in length. Expected (median) weight for height, and height for age for this child are 9 kg and 86 cm respectively. According to WHO classification of undernutrition, which of the following is the correct category for this child?

Wasted, stunted

Wasted, severly stunted

Severly wasted, stunted

Severly wasted, severly stunted

75. Catch-up diet for treatment of severe malnutrition in children should achieve the following:

Calorie 150-220 kcal/kg/d; protein 4-6 g/kg/d

Calorie 125-175 kcal/kg/d; protein 4-6 g/kg/d

Calorie 125-175 kcal/kg/d; protein 2-4 g/kg/d

Calorie 150-220 kcal/kg/d; protein 2-4 g/kg/d

76. Which one of the following is not a feature of vitamin D deficiency rickets?

Decrease in parathyroid hormone level

Decrease in gut calcium absorption

Decrease in renal phosphate excretion

Increase in serum alkaline phosphatase

77. A child presents with moderate fever for two months. On examination, she had moderate anaemia and a few petechia. All the following can be the diagnosis except:

Acute leukemia

Tuberculosis

Typhoid

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

78. Which of the following statements is true regarding juvenile chronic myeloid leukemia?

Philadelphia chromosome is negative.

Thrombocytopaenia is uncommon.

The prognosis is better than the adult form of chronic myeloid leukemia.

Single agent chemotherapy with busulfan or hydroxyurea can achieve remission.

79. Consider the following features:

1. X-linked recessive inheritance

2. Atopic dermatitis

3. Low serum levels of IgA Which of the above is/are the characteristic features of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

1 only

1 and 2 only

3 only

2 and 3

80. Lisch nodules are seen in which of the following conditions?

von Recklinghausen's disease

Louis-bar syndrome

Tuberous sclerosis

von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

81. A 5 year old child presented with microcytic hypochromic anaemia. Serum ferritin is low. Which of the following is least likely?

Celiac disease

Thalassemia major

Nutritional anaemia

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

82. An infant can sit leaning forward on his hands. He bounces actively when made to stand. He laughs aloud and becomes concerned when the mother moves away. What is his most likely age?

12 weeks

16 weeks

22 weeks

28 weeks

83. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Association with hepatomegaly) List II (Presentation)

A. Skin lesion 1. Histiocytosis

B. Engorged neck veins 2. Galactosemia

C. Cataract 3. Toxoplasmosis

D. Hydrocephalus 4. Constrictive pericarditis

Code: A B C D

1 4 2 3

2 3 4 1

4 1 3 2

3 4 2 1

84. The most common type of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:

Rheumatoid factor positive polyarticular

Rheumatoid factor negative polyarticular

Pauciarticular type

Systemic onset type

85. An 8 year old boy presented to the Emergency Department on the fourth day of fever during a dengue epidemic. He had a mild erythematous rash on his body and no bleeding from any site. His BP was 110/70 mmHg and pulse was 94/minute. Hess test was positive. Dengue serology report is awaited. Platelet count is 30,000/cm3 and PCV: 36%. What is the treatment of choice?

Plenty of oral/ IV fluids and observation

Emergency platelet transfusion to raise platelets above 50,000/ cm3

IV anti-D immune globulin

Give antipyretic and wait for dengue serology report

86. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the Code given below the lists:

List I (Antidote) List II (Poison/Drug)

A.Calcium sodium edetate1. Cyanide

B. Sodium nitrite 2. Nitrobenzene

C. Methylene blue 3. Lead

D. Atropine 4. Organophosphate

5. Kerosene

Code: A B C D

1 2 3 4

2 3 4 1

3 1 2 5

3 1 2 4

87. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Diseases) List II (Laboratory parameters)

