1. Which of the Articles of the Constitution of India empowers the President to appoint acting Chief Justice of a High Court?

Article 223

Article 224

Article 224-A

Article 225

2. Who shall be the Chairman of the Council of States in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India?

President of India

Vice-President of India

Prime Minister of India

None of the above

3. The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act was passed in the year?

2012

2013

2014

None is correct

4. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was enacted in India in the year:

2014

2013

2012

2011

5. The National Food Security Act was passed in the year:

2012

2013

2014

None of the above

6. Territorial water limit of India is

3 Nautical miles

6 Nautical miles

12 Nautical miles

None of the above

7. Which one of the following rules is related to Extradition?

Rule of Speciality

Rule of Double Criminality

Both and

None of the above

8. Who defined Neutrality as "The attitude of impartiality adopted by Third States towards belligerents and recognized by belligerents, such attitude creating rights and duties between the impartial states and the belligerents"?

J. G. Starke

L. Oppenheim

J. L. Brierly

Hall

9. Which of the following is not a specialised agency of the United Nations?

UNESCO

International Labour Organisation

Economic and Social Council

All the above

10. On whom the members of United Nations confer primary responsibility for the maintenance of International peace and security?

Security Council

International Court of Justice

Secretary General

None of the above

11. Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961 came into force on:

April 18, 1961

April 24, 1961

April 24, 1964

None of the above

12. Who made the observation "Jurisprudence is Lawyer's extraversion"?

Jhon Austin

Stone

Cicero

C.K. Allen

13. Which is not jural-correlative in the following pairs?

Right-Duty

Liberty-No-right

Immunity-Disability

Power-Disability

14. The commission on the status of women was established by the:

Economic and Social Council

General Assembly

United Nations Secretariat

Security Council

15. Which of the following can enforce the judgement of the International Court of Justice?

General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council

Secretary General

Security Council on the request of the International Court of Justice

None of the above

16. National Human Rights Commission in India came into force from:

28th September, 1993

18th December, 1993

1st January, 1994

12th October, 1993

17. The recommendations of the National Human Rights Commission is:

Binding

Advisory

Both and

None of the above

18. The head quarter of World Bank is situated at:

Geneva

New York

Paris

Washington D.C.

19. Who among the following was hanged by the British Government in regard to the 'Kakori Conspiracy'?

Bhagat Singh

Chandra Shekhar Azad

Ram Prasad Bismil

Batukeshwar Dutt

20. On whose recommendation amongst the followings the Constituent Assembly was constituted?

Crips Mission

Webel Mission

Lord Mountbatten

Cabinet Mission Plan

21. Ashok Mehta Committee was related to the:

Centre-State Relations

Economic Reforms

Panchayati Raj

None of the above

22. Power to constitute new states and its determination of boundary vests in:

Parliament

Vice-President

Governor

None of the above

23. Who is the Chairman of National Development Council?

President

Prime Minister

Finance Minister

None of the above

24. 'Carry Forward Rule' was held as ultra-vires in the case of:

Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India

Devadasan Vs. Union of India

Pradeep Tandon Vs. State of U.P.

None of the above

25. 'Hicklin Test' under Article is related to:

Decency and morality

Defamation

Integrity of India

None of the above

26. Dispute between states in India comes to the Supreme Court under:

Appellate Jurisdiction

Original Jurisdiction

Advisory Jurisdiction

None of the above

27. Which amendment under the Indian Constitution provides for the reservation in Panchayats to the Women?

77th Amendment

75th Amendment

74th Amendment

73rd Amendment

28. To whom the President of India tenders his resignation?

Prime Minister

Vice-President

Chief Justice of India

Parliament

29. In which organ of United Nations, the membership has been enlarged twice by amending U.N. Charter

International Court of Justice

Security Council

Trusteeship Council

Economic and Social Council

30. The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on:

9th December, 1946

15th August,1947

26th November, 1949

10th January, 1948

31. Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council?

Britain

United States of America

Japan

China

32. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

Sri. B.N. Rau

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

33. The present Lok Sabha is:

Thirteenth

Fourteenth

Fifteenth

Sixteenth

34. Which of the following Amendments Act of the Constitution provided for the appointment of one person as Governor of two or more states?

