Exam Details

Subject law
Paper
Exam / Course
Department
Organization Uttarakhand Public Service Commission
Position assistant prosecution officer
Exam Date 2016
City, State uttarakhand,


Question Paper

1. Which one of the following case is related to "joint liability" under Indian Penal Code

R Vs. Arnold

Mehbub Shah Vs. Emperor

R Vs. Heyens

R Vs. Prince

2. The provision that "act done in good faith for benefit of child or insane person, by or by consent of guardian" is provided under which section of the Indian Penal Code

Section 89

Section 88

Section 90

Section 87

3. "Z" under the influence of involuntary drunkenness attempts to kill "A". Here "Z" is guilty of the offence of

attempt to murder

murder

culpable homicide

no offence

4. "The presence of abettor when offence is committed" is provided in Indian Penal Code under

Section 117

Section 116

Section 113

Section 114

5. "A" without any excuse fires a loaded cannon into a crowd of persons and kills one of them. Here "A" has committed the offence of

culpable homicide

grievous hurt

murder

criminal force

6. Section 366-B of the Indian Penal Code is related to the offence of

importation of girl from foreign country

procuration of minor girl

kidnapping or abducting in order to murder

None of the above

7. "Attempt to commit robbery" is punishable under Indian Penal Code in

Section 390

Section 391

Section 392

Section 393

8. "A" by pledging as diamonds articles which he knows are not diamond, intentionally deceives "Z" and thereby dishonestly induces "Z" to lend money. Here "A" is guilty of the offence of

dishonest misappropriation of property

cheating

thuggy

robbery

9. Whoever, being the husband or relative of the husband of a woman, subjects to such woman to cruelty shall be punished with

imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years

fine only

imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine

None of the above

10. Under which of the following Sections of Indian Penal Code, "Marriage ceremony fraudulently gone through without lawful marriage" is punishable

Section 494

Section 496

Section 495

Section 498

11. In which of the following offence mens rea is not an essential element under Indian Penal Code

Bigamy

Murder

Theft

Robbery

12. Under Indian Penal Code, the offence of 'Stalking' has been defined

under Section 354-A

under Section 354-B

under Section 354-C

under Section 354-D

13. Gyan Kaur Vs. State of Punjab 1996 S.C., is related with which of the following offence

Murder

Culpable homicide

Attempt to commit suicide

Abetment to suicide

14. "A" is the lover of wife, and receives valuable property belonging to her husband, knowing she has no such authority, is guilty of offence of

cheating

theft

adultery

criminal misappropriation

15. Under which of the following offences of Indian Penal Code, even preparation to commit the offence is also punishable with rigorous imprisonment

Theft

Murder

Rape

Dacoity

16. instigate "B" to murder But the offence is however, not committed. Here "A" is liable

to fine of maximum 10,000

to imprisonment for upto 14 years and fine

to imprisonment for upto 7 years and fine

nothing, as no offence was committed

17. "A" causes cattle to enter upon a field belonging to "B" intending to cause and knowing that it is likely to cause damage to crop. "A" is the guilty of offence of

theft

criminal trespass

criminal misappropriation

mischief

18. "A" found "B" a feeble old woman, stealing his crop, and beats her so violently that she died. Here "A" would be liable for the offence of

causing grievous hurt

murder

culpable homicide

no offence on the basis of exercise of right of private defence of property

19. Which one of the following is NOT an essential element of the offence of acid-attack mentioned under Section 326-A of Indian Penal Code

Partial damage, deformity or burn

Maiming, disfigurement or disablement

Only bodily pain

Damage, disfigurement or grievous hurt

20. Where a man secretly capture images of a woman who was using washroom for changing her clothes, will be guilty for the offence under Indian Penal Code under

Section 354-C

Section 354

Section 354-B

Section 354-D

21. A man who monitors the use by a woman of internet, e-mail or any other form of electronic communication, commits the offence of

sexual harassment

criminal trespass

voyeurism

stalking

22. The famous pronouncement of Delhi High Court regarding constitutional validity o f Section 377 Indian Penal Code, was reversed by the Supreme Court in