A. Thalassemia major 1. Increased serum iron, decreased TIBC, increased serum ferritin

B. Iron deficiency anaemia 2. Decreased serum iron, increased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin

C. Nephrotic syndrome 3. Decreased serum iron, decreased TIBC, increased serum ferritin

D. Acute iron poisoning 4. Increased serum iron, normal TIBC, normal serum ferritin

Code: A B C D

4 3 2 1

4 2 3 1

1 2 3 4

1 3 2 4

88. A previously well 2 year old boy presents with a brief generalized seizure. There is no past or family history of seizures. On examination, child is alert, active, febrile with axillary temperature of 39.40C. Except for bilateral tonsillar enlargement and congestion, systemic examination is normal. Management at this time may include:

1. Immediate reduction of body temperature

2. Intravenous diazepam and phenytoin, followed by a lumbar puncture

3. Institution of phenytoin for maintenance therapy for at least one year

4. Rectal diazepam every 8 hourly for 2-3 days to reduce the risk of recurrence Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

1 and 4 only

3 and 4

2 and 4

89. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Endocrinological disorders) List II (Results of investigations)

A. Hypothyroidism 1. Increased urinary excretion of catecholamines

B. Cushing's syndrome 2. Increased urinary 17-ketosteroids

C. Pheochromocytoma 3. Hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia

D. Hypoparathyroidism 4. TSH levels are increased and T3, T4 levels are decreased

Code: A B C D

4 2 1 3

4 1 2 3

3 2 1 4

3 1 2 4

90. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the Code given below the lists:

List I Clinical presentation) List II (Disease pathology)

A. Extrapyramidal cerebral palsy 1. Stroke

B. Spastic quadriplegia 2. Multicystic encephalomalacia

C. Spastic hemiplegia 3. Periventricular leukomalacia

D. Spastic diplegia 4. Bilirubin encephalopathy

Code: A B C D

3 1 2 4

1 2 3 4

4 3 2 1

4 2 1 3

91. Consider the following pairs: National Park State

1. Keoladeo Ghana National Park ...... Rajasthan

2. Sultanpur National Park ...... Uttar Pradesh

3. Valley of Flowers National Park ...... Himachal Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

92. The Himalayas have snowline at higher altitude compared to that in the Alps mountains. This is because

Himalayas are higher than the Alps

Himalayas face the monsoon winds

Himalayas are located in lower latitudes

Himalayas have denser forest cover

93. The knowledge of genome sequence is important to

1. understand how genes work together in the growth and development of an entire organism.

2. study the regulatory regions in the genome outside the gene that controls expression of genes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

94. Besides the Sunderbans, mangrove forests are also to be found in

1. Bhitarkanika

2. Godavari delta

3. Pichavaram

4. Kaveri (Cauvery) delta

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2 and 4 only

3 and 4 only

2 and 3 only

3 and 4

95. Which of the following statements is not correct?

In the preparation of vinegar in the households, dried fruits can be used.

Vinegar making involves fermentation by yeast.

Vinegar is actually acetic acid.

A fruit juice containing or more sugar cannot be made into vinegar in the households.

96. Which one of the following viruses was exploited to create genetically engineered virus "onyx-15", an oncolytic virus to target and eliminate cancer cells?

Parvovirus

Adenovirus

Pox virus

Herpes simplex virus

97. Which one of the following is not included in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

Secular Republic

Socialist Republic

Federal Republic

Democratic Republic

98. Consider the following milk borne diseases:

1. Brucellosis

2. Listeriosis

3. Salmonellosis

Which of the above can be controlled by pasteurization?

1 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

2 and 3

99. Who of the following is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

The Prime Minister

The Speaker of Lok Sabha

The Vice President of India

The President of India

100. Consider the following statements:

1. Fly ash can be added to agricultural soil to enhance its water holding capacity.

2. Fly ash can be used in the manufacture of bricks and blocks for construction purposes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

101. "Ecological niche" refers to the

amount of autotrophs available for consumption of the grazing population.

relationship of an animal with the surrounding animals.

position of an animal with reference to its species composition.

positional and functional relationship of an organism in an ecosystem.

