Exam Details
| Subject | law | |
| Paper | ||
| Exam / Course | ||
| Department | ||
| Organization | Uttarakhand Public Service Commission | |
| Position | assistant prosecution officer | |
| Exam Date | 2016 | |
| City, State | uttarakhand, |
Question Paper
1. Which one of the following case is related to "joint liability" under Indian Penal Code
R Vs. Arnold
Mehbub Shah Vs. Emperor
R Vs. Heyens
R Vs. Prince
2. The provision that "act done in good faith for benefit of child or insane person, by or by consent of guardian" is provided under which section of the Indian Penal Code
Section 89
Section 88
Section 90
Section 87
3. "Z" under the influence of involuntary drunkenness attempts to kill "A". Here "Z" is guilty of the offence of
attempt to murder
murder
culpable homicide
no offence
4. "The presence of abettor when offence is committed" is provided in Indian Penal Code under
Section 117
Section 116
Section 113
Section 114
5. "A" without any excuse fires a loaded cannon into a crowd of persons and kills one of them. Here "A" has committed the offence of
culpable homicide
grievous hurt
murder
criminal force
6. Section 366-B of the Indian Penal Code is related to the offence of
importation of girl from foreign country
procuration of minor girl
kidnapping or abducting in order to murder
None of the above
7. "Attempt to commit robbery" is punishable under Indian Penal Code in
Section 390
Section 391
Section 392
Section 393
8. "A" by pledging as diamonds articles which he knows are not diamond, intentionally deceives "Z" and thereby dishonestly induces "Z" to lend money. Here "A" is guilty of the offence of
dishonest misappropriation of property
cheating
thuggy
robbery
9. Whoever, being the husband or relative of the husband of a woman, subjects to such woman to cruelty shall be punished with
imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years
fine only
imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine
None of the above
10. Under which of the following Sections of Indian Penal Code, "Marriage ceremony fraudulently gone through without lawful marriage" is punishable
Section 494
Section 496
Section 495
Section 498
11. In which of the following offence mens rea is not an essential element under Indian Penal Code
Bigamy
Murder
Theft
Robbery
12. Under Indian Penal Code, the offence of 'Stalking' has been defined
under Section 354-A
under Section 354-B
under Section 354-C
under Section 354-D
13. Gyan Kaur Vs. State of Punjab 1996 S.C., is related with which of the following offence
Murder
Culpable homicide
Attempt to commit suicide
Abetment to suicide
14. "A" is the lover of wife, and receives valuable property belonging to her husband, knowing she has no such authority, is guilty of offence of
cheating
theft
adultery
criminal misappropriation
15. Under which of the following offences of Indian Penal Code, even preparation to commit the offence is also punishable with rigorous imprisonment
Theft
Murder
Rape
Dacoity
16. instigate "B" to murder But the offence is however, not committed. Here "A" is liable
to fine of maximum 10,000
to imprisonment for up to 14 years and fine
to imprisonment for up to 7 years and fine
nothing, as no offence was committed
17. "A" causes cattle to enter upon a field belonging to "B" intending to cause and knowing that it is likely to cause damage to crop. "A" is the guilty of offence of
theft
criminal trespass
criminal misappropriation
mischief
18. "A" found "B" a feeble old woman, stealing his crop, and beats her so violently that she died. Here "A" would be liable for the offence of
causing grievous hurt
murder
culpable homicide
no offence on the basis of exercise of right of private defence of property
19. Which one of the following is NOT an essential element of the offence of acid-attack mentioned under Section 326-A of Indian Penal Code
Partial damage, deformity or burn
Maiming, disfigurement or disablement
Only bodily pain
Damage, disfigurement or grievous hurt
20. Where a man secretly capture images of a woman who was using washroom for changing her clothes, will be guilty for the offence under Indian Penal Code under
Section 354-C
Section 354
Section 354-B
Section 354-D
21. A man who monitors the use by a woman of internet, e-mail or any other form of electronic communication, commits the offence of
sexual harassment
criminal trespass
voyeurism
stalking
22. The famous pronouncement of Delhi High Court regarding constitutional validity of Section 377 Indian Penal Code, was reversed by the Supreme Court in
NALSA Vs. Union of India
Naz Foundation Vs. Govt. of NCT Delhi
Suresh Kaushal Vs. Naz Foundation
Shabnam Hasmi Vs. Union of India
23. For the offences relating to marriage under Indian Penal Code, the minimum punishment has been provided under
Section 493 and 494
Section 498
Section 497
Section 495
24. "A" enters "B" house through a window with a view to intimidate "B". Here "A" has committed the offence of
theft
extortion
house-breaking
None of the above
25. "A" pulls an ear-ring worn by a woman and thereby tears and wounds her ear badly. Here "A" is guilty for the offence of
mischief
robbery
extortion
misappropriation
26. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched
Section 366-A procuration of minor girl.