2nd Amendment

3rd Amendment

5th Amendment

7th Amendment

35. Who amongst the following has drafted the Preamble to the Indian Constitution:

Mr. Rajendra Prasad

Mr. Jawahar Lal Nehru

Mr. B.R. Ambedkar

Mr. Vallabh Bhai Patel

36. In which of the following subjects India has recently in 2014 signed an agreement with Russia:

Environment

Defence

Atomic Energy Co-operation

Health

37. In which of the following countries 8th summit was held in 2014?

India

Bangladesh

Nepal

Pakistan

38. In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 is a under Article 13?

Sajjan Singh Vs. State of Rajsthan

Shankari Prasad Vs. Union of India

Kesvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala

Goloknath Vs. State of Punjab

39. Doctrine of Prospective over-ruling was approved for the first time in Constitutional interpretation in the case of:

Kesvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala

Goloknath Vs. State of Punjab

A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras

Charanjitlal Vs. Union of India

40. The General Assembly of the U.N. cannot be said to be a "World Parliament", because:

It cannot legislate for the States of the World;

Its resolutions do not have binding force upon the member states;

It cannot intervene in the matters of domestic jurisdiction of any state member;

All of the above

41. In which section of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 the word 'Domestic Violence' has been defined?

Section 4

Section 3

Section 6

Section 5

42. By which amendment Act schedule-IX was inserted in Indian Constitution?

44th Amendment Act

25th Amendment Act

42nd Amendment Act

1st Amendment Act

43. Where the G-7 summit in June 2014 was held?

Oofa

Brussels

Durban

Loskebas

44. Which convention was related to Prisoners of War, cruelty and collective penalties and formulated for providing medical and other facilities to the prisoners of war?

Kellog-Briand Paris Pact (1928)

Geneva Convention (1929)

Declaration of Paris (1856)

Hague Conference (1907)

45. Who has been awarded by highest award of Japan as "The Grand Carden of the order of Palonia flowers" recently?

Mr. Narendra Modi

Dr. Manmohan Singh

Mr. Nawaz Sharif

None of the above

46. "A person convicted by the court may be punished, only in accordance with the statute", is the meaning of which maxim amongst the below?

Nullum Crimen Sine lege

Nemo propria causa judex csse debet

Nulla poena sine lege

None of the above

47. What is the right sequence of the followings

The United Nations declarations
The Atlantic Charter
The Declaration of St. Jemes Palace
Sanfrancisco Conference

4

1

4

1

48. Which Articles amongst the following were added by the 97th Amendment Act of Indian Constitution?

Art 243(P) to Art 243

Art 243 to Art 243

Art 243 to Art 243

Art 243 to Art 243

49. In which of the following cases it has been observed that Prime Minister and Chief Ministers of the States are subject to the Doctrine of Constitutional Trust?

Dr. Subramaniyam Swami Vs. Director, CBI (2014)

Manoj Narula Vs. Union of India (2014)

Ashraf Kokur Vs. K.V. Abdul Qudir (2014)

Vishwajeet Bhattacharya Vs. Union of India (2014)

50. Auto limitation theory is related to:

Succession

Recognition

State jurisdiction

Regarding the basis of International Law

51. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the maxim "SALUS POPULI SUPREMALEX" is related to

Section 121

Section 122

Section 123

Section 124

52. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not deal with the criminal matters:

Section 23

Section 27

Section 53

Section 133

53. The term "Judicial notice" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, means:

Notice given by the court

Information given to the court

To ask for evidence

To recognise without proof something as existing

54. Court can presume about the legality of digital signature on electronic record under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 when it is:

30 years old

15 years old

5 years old

12 years old

55. "Presumption of fact" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

is based on logic, human experience and natural events and law of nature

is based on provisions of law

cannot be ignored by the court

is of certain and uniform position

56. The contents of electronic records may be proved under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in accordance with the provisions of:

Section 65 C

Section 65 B

Section 66 B

Section 66 C

57. Electronic record presented for inspection of the court under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is

Electronic evidence

Documentary evidence

Oral evidence

Modern evidence

58. Which of the following is correctly matched according to Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Refreshing memory Section 158

Identification parade Section 10

Admission Section 24

None of the above

59. "Written document must be proved by writing only", this maxim has been incorporated under which of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Section 87

Section 91

Section 121

None of the above

60. Where the court has to form an opinion as to electronic signature of any person, the opinion of the certifying authority which has issued the electronic signature certificate is:

Fact in issue

Relevant fact

Proved fact

None of the above

61. Which kind of agreement can be presumed by the court under section 85-A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