102. Which one the following is not required for the formation of photochemical smog?

Oxygen

Oxides of nitrogen

Carbon monoxide

Sunlight

103. The 'Nirbhaya Fund' set up by the Government of India is for:

Ensuring the safety of women

Promoting the financial literacy of rural poor

Promoting Self-Help Groups of women

Providing free education

104. What is "Solar Impulse which was recently in the news?

A Central Government sponsored scheme to promote the production of solar energy

A spacecraft sent by NASA to study a comet moving towards Sun

A project of India in collaboration with NASA to study the impact of solar flares on Earth

A round-the-world flight powered only by the solar energy

105. Consider the following statements:

1. In food preservation by irradiation, ionising rays are used.

2. Irradiation does not affect the colour, odour, taste, pH and levels of vitamin contents in the foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

106. Kutch (in Gujarat) has the existence of a large number of salt pans. What could be the most valid reason/reasons for this?

1. Existence of creeks and mudflats

2. Higher evaporation rate

3. Presence of vast intertidal zone Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

107. Most of the ozone in the atmosphere is concentrated in the:

Ionosphere

Mesosphere

Stratosphere

Troposphere

108. Consider the following:

1. Lactic acid

2. Sorbic acid

3. Sulphurous acid

Which of the above are food preservatives?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

None of these

2 and 3

109. With reference to "DNA Microarray" technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It helps in identifying the genes involved in a disease by comparing the gene expressions between the tissues from a healthy and an infected person.

2. It allows visualizing the activity of hundreds of genes simultaneously.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

110. Artemesinin is a drug derived from

Plant

Fungus

Rock

Blue-green alga

111. Which of the following can be used to extract heavy metals from water?

1. Aluminium oxide

2. Cellulose

3. Silica

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

112. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of vegetational transitions with increasing latitude?

Rain forest- deciduous forest- coniferous forest

Rain forest- coniferous forest- deciduous forest

Deciduous forest- rain forest- coniferous forest

Coniferous forest- rain forest- deciduous forest

113. Consider the following statements:

1. LED lamps have shorter life span as compared to incandescent bulbs.

2. LED lamps are made by using semi-conductor material.

3. LED lamps are more expensive than conventional sources of lighting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

114. In India, ecologists consider "sacred groves" very valuable because of their role in

meeting fuelwood and medicinal needs of local people.

protection of biodiversity that has vanished from surrounding areas due to exploitation by man.

stabilization of climate and reduction of global warming.

socio-cultural and religious interactions among traditional communities of different regions.

115. The "Cry1Ac", often in news is

a gene that enables some crop plants to fight pests.

another strain of virus responsible for bird-flue that occurred in China.

a gene used in making the transgenic rice known as "golden rice".

None of these

116. Excessive accumulation of nitrates in water bodies can result in:

1. Proliferation of biodiversity

2. Algal blooms

3. Acidification

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

2 only

2 and 3

117. According to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, which of the following is/are the right/rights of the children?

1. Right to expression

2. Right to recreation

3. Right to name and nationality

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

3 only

2 and 3

None of these is a Right of the children

118. In the context of genetic engineering, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Vector mediated recombinant gene transfer can be done from one eukaryote to another eukaryote only.

2. Vector mediated recombinant gene transfer can be done from animal cell to plant cell.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

119. What is the importance of a plant named jatropha that is frequently in the news?

It is a wild variety of rice of North-east India rich in vitamin A and iron.

it is a bio-diesel yielding plant that can grow well in areas of low rainfall.

It is a genetically modified pest-resistant potato plant.

It is a highly drought-resistant wild variety of pearl millet adopted for cultivation in dry areas of South India.

120. Gene silencing means a gene which would be expressed under normal circumstances is switched off by cell machinery. Which one of the following cellular components is not involved in gene silencing?

Micro RNA

Double stranded RNA

Ribosomal RNA

Si RNA