1. A patient with small cell lung carcinoma has symptomatic hyponatraemia (serum sodium 127 mmol/L). The most likely etiology is:

Fanconi Syndrome

Cushing's Syndrome

Metabolic Syndrome

Syndrome of inappropriate ADH

2. Regarding Gilbert's syndrome, which one of the following statements is not correct?

Jaundice becomes severe with time.

Hyperbilirubinemia increases after fasting.

Inheritance of disease is autosomal dominant.

Liver histology is normal.

3. Which of the following is an uncommon cause of autonomic dysfunction?

G B S (Guillain Barre Syndrome).

Porphyria.

Diabetic neuropathy.

Neuropathy associated with Vitamin B12 deficiency.

4. Peripheral Eosinophilia is not a characteristic feature of:

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis.

Allergic aspergillosis.

Tropical eosinophilia.

Loeffler's syndrome.

5. Salicylate intoxication in adults usually causes:

1. Severe respiratory alkalosis.

2. Mixed metabolic acidosis respiratory alkalosis.

3. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

1 and 2 only

3 only

2 and 3 only

2 and 3

6. With reference to psoriatic arthritis, which one of the following statements is not correct?

In 70 80% patients psoriasis precedes arthritis.

Distribution of arthritis is mainly asymmetrical.

Involvement of PIP joints is more than DIP joints.

Cup like erosions are seen on X ray.

7. Consider the following statements regarding rheumatic heart disease:

1. Rheumatic carditis is a pancarditis.

2. Carey-Coombs murmur is a delayed systolic murmur heard during the course of acute rheumatic fever.

3. Mitral regurgitation is the most common manifestation of acute rheumatic carditis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 and 3

1 and 2

1 and 3

8. The extra cellular fluid deficit in a comatose patient of diabetic ketoacidosis is replenished by:

0.9 NaCl

3 NaCl

5 Dextrose

Ringer's lactate

9. Which one of the following is not associated with a high reticulocyte count?

Acute bleed

Haemolytic anaemia

Megaloblastic anaemia

Response to treatment in 'nutrition deficiency' anaemia

10. What happens when normal erythrocytes (blood group matched) are transfused into a patient with anaemia secondary to an intracorpuscular defect?

Donor cells are destroyed.

Donor cells have normal survival.

Depends on the severity of anaemia.

Depends on whether the donor cells are fresh or stored (older than a week).

11. Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase is seen in all except:

Osteoporosis

Osteomalacia

Paget's disease of bone

Cholestatic jaundice

12. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Uraemic acidosis -Haemodialysis

Methanol intoxication -Ethanol

Hyperosmolar coma -Intravenous fluids

Starvation ketosis -Glucagon

13. In a young epileptic woman wishing to use oral contraceptive agents, which of the following drugs is not an ideal agent?

Carbamazepine

Sodium valproate

Topiramate

Ethosuximide

14. Which of the following is not true about alcoholic cirrhosis?

On many occasions alcoholic hepatitis and alcoholic cirrhosis coexist.

Concomitant HIV infection accelerates it.

Starts with macronodular and later on changes to micronodular cirrhosis.

10 40 remains clinically silent.

15. Cardiac arrest may be due to all of the following except:

Ventricular fibrillation

Atrial fibrillation

Acute myocardial infarction

Pulmonary embolism

16. Which of the following is not useful in the management of status epilepticus?

Lorazepam

Phenytoin

Phenobarbitone

Carbamazepine

17. The following are indications for renal replacement in ARF except:

Hyperkalemia

Fluid overload

Uraemic pericarditis

Metabolic alkalosis

18. Biphasic defibrillation in case of ventricular fibrillation is first done with:

200 Joules

250 Joules

300 Joules

360 Joules

19. Gastric erosions are likely to be associated with the following conditions except:

Pernicious anaemia

Cor pulmonale

Polycythemia rubra vera

Hepatic cirrhosis

20. Wegener's granulomatosis is characterized by all of the following except:

Vasculitis of respiratory tract

Granulomatous uveitis

Granulomatous hepatitis

Glomeralonephritis

21. An 11 year old boy has elevated prothrombin and activated partial prothrombin time . What is the most likely defect?

Defect in extrinsic pathway

Defect in intrinsic pathway

Defect in common pathway

Defect in platelet function

22. The radiological findings in chest X ray in sarcoidosis includes the following except:

Bilateral symmetrical lymphadenopathy on chest X ray is commonly seen.