Written agreement

Oral agreement

Electronic agreement

None of the above

62. Presumption of dowry death which is mentioned under section113-B of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been incorporated by the Amendment Act of:

1983

1984

2000

1986

63. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a declaration made in course of business is admissible under:

Section 32

Section 32

Section 32

Section 32

64. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings may be asked under:

Section 146

Section 147

Section 148

Such questions cannot be asked

65. Which kind of jurisdiction is not mentioned under section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

Probate

Admirality

Insolvency

Revenue

66. Kaushal Rao Vs. State of Bombay A.I.R-1958 S.C. 22 is related with which topic of the law of evidence:

Confession

Admission

Dying declaration

Estoppel

67. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not expressly mention about:

Oral Evidence

Documentary Evidence

Secondary Evidence

Circumstantial Evidence

68. The question is whether "A" was ravished? The fact that without making a complaint, she said that she has been ravished is:

Relevant as conduct

Admissible as conduct

Not relevant as conduct

A subject matter of enquiry

69. Where a document is executed in several parts, there:

each part is a primary evidence of the document

each part cannot be primary evidence of the document

each counter part is secondary evidence

only main part is primary while rest is secondary evidence of the document

70. "Nothing in section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 shall be taken to exempt any barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil from giving evidence of any matter of which he may be compelled to give evidence" is provided by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, under:

Section 127

Section 128

Section 129

Section 126

71. The fact of which the court will take judicial notice under Indian Evidence Act, 1872:

need to be proved

is optional to be proved

need not to be proved

is better to be proved

72. As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is:

to provide, define and amend the law of evidence

to provide, consolidate the law of evidence

to define and amend the law of evidence

to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence

73. In criminal proceedings against any person, the husband or wife of such person, shall be:

Competent witness

Incompetent witness

Competent witness only if they are major and with the consent of other

Competent witness only if they are sane and with the consent of other

74. A contingent of police led by Sub-Inspector is on patrolling duty at night. They are attacked by two criminals in which one constable is severely injured and criminals escaped with their property. Here, a case can be made under Indian Penal Code 1860 for the offence of:

Theft

Dacoity

Robbery

Mischief

75. Revealing the identity or name of victim of rape is punishable under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code 1860:

Section 354 D

Section 376 E

Section 229

Section 228 A

76. Which of the following factors separate robbery from dacoity:

Time

Property

Number

Place

77. "A" gave poisioned "Halwa" (sweet dish) to "B" with intention to kill him. "B" ate one spoon and kept it on the side. "C" who was sitting there, picked up and ate it. "C" dies. Here "A" is guilty of:

Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

Offence of murder of "C"

Here "A" is not guilty of murder as he never intended to kill "C"

Causing grievous hurt

78. The maxim " ignorantia juris non excusat" means:

Ignorance of law is no excuse

Ignorance of fact is no excuse

Ignorance of law is an excuse

Ignorance of fact is an excuse

79. The plea of "sudden and grave provocation" under Section 300 Exception of the Indian Penal Code 1860 is

Question of law

Question of fact

Mixed question of law and fact

Presumption under law

80. "Common Intention" and "similar intention" was distinguished in the famous case of

Barendra K. Ghosh Vs. King 1925 P.C. 1

Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor 1943 P.C. 118

Kripal Singh Vs. State of U.P. 1954 S.C. 706

Rishidev Pandey Vs. State of U.P. 1955 S.C. 331

81. The "appropriate government" may commute the sentence of death of an accused person to any other sentence:

With the consent of the accused

With the consent of relatives of accused

With the consent of advocate of the accused

Without the consent of the accused

82. "Necessity" as a defence cannot be claimed when the act has been done:

With good faith

Without criminal intent

With inherent risk of causing harm

For avoiding other greater harm

83. "X" who stole jewellery from a jeweller's shop caused fear of instant hurt to "Z" who tried to stop him while carrying away the stolen watch. Here "X" can be held liable for the offence of:

Extortion

Robbery

Theft

Dacoity

84. Transgender has been recognised as third gender with all rights and a right to reservation by the Supreme Court in the case of:

NAZ Foundation Vs. Govt. of NCT (Delhi)

Baljit Singh Vs. State of Haryana

NALSA Vs. Union of India

Vajresh Venkatray Anvekar Vs. State of Karnataka

85. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable offence under Indian Penal Code 1860, under:

Section 354 A

Section 354 C

Section 354 B

Section 354 D

86. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code 1860, under:

Section 326 A

Section 326 B

Section 228 A

Section 228

87. Which of the following is an offence of continuing under Indian Penal Code, 1860?

Rape

Theft

Abetment

Abduction

88. The offence of destruction of electronic record to prevent it's production as an evidence is punishable under Indian Panel Code 1860 under

Section 201

Section 204

Section 203

Section 202

89. The term "Harbour" defined under Indian Penal Code 1860, does not include

Supplying a person with shelter

Supplying a person means of conveyance

Assisting a person to evade apprehension

Prior to the commission of the offence, facilitating the commission therof

90. "A" incites a dog to spring upon "Z" without "Z" consent with intention to annoy "Z". Here "A" has committed the offence of:

Criminal force

Assault

Attempt to cause hurt

Defamation

91. "A" a police officer tortures "Z" in order to induce "Z" to confess that he has committed a crime. Here "A" is guilty of the offence of:

Assault

Causing hurt to extort confession

Causing criminal force

Attempt to cause hurt

92. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:

Section 376 A

Section 376 B

Section 166 166 354 C

All of the above

93. The right of private defence does not extend to cause death of the offender, in which of the following offences:

Rape

Kidnapping

Gratifying un-natural lust

Causing miscarriage

94. When a women was taking bath in her bathroom, "X" captures the image in his mobile and upload it on her facebook page. What offence has been committed by

Sexual assault

Insulting the modesty of a woman

Voyeurism

Stalking

95. Which of the following is not a "sine qua non" for making a person criminally liable:

Actus reus

Mens rea

Motive

All the above

96. "A" under the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill "B". "B" in attempting to defend himself caused grievous hurt to "A". Here:

"A" is liable for attempt to murder and "B" is liable for causing hurt

"A" commits no offence and "B" is liable for grievous hurt

"B" commits no offence and "A" is liable for attempt to murder

Both "A" and "B" are excused from liability

97. Statements under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 are recorded by the police:

During trial

Before investigation

During investigation

During inquiry

98. Under section 190 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, cognizance of offence is taken by the:

Judicial Magistrate

Session Judge

High Court

District Magistrate

99. During trial, statements of an accused person are recorded by the court under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, under:

Section 311

Section 312

Section 313

Section 314

100. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, charges may be added or altered under:

Section 211

Section 212

Section 215

Section 216

101. Under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 in a warrant case instituted on police-report, the trial begins when:

Charges are framed

Accused appears

Witnesses are examined

None of the above

102. In which of the following trials under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, hearing of the accused on sentence is not necessary:

In Session Trial

In trial of warrant case

In trial of summon case

In all of the above

103. "A" commits robbery on "B" and in doing so voluntarily causes hurt to him. Whether "A" may be separately charged under section 323, 392, and 394 of the Indian Penal Code 1860?

Yes

No

With the permission of Session Court

Depends upon the discretion of the court

104. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect on:

6th April 2013

3rd February 2013

7th January 2013

5th March 2013

105. Any dispute relating to the possession of immovable property under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is decided by the

Judicial Magistrate

High Court Judge

Session Judge

Executive Magistrate

106. An accused person may be a competent witness in his own defence under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, in:

Section 312

Section 313

Section 315

Section 316

107. The classification of offences has been given under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, under:

Section 320

I Schedule

II Schedule

Section 482

108. Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, does not apply to:

The complainant

The witness

The accused

A person who is neither a complainant or accused or a witness

109. A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, by:

Any police officer

The station police officer

The police officer investigating the case

None of the above

110. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a District Magistrate or Sub-Divisional Magistrate may prevent environmental pollution?

Under section 151

Under section 133

Under section 145

Under section 107

111. Treatment of the victim has been incorporated under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, under:

Section 198 B

Section 357 B

Section 357 C

None of the above

112. In a First-Information-Report, an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable, the whole case shall be deemed to be:

Cognizable

Non-Cognizable

It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case

It is to be seen whether it is a summon case

113. Which of the following statements is true:

State Government shall establish a Court of Session with the consultation of High Court

State Government shall establish a Court of Session

The High Court shall establish a Court of Session

The Supreme Court shall establish a Court of Session

114. The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following:

State of Tripura

State of Assam

State of Meghalya

State of Nagaland

115. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a charge shall be written in the:

Language which accused understands

Language which witnesses understands

Language of the Court

Hindi language

116. What is the maximum default sentence that can be awarded in case of non-payment of compensation under section 358 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:

60 days

30 days

90 days

120 days

117. An order passed by a Magistrate under section 446 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is appealable to:

Session Judge

District Magistrate

High Court

Supreme Court

118. If a person against whom an order under section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is made, appears and show cause against the order, the Magistrate shall:

Take evidence in the matter as in a summon case

Take evidence in the matter as a warrant case

Take evidence in the matter as an extraordinary case

Take no evidence

119. Which of the following is not an essential procedural requirement of section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 namely:

Warning to the accused

Confession to be made voluntarily

Recording of statement in presence of advocate of the accused

Memorandum at the foot of confession

120. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, provides for confirmation by the High Court an order of death penalty passed by Session Court prior to it's execution:

Section 366

Section 371

Section 369

Section 368

121. The term "Res Sub Judice" means:

Stay of suit

Stay of appeal

Stay of application

Stay of execution

122. Under section 100 of Civil Procedure Code 1908, "Second appeal" lies to the High Court only on the ground Question fact Both on question of fact and law

113. Substantial question of law Mixed question of law and fact 22 RNP

123. Which of the following person may not file an application for execution under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 namely:

A decree holder

Legal representative, if the decree holder is dead

A person claiming under decree holder

Judgement-debtor

124. Who may apply for reference under section 113 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908:

A party to suit

Court

Both and

None of the above

125. "It is a statement of claim, a document by presentation of which the suit is instituted". It is called as:

Affidavit

Written-statement

Counter-claim

Plaint

126. Order 42 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 deals with the:

Appeal to Supreme Court

Appeal by indigent person

Appeal from appellate decrees

Appeal against orders

127. Which one of the following provision of Civil Procedure Code 1908 is related to affidavit:

Order 17

Order 19

Order 26

Order 39

128. Under which provision of CPC a plaint is rejected by the courts in the absence of cause of action:

Order 7 Rule 11 Order 7 Rule 11



Order 7 Rule 11

Order 7 Rule 11

129. A "Caveat" shall not remain inforce after the expiry of:

30 days of it's filing

60 days of it's filing

90 days of it's filing

120 days of it's filing

130. Under which provision of CPC attachment before judgement is provided:

Order 39 Rule 2

Order 40 Rule 1

Section 96

Order 38 Rules 5-13

131. Execution of decree for specific performance for restitution of conjugal rights or for an injunction is provided under Civil Procedure Code 1908, under:

Order 21 Rule 30

Order 21 Rule 31

Order 21 Rule 32

Order 21 Rule 34

132. Maximum amount which a court may order for payment of compensatory cost in case of false or vexations claims or defences under Civil Procedure Code 1908, Rs Rs. Rs. Any amount

133. A "Garneeshe order" under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is issued to:

Judgement debtor

Judgement debtor's creditor

Decree holder

Judgement debtor's debtor

134. Which of the following order of CPC is related to "Set-off" and "counter-claims":

Order VI

Order VIII

Order VII

Order IX

135. Which of the following is not correctly matched according to Civil Procedure Code, 1908:

Legal Representative Section 50

Letter of Request Section 77

Notice Section 80

Res-Sub-Judice Section 11

136. Civil Procedure Code (Amendment) Act 2002, was enforced from:

1st April, 2002

1st June, 2002

1st July, 2002

6th June, 2002

137. During proceedings for execution of a decree, if question arises as whether any person is or is not the representative of a party, such question must be determined by:

The court which passed the decree

The court executing the decree

The appellate court

None of the above

138. Supplementary proceedings under Section 94 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not include:

Arrest before judgement

Attachment before judgement

Temporary injunctiojn

Appointment of executor

139. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 "Foreign Court" means:

A court situated outside India

A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India

A court situated in India, applying foreign law

All of the above

140. "Guardian at litem" used under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means:

A local commissioner

A court

A person defending a suit on behalf of a insane person

A person defending a suit on behalf of a minor

141. Under which of the following section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, divorce by mutual consent has been provided:

Section 13 A

Section 13 B

Section 11

Section 15

142. In which of the following reports, the Law Commission recommended the "Breakdown Principle" to be accepted as the additional ground for divorce:

In 70th report

In 72nd report

In 71th report

In none of the above

143. When a child of opposite sex is proposed to be adopted, the adopter must be senior to it in age by at least:

18 years

21 years

16 years

14 years

144. Under Hindu Adoption Maintenance Act, 1956 mandatory requirement for adoption of a child is:

Giving and taking

Duttak homan (Hawan)

