Exam Details
| Subject | ||
| Paper | ||
| Exam / Course | ||
| Department | ||
| Organization | Uttarakhand Public Service Commission | |
| Position | civil judge | |
| Exam Date | 2014 | |
| City, State | uttarakhand, |
Question Paper
1. Which of the Articles of the Constitution of India empowers the President to appoint acting Chief Justice of a High Court?
Article 223
Article 224
Article 224-A
Article 225
2. Who shall be the Chairman of the Council of States in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India?
President of India
Vice-President of India
Prime Minister of India
None of the above
3. The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act was passed in the year?
2012
2013
2014
None is correct
4. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was enacted in India in the year:
2014
2013
2012
2011
5. The National Food Security Act was passed in the year:
2012
2013
2014
None of the above
6. Territorial water limit of India is
3 Nautical miles
6 Nautical miles
12 Nautical miles
None of the above
7. Which one of the following rules is related to Extradition?
Rule of Speciality
Rule of Double Criminality
Both and
None of the above
8. Who defined Neutrality as "The attitude of impartiality adopted by Third States towards belligerents and recognized by belligerents, such attitude creating rights and duties between the impartial states and the belligerents"?
J. G. Starke
L. Oppenheim
J. L. Brierly
Hall
9. Which of the following is not a specialised agency of the United Nations?
UNESCO
International Labour Organisation
Economic and Social Council
All the above
10. On whom the members of United Nations confer primary responsibility for the maintenance of International peace and security?
Security Council
International Court of Justice
Secretary General
None of the above
11. Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961 came into force
April 18, 1961
April 24, 1961
April 24, 1964
None of the above
12. Who made the observation "Jurisprudence is Lawyer's extraversion"?
Jhon Austin
Stone
Cicero
C.K. Allen
13. Which is not jural-correlative in the following pairs?
Right-Duty
Liberty-No-right
Immunity-Disability
Power-Disability
14. The commission on the status of women was established by the:
Economic and Social Council
General Assembly
United Nations Secretariat
Security Council
15. Which of the following can enforce the judgement of the International Court of Justice?
General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
Secretary General
Security Council on the request of the International Court of Justice
None of the above
16. National Human Rights Commission in India came into force from:
28th September, 1993
18th December, 1993
1st January, 1994
12th October, 1993
17. The recommendations of the National Human Rights Commission
Binding
Advisory
Both and
None of the above
18. The head quarter of World Bank is situated
Geneva
New York
Paris
Washington D.C.
19. Who among the following was hanged by the British Government in regard to the 'Kakori Conspiracy'?
Bhagat Singh
Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ram Prasad Bismil
Batukeshwar Dutt
20. On whose recommendation amongst the followings the Constituent Assembly was constituted?
Crips Mission
Webel Mission
Lord Mountbatten
Cabinet Mission Plan
21. Ashok Mehta Committee was related to the:
Centre-State Relations
Economic Reforms
Panchayati Raj
None of the above
22. Power to constitute new states and its determination of boundary vests
Parliament
Vice-President
Governor
None of the above
23. Who is the Chairman of National Development Council?
President
Prime Minister
Finance Minister
None of the above
24. 'Carry Forward Rule' was held as ultra-vires in the case
Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
Devadasan Vs. Union of India
Pradeep Tandon Vs. State of U.P.
None of the above
25. 'Hicklin Test' under Article is related
Decency and morality
Defamation
Integrity of India
None of the above
26. Dispute between states in India comes to the Supreme Court under:
Appellate Jurisdiction
Original Jurisdiction
Advisory Jurisdiction
None of the above
27. Which amendment under the Indian Constitution provides for the reservation in Panchayats to the Women?
77th Amendment
75th Amendment
74th Amendment
73rd Amendment
28. To whom the President of India tenders his resignation?
Prime Minister
Vice-President
Chief Justice of India
Parliament
29. In which organ of United Nations, the membership has been enlarged twice by amending U.N. Charter
International Court of Justice
Security Council
Trusteeship Council
Economic and Social Council
30. The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held
9th December, 1946
15th August,1947
26th November, 1949
10th January, 1948
31. Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council?