Section 372 selling minor for prostitution.
Section 376-B sexual intercourse by a man with his wife during separation.
Section 497 enticing away a married woman with criminal intent.
27. According to Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code "nothing is an offence which is committed by a child under"
14 years of age
16 years of age
7 years of age
15 years of age
28. The offence of 'dacoity' under Indian Penal Code may be committed by way of
theft only
extortion only
cheating only
robbery only
29. Under which section of Indian Penal Code, "the punishment for attempting to commit offences punishable with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment" is provided
under Section 508
under Section 509
under Section 511
under Section 510
30. The minimum number of persons to an agreement to be designated as criminal conspiracy under Section 120-A of the Indian Penal Code is
two
three
four
five
31. Under the Indian Penal Code, whosoever by force compels, or by deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, commit the offence of
kidnapping
abduction
wrongful restraint
abetment
32. Dishonest misappropriation of property possessed by the deceased person at the time of his death, is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code is
Section 402
Section 403
Section 405
Section 404
33. According to Section 304-B of Indian Penal Code, whoever commits "dowry death" is punished with imprisonment which is not less than
ten years
seven years
twelve years
twenty years
34. Which of the following offence was not inserted in the Indian Penal Code by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
Sexual harassment
Stalking
Voyeurism
Lurking house-trespass
35. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code "voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid" is an offence
Section 326
Section 326-A
Section 326-B
Section 326-C
36. Laxmi Vs. Union of India (2014) 4 SCC 427 is a case which is related to the offence of
acid attack
dowry death
murder
rape
37. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was enacted on the date of th st
6th october, 1860
1th March, 1874
15th March, 1872
1th september, 1872
38. Law of evidence consist of which of the followings
ordinary rules of reasoning
legal rules of evidence
rules of logic
All of the above
39. Which of the following is not included in the expression of "court" under Indian Evidence Act, 1872
All Judges
All Magistrates
All persons legally authorised to take evidence
Arbitrator
40. "Any such fact which possesses probative force, is called evidence." The definition belongs to whom of the following
Salmond
Stephen
Phipson
Bentham
41. Which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act makes relevant, the opinions as to existence of custom
Section 47
Section 49
Section 48
Section 50
42. Who can make an admission under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Person from whom interest is derived
An independent person
Witness to a proceeding
The court
43. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, opinion as to handwriting has been considered to be relevant
Section 85-A
Section 47
Section-113 B
Section 114-A
44. For an offence under Section 376 of Indian Penal Code, the evidence of character of the victim is not relevant under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Section 52
Section 54
Section 55
Section 53-A
45. Dudhnath Pandey Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, is a case which is related in the law of evidence with the topic of
Res Gestae
Plea of Alibi
Admission
Accomplice
46. 'Presumption of life' is contained under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Section 108
Section 106
Section 104
Section 107
47. 'Relevancy' and 'admissibility' under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 are the terms which are
synonymous
co-extensive
neither synonymous nor co-extensive
synonymous and co-extensive both
48. Which one of the following term is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Motive
Intention
Preparation
Conduct
49. Confession of one accused person is relevant against another co-accused person under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act 1872
Under Section 26
Under Section 27
Under Section 40
Under Section 30
50. Oral evidence under section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 must be
direct only
hearsay
both and of above
None of the above
51. Public documents are mentioned under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
Section 72
Section 73
Section 74
Section 75
52. Which one of the following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay under law of evidence
Dying declaration
resgestae
confession
expert's opinion
53. 'Test identification parade' under the law of evidence is
substantive evidence
corroborative evidence
hearsay evidence
no evidence
54. When can prosecution be allowed to ask leading questions to it's own witness
In examination-in-chief
When witness is declared hostile
In re-examination
In no circumstances
55. Which of the following section/s of Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders relating to professional communications
Section 128 only
Section 130 only
Section 133 and Section 134
Section 126 and Section 127
56. Which one of the following is NOT the pre-requisite of presumption as to dowry-death under Section 113-B of Indian Evidence Act
Victim was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or relatives.