Both and

None of the above

145. Which of the following is not a ground for divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:

Insanity

Leporsys

Epilipsy

Veneral disease

146. According to court rulings, custody of a Hindu child upto the age of 5 years shall ordinarily be with the:

Father

Sister

Grand Father

Mother

147. During the pendency of appeal against the decree of divorce, the parties:

Are competent to solumnise second marriage

May contract another marriage with the leave of the court

Are not competent to contract another marriage and their incapacity to do so is absolute

None of the above

148. A boy of 16 years of age may validly be taken into adoption:

By law

By contract between parties

By consent of father of child

If customar usage applicable to parties so permits

149. Laxmikant Pandey Vs. Union of India, A.I.R. 1984 S.C. lays down the rule regarding:

Inter-country adoption

Inter-caste marriage

Inter-religion adoption

Rights of maintenance

150. Registration of marriage has been made compulsory by Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 under:

Section 12

Section 14

Section 8

Section 6

151. Section 14 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 imposes a ban for filing petition for:

Judicial Separation

Divorce

Viodable marriage

Void marriage

152. Every appeal from decrees or orders under section 28 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 shall be preferred within how many days from the date of decree or order:

Within 90 days

Within 60 days

Within 45 days

Within 30 days

153. Who is natural guardian of a married minor girl:

Father-in-law

Mother

Father

Husband

154. Which of the following ceremonies is/are obligatory under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for a valid marriage:

Kanyadan

Saptapadi

Customary rites and ceremories of either party

All of the above

155. Children born out of void or voidable marriage under sections 11 and 12 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 are deemed to be:

Illegitimate

Illegitimate but can inherit the property of their parents

Legitimate and can inherit all family property

Legitimate but can inherit the property of their parents only

156. A "Divorced" Hindu wife can claim maintanence under which of the following Acts:

Hindu Marriage Act only

Hindu Marriage Act and Criminal Procedure Code 1973

Hindu Adoption Maintenance Act, 1956 and Hindu Marriage Act

In all of the above

157. Rules relating to "Sapinda relationship" are based on the principle of:

Endogamy

Exogamy

Polygamy

Monogamy

158. The "Breakdown theory" of divorce is reflected by which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:

Section 13

Section 13

Section 13

Section 13 B

159. The petition for divorce by mutual consent may be presented according to Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, if the spouses have been living separately for a period of:

1 year

2 years

3 years

None of the above

160. The property of a Hindu woman dying intestate shall devolve firstly upon:

Heirs of mother

Heirs of father

Hiers of husband

Sons and daughters and the husband

161. Contingent interest in the property becomes a vested interest, on the happening of an uncertain event or when the happening of the event becomes:

Possible

Impossible

Probable to happen

All of the above

162. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is not applicable:

Where the transfer is by way of sale

Where the transfer is by way of gift

Where the transfer is by way of exchange

Where the transfer is by way of lease

163. Which one of the following section of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, deals with the "direction for accumulation":

Section 14

Section 17

Section 19

Section 18

164. Transfer of ownership of immovable property in exchange for a price paid or promised or partly paid or partly promised is called as:

Mortgage

Lease

Sale

Exchange

165. Section 56 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with:

Marshalling by subsequent purchaser

Contract for sale

Discharge of encumbrance on sale

None of the above

166. If the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, the gift is:

Voidable

Valid

Illegal

Void

167. Chapter VII of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not apply to transfers of property under:

Christian Law

Parsi Law

Mohemmadan Law

Hindu Law

168. Which one of the following is not a ground for determination of a lease:

Effuse of the time limited

Implied surrender

Expiration of notice of determination of lease

Death of the lessee

169. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for applicaton of rule of "lis pendens" under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:

Pendency of a suit or proceeding

Pendency in a competent court

Suit must be collusive

Alienation must affect the rights of other party

170. Find out the incorrect answer from the following:

Gift is the transfer of ownership without consideration

Gift should be accepted during the lifetime of the owner

If donee dies before acceptance, the gift is void

Gift may be made only of movable property

171. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force on:

1st August 1882

1st July 1882

1st September 1882

1st October 1882

172. According to Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the term "living person" includes:

A human being only

Only important company or associations

Company or associations or body of individuals

None of the above

173. Which one of the following condition is invalid according to Section 10 of Transfer of Property Act, 1882:

A condition not to sell outside the family

A condition not to sell during the lifetime of the transferor

A condition not to sell to a person of different religion

A condition restraining sub-letting of leased property

174. Which one of the following is not an essential condition of Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:

The representation must necessarily be fraudulent

The transferor makes a representation that he is competent to transfer

Transfer is of immovable property

Transfer is for consideration

175. "Once a mortgage, always a mortgage" means

Mortgagor has no right to assign right of redemption to any person

Mortgagee has no right to assign the mortgagee debt to any other person

Mortgage cannot be redeemed after the expiry of a fixed period

Mortgage is always redeemable

176. Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with which following kinds of gift, namely

Gift inter-vivos

Gift moritis causa

Gift by will

All of the above

177. Which one of the following sections provides the statutory duties of a mortgage in possession

Section 77

Section 78

Section 79

Section 76

178. The provisions relating to "Onerous gift" have provided under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 in:

Section 127

Section 124

Section 125

Section 126

179. The Transfer of Property (Amendment) Act 2003, has amended which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:

Section 107

Section 106

Section 108

Section 100

180. The transferee of an actionable claim shall take it subject to all the liabilities and equities and to which the transferor was subject in respect thereof:

At the date of transfer

Before the date of transfer

After 15 days from the date of transfer

Before 15 days from the date of transfer

181. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, does not apply to:

Post transfer rights

Pecuniary rights

Pre-existing rights

Instant rights

182. Under which one of the following schools of Muslim Law "Muta Marriage" is recognised:

Hanifi school

Shafii school

Ismaili school

Ithna Asheri school

183. Where the person who performed "Nikah" is dead, the proof of marriage will be given by the:

Husband

Wife

Witness

Guardian

184. A Muslim widow remarries during the period of "iddat", the marriage is:

Valid

Fasid

Batil

None of the above

185. "Musha" under Muslim Law means:

An undivided share in the property

Share in a joint property after partition

Compensation in lieu of share in the property

None of the above

186. Under Muslim Law, a bequest can validly be made to a child in womb, so long it is born from the date of will within the period of:

3 months

6 months

9 months

10 months

187. Creating a "Waqf" means dedication of property to:

State

Himself

Family members

God

188. Shariat Act, 1937 contains only

12 sections

6 sections

15 sections

9 sections

189. According to Hanafi Law, a mother is entitled to the custody (Hizanat) of a male child till the age of:

12 years

18 years

7 years

21 years

190. "Khiyar-ul-bulug" means:

Option of puberty

A form of dower

A form of valid marriage

Infidelity

191. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 specifies certain grounds of divorce which are available to:

Husband as well as wife

Husband only

Wife only

None of them

192. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court, has recognized the validity of adoption of a child even by a Muslim:

Shabnam Hasmi Vs. Union of India others

Shabnam Bano Vs. Union of India

Roshnara Khatoon Vs. Union of India

Aisha Qureshi Vs. Asfaq Quereshi

193. A Muslim wife's right to can be claimed as

A preferential debt

An ordinary unsecured debt along with other creditors

An ordinary debt but priority over other creditors

A secured debt

194. How much time of abstinence is required in "Ila form" to enforce dissolution of marriage under Muslim Law:

2 months

3 months

4 months

6 months

195. Under Muslim Law the term "Faskh" is used to denote:

Restitution of conjugal rights

Dissolution of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of husband

Judicial separation

Dissolution of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of wife

196. Under Muslim Law, in the matter of marriage, if there is a conflict between the views of minor and guardian, the law gives priority to:

Minor

Guardian

State

Court

197. A sick man makes a bequest, and being unable to speak from weakness gives a nod with his head, and he dies without regaining the power of speech, the bequest is:

Void

Irregular

Valid

None of the above

198. A right of divorce by "Lian" is available to the wife when the husband accuses the wife:

of re-embracing her initial faith

of cruelty

of conversion to other faith

of adultry

199. In the "Ahsan Form"of talaq, the talaq is effective:

from the moment of pronouncement

on the expiration of Iddat period

on the third pronouncement

from the execution of writting of talaq-nama

200. In which of the following case the Supreme Court has held that the "three talaqs" would be treated as a "Single talaq" and not a valid talaq:

Mohd Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano A.I.R. 1985-S.C.

Bai Taheri Vs. Ali Hussain, A.I.R. 1979 S.C.

Shamim Ara Vs. State of U.P., A.I.R. 2002 S.C.R

None of the above