Britain
United States of America
Japan
China
32. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
Sri. B.N. Rau
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
33. The present Lok Sabha
Thirteenth
Fourteenth
Fifteenth
Sixteenth
34. Which of the following Amendments Act of the Constitution provided for the appointment of one person as Governor of two or more states?
2nd Amendment
3rd Amendment
5th Amendment
7th Amendment
35. Who amongst the following has drafted the Preamble to the Indian Constitution:
Mr. Rajendra Prasad
Mr. Jawahar Lal Nehru
Mr. B.R. Ambedkar
Mr. Vallabh Bhai Patel
36. In which of the following subjects India has recently in 2014 signed an agreement with Russia:
Environment
Defence
Atomic Energy Co-operation
Health
37. In which of the following countries 8th summit was held in 2014?
India
Bangladesh
Nepal
Pakistan
38. In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 is a under Article 13?
Sajjan Singh Vs. State of Rajsthan
Shankari Prasad Vs. Union of India
Kesvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala
Goloknath Vs. State of Punjab
39. Doctrine of Prospective over-ruling was approved for the first time in Constitutional interpretation in the case
Kesvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala
Goloknath Vs. State of Punjab
A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
Charanjitlal Vs. Union of India
40. The General Assembly of the U.N. cannot be said to be a "World Parliament", because:
It cannot legislate for the States of the World;
Its resolutions do not have binding force upon the member states;
It cannot intervene in the matters of domestic jurisdiction of any state member;
All of the above
41. In which section of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 the word 'Domestic Violence' has been defined?
Section 4
Section 3
Section 6
Section 5
42. By which amendment Act schedule-IX was inserted in Indian Constitution?
44th Amendment Act
25th Amendment Act
42nd Amendment Act
1st Amendment Act
43. Where the G-7 summit in June 2014 was held?
Oofa
Brussels
Durban
Loskebas
44. Which convention was related to Prisoners of War, cruelty and collective penalties and formulated for providing medical and other facilities to the prisoners of war?
Kellog-Briand Paris Pact (1928)
Geneva Convention (1929)
Declaration of Paris (1856)
Hague Conference (1907)
45. Who has been awarded by highest award of Japan as "The Grand Carden of the order of Palonia flowers" recently?
Mr. Narendra Modi
Dr. Manmohan Singh
Mr. Nawaz Sharif
None of the above
46. "A person convicted by the court may be punished, only in accordance with the statute", is the meaning of which maxim amongst the below?
Nullum Crimen Sine lege
Nemo propria causa judex csse debet
Nulla poena sine lege
None of the above
47. What is the right sequence of the followings
The United Nations declarations
The Atlantic Charter
The Declaration of St. Jemes Palace
Sanfrancisco Conference
4
1
4
1
48. Which Articles amongst the following were added by the 97th Amendment Act of Indian Constitution?
Art 243(P) to Art 243
Art 243 to Art 243
Art 243 to Art 243
Art 243 to Art 243
49. In which of the following cases it has been observed that Prime Minister and Chief Ministers of the States are subject to the Doctrine of Constitutional Trust?