Such cruelty or harassment was for or in connection of any demand for dowry.
Victim had illicit relationship with other male person.
Such cruelty or harassment was done within seven years of marriage.
57. The principle that 'possession is prima facie proof of ownership" is contained under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
Section 111
Section 110
Section 116
Section 117
58. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a public document can be proved by
Oral evidence
affidavit of giver of document
Certified copy
None of the above
59. Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or sign, shall be deemed to be
documentary evidence
oral evidence
circumstantial evidence
None of the above
60. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies where there is a dispute regarding the
maternity of a child
paternity of a child
both and
None of the above
61. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 relates to which Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Section 113-A, 113-B, 114-A
Section 113-B, 114-A
Section 113-A, 114, 146
Section 114-A, 119, 146
62. Any private person may arrest any person who in his presence commits a
Cognizable offence
Non-bailable offence
Cognizable and non-bailable offence
Non-congnizable and non-bailable offence
63. Magistrate may convert summon case into warrant case during trial in the interest of justice, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term
exceeding three years
exceeding two years
exceeding one year
exceeding six months
64. No court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with not more than three years, after the expiry of
one year
two years
three years
four years
65. Under Section 248(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure
Conviction and sentence can be passed on the same day.
Conviction and sentence cannot be passed on the same day.
Both and are true.
Both and are false.
66. In the writ petition of constable 243 C.P. Mohan Singh Others Vs. State of Uttarakhand Others (2014) Utt.H.C., the fact-in-issue is related to
promotion
suspension
dismissal
superannuation
67. Which section of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007 defines 'witness'
Section
Section
Section
Section
68. Under the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, who is empowered to create Railway Police Districts
Director General of Police
Superintendent of Police
State Government
Governor
69. Who can make regulations for prevention or investigation of crimes and maintenance of law and order
Subject to the approval of State Government, the Director General of Police
Director General of Police independently
Governor
Home Secretary
70. Before whom the Annual Report of the State Police Complaints Authority shall be laid
State Police Board
State Human Rights Commission
State Assembly
Director General of Police
71. Who shall be the chairperson of Uttarakhand State Police Board
Chief Minister
Home Minister
Director General of Police
Governor
72. Who shall be the chairperson of Police Establishment Committee
Home Minister
Home Secretary
Chief Minister
Director General of Police
73. In exceptional circumstances, who is authorised to direct the police force and armed police units in Revenue Police Area
Governor
Director General of Police
District Magistrate
Home Secretary
74. Which of the following sections of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, permits the police officer to take charge of unclaimed movable property not being a case-property
Section 44
Section 46
Section 45
Section 43
75. Who is empowered to frame rules for witness protection as a measure of human rights protection
State Government
State Human Rights Commission
Governor
Director General of Police
76. Which chapter of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007 is related to the police accountability
Chapter VI
Chapter VII
Chapter VIII
Chapter IX
77. 'Police Personnel' means such police officers, whose appointing authority is
State Public Service Commission
Director General of Police or Any Officer Subordinate to him
Staff Selection Commission
State Government
78. A person may be appointed as an Independent Member of State Police Board, for a term of
1 year
3 years
5 years
2 years
79. Who among the followings may establish Bureau of Police Research and Development
Chief Minister
Governor
State Government
Director General of Police
80. The State Police Complaints Committee, shall forward the complaints of misconduct received by it for further action to the
Director General of Police
State Police Board