Upper lobe involvement is more than that of lower lobe.

Egg shell calcification is seen on X ray.

Pleural effusion is a common finding.

23. Acute rheumatic fever is caused by:

Coagulase negative staphylococcus

Streptococcus pneumonia

Group A streptococcus

Group D streptococcus

24. Which of the following is not a complication of peptic ulcer?

Gastric outlet obstruction

Perforation

Indigestion

Bleeding

25. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Rickettsial infection) List II (Means of transmission to humans)

A. Rocky mountain spotted fever. 1. Tick bite.
B. Q fever. 2. Mite bite.
C. Rickettsial pox. 3. Infected louse passes feces into broken skin.
D. Epidemic typhus. 4. Inhalation of dried infected material.

Code: A B C D

A/1 B/4 C/2 D/3

A/2 B/3 C/4 D/1

A/4 B/1 C/2 D/3

A/3 B/1 C/2 D/4

26. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Clinical features) List II (Diagnosis)

A. Osler's node 1. Patent ductus arteriosus with reversal of shunt. B. Differential cyanosis 2. Aortic stenosis with aortic regurgitation. C. Bisferiens pulse 3. Pulmonary hypertension D. Graham Steel murmur 4. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Code: A B C D

A/4 B/1 C/2 D/3

A/4 B/1 C/3 D/2

A/1 B/4 C/2 D/3

A/1 B/4 C/3 D/2

27. Consider the following:

1. Normal anion gap

2. Hyperchloraemic acidosis

3. Inappropriately high urinary pH Which of the above are the characteristic features of renal tubular acidosis

2 and 3

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

28. Which of the following are typical features of Parkinsonism?

1. Failure to swing the arms while walking

2. Nystagmus

3. Cogwheel rigidity

4. Festinating gait

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

3 and 4

2 and 4

1 and 3 only

3 and 4

29. Consider the following statements about acromegaly:

1. Fibroma molluscum and acanthosis nigricans are common findings.

2. Paradoxical growth hormone response to TRH administration is observed.

3. Acro-osteolysis is a common radiological finding.

4. Diabetes mellitus may be associated in nearly 25 of acromegalics.

Which of these statements are correct?

2 and 3

3 and 4

2 and 4

3 and 4

30. Of all the types of lupus nephritis, the worst outcome is seen in:

Minimal mesangial

Diffuse nephritis

Focal segment nephritis

Membranous nephritis

31. Which of the following is not a cause of hypomagnesemia?

Beta blockers

Chronic Pancreatic insufficiency

Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus

Alcoholism

32. Among the following, which one is not a good dietary source of iron?

Liver

Jaggery

Fish

Milk

33. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List I (Poison) List II (Antidote)

A. Benzodiazepine 1. D penicillamine
B. Copper sulphate 2. Flumazenil
C. Opiates 3. N-acetyl cysteine
D. Paracetamol 4. Naloxone

Code: A B C D

A/2 B/4 C/1 D/3

A/2 B/1 C/4 D/3

A/3 B/1 C/4 D/2

A/3 B/4 C/1 D/2

34. An elderly male presented with unilateral headache, fever and high ESR (110 mm). What is the most likely diagnosis?

Tubercular meningitis

Migraine

Giant cell arteritis

Space occupying lesions

35. Which of the following is not a defect in calcium channels?

Episodic ataxia 2

Spinocerebellar ataxia 6

Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis

36. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?

Ethacrynic acid

Spironolactone

Indopamide.

Thiazide.