NALSA Vs. Union of India

Naz Foundation Vs. Govt. of NCT Delhi

Suresh Kaushal Vs. Naz Foundation

Shabnam Hasmi Vs. Union of India

23. For the offences relating to marriage under Indian Penal Code, the minimum punishment has been provided under

Section 493 and 494

Section 498

Section 497

Section 495

24. "A" enters "B" house through a window with a view to intimidate "B". Here "A" has committed the offence of

theft

extortion

house-breaking

None of the above

25. "A" pulls an ear-ring worn by a woman and thereby tears and wounds her ear badly. Here "A" is guilty for the offence of

mischief

robbery

extortion

misappropriation

26. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched

Section 366-A procuration of minor girl.

Section 372 selling minor for prostitution.

Section 376-B sexual intercourse by a man with his wife during separation.

Section 497 enticing away a married woman with criminal intent.

27. According to Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code "nothing is an offence which is committed by a child under"

14 years of age

16 years of age

7 years of age

15 years of age

28. The offence of 'dacoity' under Indian Penal Code may be committed by way of

theft only

extortion only

cheating only

robbery only

29. Under which section of Indian Penal Code, "the punishment for attempting to commit offences punishable with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment" is provided

under Section 508

under Section 509

under Section 511

under Section 510

30. The minimum number of persons to an agreement to be designated as criminal conspiracy under Section 120-A of the Indian Penal Code is

two

three

four

five

31. Under the Indian Penal Code, whosoever by force compels, or by deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, commit the offence of

kidnapping

abduction

wrongful restraint

abetment

32. Dishonest misappropriation of property possessed by the deceased person at the time of his death, is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code is

Section 402

Section 403

Section 405

Section 404

33. According to Section 304-B of Indian Penal Code, whoever commits "dowry death" is punished with imprisonment which is not less than

ten years

seven years

twelve years

twenty years

34. Which of the following offence was not inserted in the Indian Penal Code by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013

Sexual harassment

Stalking

Voyeurism

Lurking house-trespass

35. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code "voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid" is an offence

Section 326

Section 326-A

Section 326-B

Section 326-C

36. Laxmi Vs. Union of India (2014) 4 SCC 427 is a case which is related to the offence of

acid attack

dowry death

murder

rape

37. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was enacted on the date of th st

6October, 1860

1March, 1874 th st

15March, 1872

1September, 1872

38. Law of evidence consist of which of the followings

ordinary rules of reasoning

legal rules of evidence

rules of logic

All of the above

39. Which of the following is not included in the expression of "court" under Indian Evidence Act, 1872

All Judges

All Magistrates

All persons legally authorised to take evidence

Arbitrator

40. "Any such fact which possesses probative force, is called evidence." The definition belongs to whom of the following

Salmond

Stephen

Phipson

Bentham

41. Which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act makes relevant, the opinions as to existence of custom

Section 47

Section 49

Section 48

Section 50

42. Who can make an admission under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Person from whom interest is derived

An independent person

Witness to a proceeding

The court

43. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, opinion as to handwriting has been considered to be relevant

Section 85-A

Section 47

Section-113 B

Section 114-A

44. For an offence under Section 376 of Indian Penal Code, the evidence of character of the victim is not relevant under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Section 52

Section 54

Section 55

Section 53-A

45. Dudhnath Pandey Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, is a case which is related in the law of evidence with the topic of

Res Gestae

Plea of Alibi

Admission

Accomplice

46. 'Presumption of life' is contained under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Section 108

Section 106

Section 104

Section 107

47. 'Relevancy' and 'admissibility' under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 are the terms which are

synonymous

co-extensive

neither synonymous nor co-extensive

synonymous and co-extensive both

48. Which one of the following term is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Motive

Intention

Preparation

Conduct

49. Confession of one accused person is relevant against another co-accused person under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act 1872