State Government
State Administrative Tribunal
81. Directorate of Prosecution may be established by the
Central Government
High Court
State Government
State Government in consultation with Central Government only
82. Officer-in-charge of Police Station shall report the cases of all persons arrested without warrant to
Chief Judicial Magistrate
District Judge
State Government
District Magistrate
83. A warrant of arrest may be executed
within the limits of police-station executing it
within the jurisdiction of the court issued it
at any place in India
within the territory of that State only
84. Security for keeping peace and good behaviour from habitual offenders may be ordered by the
Chief Judicial Magistrate
Executive Magistrate
Judicial Magistrate I class
All of the above
85. Imprisonment for failure to give security for keeping the peace, shall be
rigorous
simple
either simple or rigorous
None of the above
86. In which of following case, prosecution witness was prosecuted for perjury
Nitish Katara Case (2007)
Priyadarshini Matto Case (2006)
Jessica Lal Case (2007)
None of the above
87. In which of the following case, it was held that High Court cannot directly entertain bail application of POTA accused without the refusal by special court
State of Gujarat Vs. S.A. Sheikh
State of Maharashtra Vs. S.K. Dunde
State of Gujarat Vs. Santosh Kumar
State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. S.N. Srivastav
88. In which of the following case, it was held that the provisions of Section 164 of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is to be strictly complied with
Rajesh Ranjan Vs. C.B.I. 2007 SC. 451
Babu Bhai Udai Singh Parmar Vs. State of Gujarat 2007 SC. 420
Naveen Chandra Vs. State of Uttaranchal 2007 SC. 313
Amit Sigh Vs. State of Punjab 2007 SC. 132
89. Right of an arrested indigent person to free legal aid and to be informed about was upheld in
M.C.S. Rao Vs. State of Mysore (1972) Cr. LJ 405
Vergese John Vs. State of Kerala (1995) KLT 374
Khatri Vs. State of Bihar (1981) 1 SCC 627
Lalita Kumari Vs. State of U.P. (2012) 4 SCC 1
90. Conditional order for removal of nuisance may be passed by
Magistrate I Class
District Judge
Chief Judicial Magistrate
District Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate, both
91. Under which of the following Sections of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, an order of "injunction" may be issued by the Executive Magistrate
Section 141
Section 142
Section 143
Section 144
92. Any Magistrate, who has made an order of detention under Section 167 Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, shall forward a copy of his order to
Chief Judicial Magistrate
Session Judge
District Magistrate
All of the above
93. During trial and before the charge has been framed if complainant does not appear on the date fixed for his appearance, the Magistrate may
discharge the accused
makeover the case
acquit the accused
All of the above
94. The composition of an offence under Section 320 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall have the effect of
discharge
acquittal
release
All of the above
95. Under the Indian Constitution, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, has been kept in
Union List
State List
Concurrent List
None of the above
96. In which of the following case it was held that identity of the victim is not to be disclosed even in the judgement of the court
Navinchandra Vs. State of Uttaranchal, AIR 2007 SC. 363
Shashikant Vs. C.B.I. AIR 2007 SC. 351
Dinesh Vs. State of Rajasthan, AIR 2006 SC. 1267
None of the above
97. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 came in force on th rd
6April 2013
3February 2013
7th January 2013
None of the above
98. Which of the following is not correctly matched under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Police Report, Section
Cognizable Offence, Section
Bailable Offence, Section
Investigation, Section
99. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, has not been inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
Section 198-B
Section 357-B
Section 357-C
Section 55-A
100. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides that court will not alter the judgement after signing on it
Section 360
Section 361
Section 362
Section 462
R Vs. Arnold
Mehbub Shah Vs. Emperor
R Vs. Heyens
R Vs. Prince
2. The provision that "act done in good faith for benefit of child or insane person, by or by consent of guardian" is provided under which section of the Indian Penal Code
Section 89
Section 88
Section 90
Section 87