37. The classical features of Wernicke's encephalopathy are the following except:

Horizontal nystagmus

Confusional state

Opthalmoplegia

Extension plantar response

38. Which one of the following is not seen in hepatorenal syndrome?

Hypotension

Acute renal failure

Low urinary sodium

Low serum potassium

39. Common sites of involvement of Takayasu's arteritis are the following except:

Subclavian artery

Common carotid artery

Abdominal aorta

Pulmonary artery

40. In which of the following is clubbing a common occurrence?

1. Infective endocarditis

2. Congestive cardiac failure

3. Pulmonary thromboembolism

4. Ebstein anomaly Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 4

41. What is the most common lobe involved in Herpes Simplex virus encephalitis?

Frontal lobe

Temporal lobe

Occipital lobe

Parietal lobe

42. Consider the following statements about staphylococcal pneumonia:

1. Three-fourth of the patients are below the age of one year.

2. Pneumatoceles are common.

3. It is the commonest cause of empyema in a child below two years of age.

4. The condition is easily amenable to treatment in the outdoors. Which of the above statements are correct?

2 and 3

1 and 2 only

1 and 4

2 and 3 only

43. In carcinoid syndrome, the most common valvular lesion is:

Mitral stenosis

Mitral regurgitation

Tricuspid regurgitation

Pulmonary stenosis

44. Na+ is reabsorbed in which part/parts of kidney

1. Proximal convoluted tubule

2. Distal convoluted tubule

3. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle

4. Collecting duct Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 4

2 and 3

45. A 40 year old female presented with dysphagia and inability to open the mouth fully. The most likely diagnosis is:

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Systemic sclerosis

Dermatomyositis

Rheumatoid arthritis

46. Which one of the following tests is best for measuring glomerular function?

Blood urea

Serum creatinine

Creatinine clearance rate

Ultrasound of kidney

47. Optic chiasmal lesion commonly produces:

Homonymous hemianopia

Bitemporal hemianopia

Uni-ocular vision loss

Concentric field defect

48. Adult hemoglobin consists of the following chains:

2 a 2 ß

2 a 2 d

2 ß 2 .

2 a 2 .

49. Consider the following statements regarding rheumatoid arthritis:

1. The synovial fluid looks cloudy.

2. Synovial fluid viscosity is reduced.

3. Synovial fluid complement levels are markedly decreased.

4. Lymphocytes predominate in the differential white blood cell count in the synovial fluid. Which of the statements given above are correct?

2 and 3

3 and 4

2 and 4

3 and 4

50. What is the commonest organism for prosthetic valve endocarditis?

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Streptococcus viridians

HAECK organism

Staphylococcus aureus

51. Tuberculoid leprosy is likely to have:

Leonine facies

Negative lepromin test

Thickened peripheral nerve

Abundant lepra bacilli in the skin lesion

52. The following are true regarding Henoch Schonlein purpura except:

2/3rd cases are preceded by viral upper respiratory tract infection.

Renal involvement is seen in around 40 of cases.

Small vessels are commonly affected.

Purpura is seen all over the body especially the upper limbs.

53. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding cluster headache?

Females are more commonly affected than males.

Pain usually occurs in periodicity.

Unilateral photophobia is essentially present.

Autonomic features may be present.

54. Maturity onset diabetes of the young (MODY) is inherited as:

Autosomal dominant

Autosomal recessive

X linked dominant

X linked recessive

55. Ghon's complex is not characterized by:

Hilar lymph nodes

Pleural effusion

Prominent draining lymphatics

Subpleural focus

56. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Urine exam) List II (Disease)

A. Red cell casts. 1. Nephrotic syndrome.
B. Microscopic haematuria. 2. Chronic renal failure.
C. Proteinuria. 3. Polycystic kidney disease.
D. Broad cell casts. 4. Glomerulonephritis.

Code: A B C D

A/4 B/3 C/1 D/2

A/3 B/2 C/1 D/4

A/2 B/3 C/4 D/1

A/4 B/1 C/2 D/3

57. Which one of the following is not a feature of Gullain-Barre syndrome?

Albumino cytological dissociation

Transient bladder disturbances

Areflexia

Babinski plantar response

58. With reference to Marfan's syndrome, which one of the following is not correct?

Lens of the eye is dislocated downward

Aorta regurgitation is present in many patients

There is Fibrillin 1 gene mutation

Ratio of upper segment to lower segment is less than 1

59. Tetany may be a feature of the following except:

Hyperventilation

Hypokalaemic alkalosis

Hypomagnesaemia

Hyponatraemia

60. Regarding vitamin which one of the following statements is correct?

It is a water soluble vitamin

Its body stores can last more than 8 years

Its routine prophylaxis in newborn children is recommended to prevent early haemorrhagic disease

It is the treatment of choice in patients with acute severe haemoptysis

61. Consider the following clinical features:

1. Impaired judgement

2. Impaired memory

3. Alteration of personality

4. Clouding of consciousness Which of the above are characteristics of dementia?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

3 and 4.