Under Section 26

Under Section 27

Under Section 40

Under Section 30

50. Oral evidence under section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 must be

direct only

hearsay

both and of above

None of the above

51. Public documents are mentioned under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in

Section 72

Section 73

Section 74

Section 75

52. Which one of the following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay under law of evidence

Dying declaration

res gestae

confession

expert's opinion

53. 'Test identification parade' under the law of evidence is

substantive evidence

corroborative evidence

hearsay evidence

no evidence

54. When can prosecution be allowed to ask leading questions to it's own witness

In examination-in-chief

When witness is declared hostile

In re-examination

In no circumstances

55. Which of the following section/s of Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders relating to professional communications

Section 128 only

Section 130 only

Section 133 and Section 134

Section 126 and Section 127

56. Which one of the following is NOT the pre-requisite of presumption as to dowry-death under Section 113-B of Indian Evidence Act

Victim was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or relatives.

Such cruelty or harassment was for or in connection of any demand for dowry.

Victim had illicit relationship with other male person.

Such cruelty or harassment was done within seven years of marriage.

57. The principle that 'possession is prima facie proof of ownership" is contained under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in

Section 111

Section 110

Section 116

Section 117

58. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a public document can be proved by

Oral evidence

affidavit of giver of document

Certified copy

None of the above

59. Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or sign, shall be deemed to be

documentary evidence

oral evidence

circumstantial evidence

None of the above

60. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies where there is a dispute regarding the

maternity of a child

paternity of a child

both and

None of the above

61. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 relates to which Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Section 113-A, 113-B, 114-A

Section 113-B, 114-A

Section 113-A, 114, 146

Section 114-A, 119, 146

62. Any private person may arrest any person who in his presence commits a

Cognizable offence

Non-bailable offence

Cognizable and non-bailable offence

Non-congnizable and non-bailable offence

63. Magistrate may convert summon case into warrant case during trial in the interest of justice, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term

exceeding three years

exceeding two years

exceeding one year

exceeding six months

64. No court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with not more than three years, after the expiry of

one year

two years

three years

four years

65. Under Section 248(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure

Conviction and sentence can be passed on the same day.

Conviction and sentence cannot be passed on the same day.

Both and are true.

Both and are false.

66. In the writ petition of constable 243 C.P. Mohan Singh Others Vs. State of Uttarakhand Others (2014) Utt.H.C., the fact-in-issue is related to

promotion

suspension

dismissal

superannuation

67. Which section of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007 defines 'witness'

Section

Section 2

Section

Section

68. Under the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, who is empowered to create Railway Police Districts

Director General of Police

Superintendent of Police

State Government

Governor

69. Who can make regulations for prevention or investigation of crimes and maintenance of law and order

Subject to the approval of State Government, the Director General of Police

Director General of Police independently

Governor

Home Secretary

70. Before whom the Annual Report of the State Police Complaints Authority shall be laid

State Police Board

State Human Rights Commission

State Assembly

Director General of Police

71. Who shall be the chairperson of Uttarakhand State Police Board

Chief Minister

Home Minister

Director General of Police

Governor

72. Who shall be the chairperson of Police Establishment Committee

Home Minister

Home Secretary

Chief Minister

Director General of Police

73. In exceptional circumstances, who is authorised to direct the police force and armed police units in Revenue Police Area

Governor

Director General of Police

District Magistrate

Home Secretary

74. Which of the following sections of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, permits the police officer to take charge of unclaimed movable property not being a case-property

Section 44

Section 46

Section 45

Section 43

75. Who is empowered to frame rules for witness protection as a measure of human rights protection

State Government

State Human Rights Commission

Governor

Director General of Police

76. Which chapter of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007 is related to the police accountability

Chapter VI

Chapter VII

Chapter VIII

Chapter IX

77. 'Police Personnel' means such police officers, whose appointing authority is

State Public Service Commission

Director General of Police or Any Officer Subordinate to him

Staff Selection Commission

State Government

78. A person may be appointed as an Independent Member of State Police Board, for a term of

1 year

3 years

5 years

2 years

79. Who among the followings may establish Bureau of Police Research and Development

Chief Minister

Governor

State Government

Director General of Police

80. The State Police Complaints Committee, shall forward the complaints of misconduct received by it for further action to the