3. "Z" under the influence of involuntary drunkenness attempts to kill "A". Here "Z" is guilty of the offence of
attempt to murder
murder
culpable homicide
no offence
4. "The presence of abettor when offence is committed" is provided in Indian Penal Code under
Section 117
Section 116
Section 113
Section 114
5. "A" without any excuse fires a loaded cannon into a crowd of persons and kills one of them. Here "A" has committed the offence of
culpable homicide
grievous hurt
murder
criminal force
6. Section 366-B of the Indian Penal Code is related to the offence of
importation of girl from foreign country
procuration of minor girl
kidnapping or abducting in order to murder
None of the above
7. "Attempt to commit robbery" is punishable under Indian Penal Code in
Section 390
Section 391
Section 392
Section 393
8. "A" by pledging as diamonds articles which he knows are not diamond, intentionally deceives "Z" and thereby dishonestly induces "Z" to lend money. Here "A" is guilty of the offence of
dishonest misappropriation of property
cheating
thuggy
robbery
9. Whoever, being the husband or relative of the husband of a woman, subjects to such woman to cruelty shall be punished with
imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years
fine only
imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine
None of the above
10. Under which of the following Sections of Indian Penal Code, "Marriage ceremony fraudulently gone through without lawful marriage" is punishable
Section 494
Section 496
Section 495
Section 498
11. In which of the following offence mens rea is not an essential element under Indian Penal Code
Bigamy
Murder
Theft
Robbery
12. Under Indian Penal Code, the offence of 'Stalking' has been defined
under Section 354-A
under Section 354-B
under Section 354-C
under Section 354-D
13. Gyan Kaur Vs. State of Punjab 1996 S.C., is related with which of the following offence
Murder
Culpable homicide
Attempt to commit suicide
Abetment to suicide
14. "A" is the lover of wife, and receives valuable property belonging to her husband, knowing she has no such authority, is guilty of offence of
cheating
theft
adultery
criminal misappropriation
15. Under which of the following offences of Indian Penal Code, even preparation to commit the offence is also punishable with rigorous imprisonment
Theft
Murder
Rape
Dacoity
16. instigate "B" to murder But the offence is however, not committed. Here "A" is liable
to fine of maximum 10,000
to imprisonment for up to 14 years and fine
to imprisonment for up to 7 years and fine
nothing, as no offence was committed
17. "A" causes cattle to enter upon a field belonging to "B" intending to cause and knowing that it is likely to cause damage to crop. "A" is the guilty of offence of
theft
criminal trespass
criminal misappropriation
mischief
18. "A" found "B" a feeble old woman, stealing his crop, and beats her so violently that she died. Here "A" would be liable for the offence of
causing grievous hurt
murder
culpable homicide
no offence on the basis of exercise of right of private defence of property
19. Which one of the following is NOT an essential element of the offence of acid-attack mentioned under Section 326-A of Indian Penal Code
Partial damage, deformity or burn
Maiming, disfigurement or disablement
Only bodily pain
Damage, disfigurement or grievous hurt
20. Where a man secretly capture images of a woman who was using washroom for changing her clothes, will be guilty for the offence under Indian Penal Code under
Section 354-C
Section 354
Section 354-B
Section 354-D
21. A man who monitors the use by a woman of internet, e-mail or any other form of electronic communication, commits the offence of
sexual harassment
criminal trespass
voyeurism
stalking
22. The famous pronouncement of Delhi High Court regarding constitutional validity of Section 377 Indian Penal Code, was reversed by the Supreme Court in
NALSA Vs. Union of India
Naz Foundation Vs. Govt. of NCT Delhi
Suresh Kaushal Vs. Naz Foundation
Shabnam Hasmi Vs. Union of India
23. For the offences relating to marriage under Indian Penal Code, the minimum punishment has been provided under
Section 493 and 494
Section 498
Section 497
Section 495
24. "A" enters "B" house through a window with a view to intimidate "B". Here "A" has committed the offence of
theft
extortion
house-breaking
None of the above
25. "A" pulls an ear-ring worn by a woman and thereby tears and wounds her ear badly. Here "A" is guilty for the offence of
mischief
robbery
extortion
misappropriation
26. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched
Section 366-A procuration of minor girl.