62. Koebner's phenomenon is seen in:

Lupus vulgaris

Lupus erythematosis

Psoriasis

Eczematous dermatitis

63. Which hepatitis marker can be used to diagnose Acute Hepatitis

HBc Ag

Anti HBc

HBs Ag

HBe Ag

64. Which one of the following is not an example of metabolic acidosis with high anion gap?

Lactic acidosis

Ketoacidosis

Methanol poisoning

Renal tubular acidosis

65. Which one of the following is not a vector borne disease?

Japanese encephalitis

Dengue fever

Kala-azar

Meningococcal meningitis

66. Regarding management of Myxoedema coma, which of the following is not true?

Treatment must begin after biochemical confirmation of the diagnosis

Levothyroxine usually given by I/V route

Rewarming of the patient

Cautious use of intravenous fluids

67. Which one of the following is the major determinant of plasma osmolality?

Serum sodium

Serum potassium

Blood glucose

Blood urea

68. Acute aortic regurgitation occurs in:

Infective endocarditis

Ankylosing spondylitis

Marfan's syndrome

Rheumatoid arthritis

69. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause the following except:

Myopathy

Myelopathy

Optic atrophy

Peripheral neuropathy

70. A patient with cirrhosis develops oliguria and worsening azotemia. Urinary sediment is normal. Urinary sodium concentration is 5 meq/ L. The most likely cause could be:

Acute cortical necrosis

Acute tubular necrosis

Acute glomerulonephritis

Hepatorenal syndrome

71. A 6 week old infant presents with recurrent nonbilious vomiting with some dehydration. A mass is palpable in right upper quadrant of abdomen with visible peristalsis. The most likely diagnosis is

Intussusception

Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

Small intestine obstruction

Duodenal atresia

72. A 2 year old previously healthy child develops abrupt onset high grade fever, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress. He has a toxic look and becomes severely ill within few hours. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

Acute tonsilopharyngitis

Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

Acute Epiglottitis

Laryngeal web

73. A 6 year old child presents with oliguria, haematuria, puffiness of face. He has a convulsion and blood pressure is found to be 200/100 mm of Hg. Laboratory tests reveal hemoglobin: 12g/dl, total leucocyte count: 7200/mm^3, platelet count: 3.1 lakhs/mm^3, blood urea: 80 mg/dl and serum creatinine: 1.1 mg/dl. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

Urinary tract infection

Acute glomerulonephritis with hypertensive encephalopathy

Obstructive uropathy

74. A two year old child with acute watery diarrhea and severe dehydration presents to the emergency. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Ringer lactate at 30ml/kg given intravenously in 30 minutes

Oral rehydration solution through nasogastric tube

Ringer lactate at 10ml/kg given intravenously in 2 hours

Normal saline at 10ml/kg given intravenously in 2 hours

75. A diagnosis of steroid dependent nephrotic syndrome is made in a 5 year old male child and he is initiated on a drug. After 6 weeks of therapy, he develops nausea, vomiting, neutropenia and gross hematuria. Which of the following is the most likely drug used?

Cyclophosphamide

Levamisole

Cyclosporine

Prednisolone

76. Consider the following statements regarding distal renal tubular acidosis:

1. Blood biochemistry reveals normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

2. There is defective secretion of in the distal tubule.

3. There may be associated muscle weakness and rickets.

4. Children may present with polydipsia and polyuria. Which of the above statements are correct?

1 only

2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

3 and 4

77. A one year old male child presents with poor urinary stream and dribbling of urine since birth. A mass is palpable mass just above the symphysis pubis. The most likely diagnosis is:

Tumor of the urinary bladder

Posterior urethral valve

Ureterocele

Neuroblastoma

78. A 4 years old child presents with rash on lower limbs, arthritis, and abdominal pain. Urine examination reveals microscopic hematuria. The most likely diagnosis is:

Thrombaesthenia

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Henoch Schonlein purpura

79. The following milestones can be achieved by a 12 month old infant except:

Wave "bye bye"