Director General of Police

State Police Board

State Government

State Administrative Tribunal

81. Directorate of Prosecution may be established by the

Central Government

High Court

State Government

State Government in consultation with Central Government only

82. Officer-in-charge of Police Station shall report the cases of all persons arrested without warrant to

Chief Judicial Magistrate

District Judge

State Government

District Magistrate

83. A warrant of arrest may be executed

within the limits of police-station executing it

within the jurisdiction of the court issued it

at any place in India

within the territory of that State only

84. Security for keeping peace and good behaviour from habitual offenders may be ordered by the

Chief Judicial Magistrate

Executive Magistrate

Judicial Magistrate I class

All of the above

85. Imprisonment for failure to give security for keeping the peace, shall be

rigorous

simple

either simple or rigorous

None of the above

86. In which of following case, prosecution witness was prosecuted for perjury

Nitish Katara Case (2007)

Priyadarshini Matto Case (2006)

Jessica Lal Case (2007)

None of the above

87. In which of the following case, it was held that High Court cannot directly entertain bail application of POTA accused without the refusal by special court

State of Gujarat Vs. S.A. Sheikh

State of Maharashtra Vs. S.K. Dunde

State of Gujarat Vs. Santosh Kumar

State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. S.N. Srivastav

88. In which of the following case, it was held that the provisions of Section 164 of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is to be strictly complied with

Rajesh Ranjan Vs. C.B.I. 2007 SC. 451

Babu Bhai Udai Singh Parmar Vs. State of Gujarat 2007 SC. 420

Naveen Chandra Vs. State of Uttaranchal 2007 SC. 313

Amit Sigh Vs. State of Punjab 2007 SC. 132

89. Right of an arrested indigent person to free legal aid and to be informed about was upheld in

M.C.S. Rao Vs. State of Mysore (1972) Cr. LJ 405

Vergese John Vs. State of Kerala (1995) KLT 374

Khatri Vs. State of Bihar (1981) 1 SCC 627

Lalita Kumari Vs. State of U.P. (2012) 4 SCC 1

90. Conditional order for removal of nuisance may be passed by

Magistrate I Class

District Judge

Chief Judicial Magistrate

District Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate, both

91. Under which of the following Sections of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, an order of "injunction" may be issued by the Executive Magistrate

Section 141

Section 142

Section 143

Section 144

92. Any Magistrate, who has made an order of detention under Section 167 Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, shall forward a copy of his order to

Chief Judicial Magistrate

Session Judge

District Magistrate

All of the above

93. During trial and before the charge has been framed if complainant does not appear on the date fixed for his appearance, the Magistrate may

discharge the accused

makeover the case

acquit the accused

All of the above

94. The composition of an offence under Section 320 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall have the effect of

discharge

acquittal

release

All of the above

95. Under the Indian Constitution, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, has been kept in

Union List

State List

Concurrent List

None of the above

96. In which of the following case it was held that identity of the victim is not to be disclosed even in the judgement of the court

Navinchandra Vs. State of Uttaranchal, AIR 2007 SC. 363

Shashikant Vs. C.B.I. AIR 2007 SC. 351

Dinesh Vs. State of Rajasthan, AIR 2006 SC. 1267

None of the above

97. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 came in force on th rd

6April 2013

3February 2013

7th January 2013

None of the above

98. Which of the following is not correctly matched under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

Police Report, Section

Cognizable Offence, Section

Bailable Offence, Section

Investigation, Section

99. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, has not been inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013

Section 198-B

Section 357-B

Section 357-C

Section 55-A

100. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides that court will not alter the judgement after signing on it

Section 360

Section 361

Section 362

Section 462


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