Section 372 selling minor for prostitution.
Section 376-B sexual intercourse by a man with his wife during separation.
Section 497 enticing away a married woman with criminal intent.
27. According to Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code "nothing is an offence which is committed by a child under"
14 years of age
16 years of age
7 years of age
15 years of age
28. The offence of 'dacoity' under Indian Penal Code may be committed by way of
theft only
extortion only
cheating only
robbery only
29. Under which section of Indian Penal Code, "the punishment for attempting to commit offences punishable with imprisonment for life or other imprisonment" is provided
under Section 508
under Section 509
under Section 511
under Section 510
30. The minimum number of persons to an agreement to be designated as criminal conspiracy under Section 120-A of the Indian Penal Code is
two
three
four
five
31. Under the Indian Penal Code, whosoever by force compels, or by deceitful means induces, any person to go from any place, commit the offence of
kidnapping
abduction
wrongful restraint
abetment
32. Dishonest misappropriation of property possessed by the deceased person at the time of his death, is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code is
Section 402
Section 403
Section 405
Section 404
33. According to Section 304-B of Indian Penal Code, whoever commits "dowry death" is punished with imprisonment which is not less than
ten years
seven years
twelve years
twenty years
34. Which of the following offence was not inserted in the Indian Penal Code by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
Sexual harassment
Stalking
Voyeurism
Lurking house-trespass
35. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code "voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid" is an offence
Section 326
Section 326-A
Section 326-B
Section 326-C
36. Laxmi Vs. Union of India (2014) 4 SCC 427 is a case which is related to the offence of
acid attack
dowry death
murder
rape
37. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was enacted on the date of th st
6th october, 1860
1th March, 1874
15th March, 1872
1th september, 1872
38. Law of evidence consist of which of the followings
ordinary rules of reasoning
legal rules of evidence
rules of logic
All of the above
39. Which of the following is not included in the expression of "court" under Indian Evidence Act, 1872
All Judges
All Magistrates
All persons legally authorised to take evidence
Arbitrator
40. "Any such fact which possesses probative force, is called evidence." The definition belongs to whom of the following
Salmond
Stephen
Phipson
Bentham
41. Which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act makes relevant, the opinions as to existence of custom
Section 47
Section 49
Section 48
Section 50
42. Who can make an admission under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Person from whom interest is derived
An independent person
Witness to a proceeding
The court
43. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, opinion as to handwriting has been considered to be relevant
Section 85-A
Section 47
Section-113 B
Section 114-A
44. For an offence under Section 376 of Indian Penal Code, the evidence of character of the victim is not relevant under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Section 52
Section 54
Section 55
Section 53-A
45. Dudhnath Pandey Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh, is a case which is related in the law of evidence with the topic of
Res Gestae
Plea of Alibi
Admission
Accomplice
46. 'Presumption of life' is contained under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Section 108
Section 106
Section 104
Section 107
47. 'Relevancy' and 'admissibility' under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 are the terms which are
synonymous
co-extensive
neither synonymous nor co-extensive
synonymous and co-extensive both
48. Which one of the following term is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Motive
Intention
Preparation
Conduct
49. Confession of one accused person is relevant against another co-accused person under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act 1872
Under Section 26
Under Section 27
Under Section 40
Under Section 30
50. Oral evidence under section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 must be
direct only
hearsay
both and of above
None of the above
51. Public documents are mentioned under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
Section 72
Section 73
Section 74
Section 75
52. Which one of the following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay under law of evidence
Dying declaration
resgestae
confession
expert's opinion
53. 'Test identification parade' under the law of evidence is
substantive evidence
corroborative evidence
hearsay evidence
no evidence
54. When can prosecution be allowed to ask leading questions to it's own witness
In examination-in-chief
When witness is declared hostile
In re-examination
In no circumstances
55. Which of the following section/s of Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders relating to professional communications
Section 128 only
Section 130 only
Section 133 and Section 134
Section 126 and Section 127
56. Which one of the following is NOT the pre-requisite of presumption as to dowry-death under Section 113-B of Indian Evidence Act
Victim was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or relatives.