Speak

Make a tower of 6 blocks

Stand without support

80. Which one of the following is not a feature of severe combined immunodeficiency in children?

Enlarged thymus

Decreased serum immunoglobulin levels

Defective T cell function

Recurrent pulmonary infections

81. Children with an autosomal recessive condition have partial albinism, susceptibility to infections and presence of giant peroxidase positive lysosomal granules in granulocytes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Chediak Higashi syndrome

Hermansky Pudlak syndrome

Piebaldism

Waardenburg's syndrome

82. A 50 hours old full term breast fed newborn boy weighing 3100 g presents with jaundice. Physical examination is normal. The total serum bilirubin is 11.0 mg/ dL with a direct bilirubin of 0.4 mg/ dL. The correct treatment would be to:

Continue breast feeds and review after 48 hours

Stop breast feeds and review after 24 hours

Continue breast feeds and start blue light phototherapy

Arrange for a double volume exchange transfusion

83. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Vitamin B6 Beriberi

Vitamin B3 Pellagra

Vitamin B12 Subacute combined degeneration of cord.

Vitamin B5 Burning feet syndrome

84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Congenital malformation syndrome) List II (Congenital heart defect)

A. Foetal alcohol syndrome 1. Bicuspid aortic valve
B. Turner's syndrome 2. Endocardial cushion defect
C. Down syndrome 3. Pulmonary stenosis
D. Congenital rubella syndrome 4. Ventricular septal defect

Code: A B C D

A/3 B/2 C/1 D/4

A/3 B/1 C/2 D/4

A/4 B/2 C/1 D/3

A/4 B/1 C/2 D/3

85. A 12 months old baby boy weighs 4.5 kg and measures 60 cm. He has marked loss of subcutaneous fat and has no edema. What form of protein energy malnutrition does the baby have?

Grade III protein energy malnutrition

Grade IV protein energy malnutrition with K

Marasmic Kwashiorkar

Marasmus

86. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Turner's syndrome ……. 45, X

Down syndrome ……. 47, XY, +21

Klinefelter's syndrome ……. 47, XXY

Marfan's syndrome ……. 47, XYY

87. Which of the following is the most reliable test for screening hemophilia?

Prothrombin time

Clotting time

Partial thromboplastin time

Clot retraction

88. A child with poliomyelitis in acute phase can have all the following except:

Painful affected extremity

Sensory loss

Hypotonia

Depressed deep tendon reflexes

89. Which one of the following antibodies is most specific in children with systemic lupus erythematosus?

Anti neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody

Anti myeloperoxidase antibody

Anti double stranded DNA antibodies

Anti histone antibodies

90. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Vaccine) List II (Type of vaccine)

A. Hepatitis B vaccine 1. Live attenuated vaccine
B. Diphtheria vaccine 2. Sub unit vaccine
C. Haemophilus influenzae vaccine 3. Toxoid
D. Measles vaccine 4. Polysaccharide vaccine

Code: A B C D

A/1 B/4 C/2 D/3

A/2 B/3 C/4 D/1

A/4 B/1 C/2 D/3

A/3 B/1 C/2 D/4

91. Which of the following are the gases whose presence in high concentration in the lower strata of atmosphere, is chiefly responsible for causing the Greenhouse effect?

1. Sulphur dioxide

2. Carbon dioxide

3. Chlorofluorocarbons

4. Nitrogen Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 and 4

2 and 4

92. Consider the following electric lamps:

1. C F L

2. Incandescent bulb

3. L E D lamp Indiscriminate or improper disposal of which of the above causes/ cause mercury pollution in the environment?

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

93. Consider the following substances:

1. Acesulfame potassium

2. Polyethlene glycol

3. Saccharin

4. Sucralose Which of the above are used as sugar substitutes in foods?

1 and 2 only

3 and 4 only

3 and 4 only

3 and 4

94. Ozone is

an isotope of Oxygen

an isomer of Oxygen

an allotrope of Oxygen

a hydrate of Oxygen

95. Which of the following contributes/contribute to the burst of monsoon in India?

1. Intense heating of the north-west part of Indian sub-continent during summer

2. Steep pressure gradient between the Indian Ocean and the Indian landmass Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

96. In India, which one of the following determines the principles that should govern the grants- in-aid to the States?

Inter-State Council

Ministry of Finance

Finance Commission

Planning Commission

97. Which one of the following is a Human Right as well as a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?

Right to Information

Right to Education

Right to Work

Right to Housing

98. Which one of the following is not used as a food preservative?

Benzoic acid

Citric acid

Ethylene dichloride

Sodium chloride

99. Which one of the following is located in Bastar region?

Bandhavgarh National Park

Kanha National Park

Indravati National Park

Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

100. Water hyacinth is generally perceived as a notorious aquatic weed, but it can be a useful plant. Which of the following statements is/ are correct in this context?