Such cruelty or harassment was for or in connection of any demand for dowry.
Victim had illicit relationship with other male person.
Such cruelty or harassment was done within seven years of marriage.
57. The principle that 'possession is prima facie proof of ownership" is contained under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in
Section 111
Section 110
Section 116
Section 117
58. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a public document can be proved by
Oral evidence
affidavit of giver of document
Certified copy
None of the above
59. Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or sign, shall be deemed to be
documentary evidence
oral evidence
circumstantial evidence
None of the above
60. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies where there is a dispute regarding the
maternity of a child
paternity of a child
both and
None of the above
61. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 relates to which Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Section 113-A, 113-B, 114-A
Section 113-B, 114-A
Section 113-A, 114, 146
Section 114-A, 119, 146
62. Any private person may arrest any person who in his presence commits a
Cognizable offence
Non-bailable offence
Cognizable and non-bailable offence
Non-congnizable and non-bailable offence
63. Magistrate may convert summon case into warrant case during trial in the interest of justice, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term
exceeding three years
exceeding two years
exceeding one year
exceeding six months
64. No court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable with not more than three years, after the expiry of
one year
two years
three years
four years
65. Under Section 248(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure
Conviction and sentence can be passed on the same day.
Conviction and sentence cannot be passed on the same day.
Both and are true.
Both and are false.
66. In the writ petition of constable 243 C.P. Mohan Singh Others Vs. State of Uttarakhand Others (2014) Utt.H.C., the fact-in-issue is related to
promotion
suspension
dismissal
superannuation
67. Which section of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007 defines 'witness'
Section
Section
Section
Section
68. Under the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, who is empowered to create Railway Police Districts
Director General of Police
Superintendent of Police
State Government
Governor
69. Who can make regulations for prevention or investigation of crimes and maintenance of law and order
Subject to the approval of State Government, the Director General of Police
Director General of Police independently
Governor
Home Secretary
70. Before whom the Annual Report of the State Police Complaints Authority shall be laid
State Police Board
State Human Rights Commission
State Assembly
Director General of Police
71. Who shall be the chairperson of Uttarakhand State Police Board
Chief Minister
Home Minister
Director General of Police
Governor
72. Who shall be the chairperson of Police Establishment Committee
Home Minister
Home Secretary
Chief Minister
Director General of Police
73. In exceptional circumstances, who is authorised to direct the police force and armed police units in Revenue Police Area
Governor
Director General of Police
District Magistrate
Home Secretary
74. Which of the following sections of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, permits the police officer to take charge of unclaimed movable property not being a case-property
Section 44
Section 46
Section 45
Section 43
75. Who is empowered to frame rules for witness protection as a measure of human rights protection
State Government
State Human Rights Commission
Governor
Director General of Police
76. Which chapter of Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007 is related to the police accountability
Chapter VI
Chapter VII
Chapter VIII
Chapter IX
77. 'Police Personnel' means such police officers, whose appointing authority is
State Public Service Commission
Director General of Police or Any Officer Subordinate to him
Staff Selection Commission
State Government
78. A person may be appointed as an Independent Member of State Police Board, for a term of
1 year
3 years
5 years
2 years
79. Who among the followings may establish Bureau of Police Research and Development
Chief Minister
Governor
State Government
Director General of Police
80. The State Police Complaints Committee, shall forward the complaints of misconduct received by it for further action to the
Director General of Police
State Police Board
State Government
State Administrative Tribunal
81. Directorate of Prosecution may be established by the
Central Government
High Court
State Government
State Government in consultation with Central Government only
82. Officer-in-charge of Police Station shall report the cases of all persons arrested without warrant to
Chief Judicial Magistrate
District Judge
State Government
District Magistrate
83. A warrant of arrest may be executed
within the limits of police-station executing it
within the jurisdiction of the court issued it
at any place in India
within the territory of that State only
84. Security for keeping peace and good behaviour from habitual offenders may be ordered by the
Chief Judicial Magistrate
Executive Magistrate
Judicial Magistrate I class
All of the above
85. Imprisonment for failure to give security for keeping the peace, shall be
rigorous
simple
either simple or rigorous
None of the above
86. In which of following case, prosecution witness was prosecuted for perjury
Nitish Katara Case (2007)
Priyadarshini Matto Case (2006)
Jessica Lal Case (2007)
None of the above
87. In which of the following case, it was held that High Court cannot directly entertain bail application of POTA accused without the refusal by special court
State of Gujarat Vs. S.A. Sheikh
State of Maharashtra Vs. S.K. Dunde
State of Gujarat Vs. Santosh Kumar
State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. S.N. Srivastav
88. In which of the following case, it was held that the provisions of Section 164 of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is to be strictly complied with
Rajesh Ranjan Vs. C.B.I. 2007 SC. 451
Babu Bhai Udai Singh Parmar Vs. State of Gujarat 2007 SC. 420
Naveen Chandra Vs. State of Uttaranchal 2007 SC. 313
Amit Sigh Vs. State of Punjab 2007 SC. 132
89. Right of an arrested indigent person to free legal aid and to be informed about was upheld in
M.C.S. Rao Vs. State of Mysore (1972) Cr. LJ 405
Vergese John Vs. State of Kerala (1995) KLT 374
Khatri Vs. State of Bihar (1981) 1 SCC 627
Lalita Kumari Vs. State of U.P. (2012) 4 SCC 1
90. Conditional order for removal of nuisance may be passed by
Magistrate I Class
District Judge
Chief Judicial Magistrate
District Magistrate or Sub-divisional Magistrate, both
91. Under which of the following Sections of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, an order of "injunction" may be issued by the Executive Magistrate
Section 141
Section 142
Section 143
Section 144
92. Any Magistrate, who has made an order of detention under Section 167 Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, shall forward a copy of his order to
Chief Judicial Magistrate
Session Judge
District Magistrate
All of the above
93. During trial and before the charge has been framed if complainant does not appear on the date fixed for his appearance, the Magistrate may
discharge the accused
makeover the case
acquit the accused
All of the above
94. The composition of an offence under Section 320 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall have the effect of
discharge
acquittal
release
All of the above
95. Under the Indian Constitution, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, has been kept in
Union List
State List
Concurrent List
None of the above
96. In which of the following case it was held that identity of the victim is not to be disclosed even in the judgement of the court
Navinchandra Vs. State of Uttaranchal, AIR 2007 SC. 363
Shashikant Vs. C.B.I. AIR 2007 SC. 351
Dinesh Vs. State of Rajasthan, AIR 2006 SC. 1267
None of the above
97. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 came in force on th rd
6April 2013
3February 2013
7th January 2013
None of the above
98. Which of the following is not correctly matched under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Police Report, Section
Cognizable Offence, Section
Bailable Offence, Section
Investigation, Section
99. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, has not been inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
Section 198-B
Section 357-B
Section 357-C
Section 55-A
100. Which of the following section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides that court will not alter the judgement after signing on it
Section 360
Section 361
Section 362
Section 462