1. This plant contains certain substances which can be extracted and used as medicines, herbicides and pesticides.

2. This plant can be used to remove many heavy metals like Cadmium, Lead and Mercury from water bodies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

101. Use of calcium carbide for the artificial ripening of fruits is banned but it is often reported to be illegally used. What is/are the likely health hazards of exposure to this chemical?

1. Permanent damage to the eyes

2. Pulmonary edema

3. Irritation of mouth, throat and nose Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

102. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Malachite that is used as food adulterant?

It is used for ripening of mangoes and custard apple.

It is used to make green vegetables shiny.

It is added to sugar to increase its volume and weight.

It is added to tea dust to improve its flavour.

103. Which of the following organs from a brain dead person can be used as donated organs?

1. Heart

2. Kidney

3. Liver Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

2 and 3

104. Which of the following can be a threat to Biodiversity?

1. Global climate change

2. Pests and Pathogens

3. Invasive species Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

2 and 3

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 only

105. Which of the following can be used in biomass power plants to produce electricity?

1. Cow dung

2. Rice husk

3. Stalks of wheat Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1 only

2 and 3 only.

2 and 3

None of these can be used in biomass power plants.

106. Why are phosphates added to soft drinks?

To give the drinks a tangy taste.

To add sparkle to the drinks.

To supplement the drinks with certain mineral nutrients.

To give dark brown or chocolate colour to the drinks.

107. With reference to electrical and electronic equipment or components, the e-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 apply to:

1. Consumers

2. Producers

3. Collection centres Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

108. Which of the following can be made by using biodegradable polymers?

Artificial lens of the eye

Artificial blood vessels

Artificial teeth

Artificial intestine

109. The Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats meet at

Anaimalai hills

Cardamom hills

Nallamala hills

Nilgiri hills

110. Consider the following statements:

1. Panchayati Raj is a four tier system of governence.

2. There is a reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj elections.

3. Members of Gram Panchayat can convene Lok Adalat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 only

3 only

2 and 3

111. If you wish to see Pandas and Gibbons in their natural habitat in India, which of the following regions do you have to travel to?

Western Himalayas

Eastern Himalayas

Western Ghats

Eastern Ghats

112. Consider the following provisions of the Constitution of India:

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies

3. Centre-State Relations Which of the above has/ have a bearing on education?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

2 and 3

113. In which of the following cancers is it shown initially that the disruptive micronuclei can trigger DNA damage on chromosomes and can be a potential biomarker for genetic instability

Non small cell lung cancer

Small cell lung cancer

Breast cancer

Colon cancer

114. Who is the President of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

The President of India

The Vice President of India

The Prime Minister of India

Union Minister of Science and Technology

115. Which of the following animals are found in India in their natural habitat?

1. Flying fox

2. Puma

3. Snow Leopard Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3

116. Which of the following is/are used as decoloring agent in the refinement of sugar?

1. Dimethylamine epichlorohydin copolymer

2. Sodium stearoyl lactylate Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

117. Consider the following crops of India:

1. Groundnut

2. Sesamum

3. Pearl millet Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crops?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

2 and 3

118. Araku valley is in:

Eastern Ghats

Western Ghats

North-east India

Central India

119. Which one among the following types of forests exhibits highest biodiversity?

Moist deciduous forest

Tropical rain forest

Scrub forest

Dry deciduous forest

120. Which one of the following best describes the phenomenon of El Nino?

The anomalous widespread warming of the sea surface of tropical east and central Pacific Ocean

The revolving tropical storms of the Caribbean and Gulf of Mexico.

The deflection of the ocean currents in the northern and southern hemisphere due to the rotation of Earth.

A violent rotating column of air extending from a thunderstorm to the ground.