Dr. Subramaniyam Swami Vs. Director, CBI (2014)
Manoj Narula Vs. Union of India (2014)
Ashraf Kokur Vs. K.V. Abdul Qudir (2014)
Vishwajeet Bhattacharya Vs. Union of India (2014)
50. Auto limitation theory is related
Succession
Recognition
State jurisdiction
Regarding the basis of International Law
51. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the maxim "SALUS POPULI SUPREMALEX" is related to
Section 121
Section 122
Section 123
Section 124
52. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not deal with the criminal matters:
Section 23
Section 27
Section 53
Section 133
53. The term "Judicial notice" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, means:
Notice given by the court
Information given to the court
To ask for evidence
To recognise without proof something as existing
54. Court can presume about the legality of digital signature on electronic record under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 when it
30 years old
15 years old
5 years old
12 years old
55. "Presumption of fact" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
is based on logic, human experience and natural events and law of nature
is based on provisions of law
cannot be ignored by the court
is of certain and uniform position
56. The contents of electronic records may be proved under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in accordance with the provisions
Section 65 C
Section 65 B
Section 66 B
Section 66 C
57. Electronic record presented for inspection of the court under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
Electronic evidence
Documentary evidence
Oral evidence
Modern evidence
58. Which of the following is correctly matched according to Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Refreshing memory Section 158
Identification parade Section 10
Admission Section 24
None of the above
59. "Written document must be proved by writing only", this maxim has been incorporated under which of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Section 87
Section 91
Section 121
None of the above
60. Where the court has to form an opinion as to electronic signature of any person, the opinion of the certifying authority which has issued the electronic signature certificate
Fact in issue
Relevant fact
Proved fact
None of the above
61. Which kind of agreement can be presumed by the court under section 85-A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
Written agreement
Oral agreement
Electronic agreement
None of the above
62. Presumption of dowry death which is mentioned under section113-B of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been incorporated by the Amendment Act
1983
1984
2000
1986
63. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a declaration made in course of business is admissible under:
Section 32
Section 32
Section 32
Section 32
64. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings may be asked under:
Section 146
Section 147
Section 148
Such questions cannot be asked
65. Which kind of jurisdiction is not mentioned under section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
Probate
Admirality
Insolvency
Revenue
66. Kaushal Rao Vs. State of Bombay A.I.R-1958 S.C. 22 is related with which topic of the law of evidence:
Confession
Admission
Dying declaration
Estoppel
67. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not expressly mention about:
Oral Evidence
Documentary Evidence
Secondary Evidence
Circumstantial Evidence
68. The question is whether "A" was ravished? The fact that without making a complaint, she said that she has been ravished
Relevant as conduct
Admissible as conduct
Not relevant as conduct
A subject matter of enquiry
69. Where a document is executed in several parts, there:
each part is a primary evidence of the document
each part cannot be primary evidence of the document
each counter part is secondary evidence
only main part is primary while rest is secondary evidence of the document
70. "Nothing in section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 shall be taken to exempt any barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil from giving evidence of any matter of which he may be compelled to give evidence" is provided by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, under:
Section 127
Section 128
Section 129
Section 126
71. The fact of which the court will take judicial notice under Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
need to be proved
is optional to be proved
need not to be proved
is better to be proved
72. As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act
to provide, define and amend the law of evidence
to provide, consolidate the law of evidence
to define and amend the law of evidence
to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
73. In criminal proceedings against any person, the husband or wife of such person, shall
Competent witness
Incompetent witness
Competent witness only if they are major and with the consent of other
Competent witness only if they are sane and with the consent of other
74. A contingent of police led by Sub-Inspector is on patrolling duty at night. They are attacked by two criminals in which one constable is severely injured and criminals escaped with their property. Here, a case can be made under Indian Penal Code 1860 for the offence
Theft
Dacoity
Robbery
Mischief
75. Revealing the identity or name of victim of rape is punishable under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code 1860:
Section 354 D
Section 376 E
Section 229
Section 228 A
76. Which of the following factors separate robbery from dacoity:
Time
Property
Number
Place
77. "A" gave poisioned "Halwa" (sweet dish) to "B" with intention to kill him. "B" ate one spoon and kept it on the side. "C" who was sitting there, picked up and ate it. "C" dies. Here "A" is guilty
Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
Offence of murder of "C"
Here "A" is not guilty of murder as he never intended to kill "C"
Causing grievous hurt
78. The maxim " ignorantia juris non excusat" means:
Ignorance of law is no excuse
Ignorance of fact is no excuse
Ignorance of law is an excuse
Ignorance of fact is an excuse
79. The plea of "sudden and grave provocation" under Section 300 Exception of the Indian Penal Code 1860 is
Question of law
Question of fact
Mixed question of law and fact
Presumption under law
80. "Common Intention" and "similar intention" was distinguished in the famous case of
Barendra K. Ghosh Vs. King 1925 P.C. 1
Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor 1943 P.C. 118
Kripal Singh Vs. State of U.P. 1954 S.C. 706
Rishidev Pandey Vs. State of U.P. 1955 S.C. 331
81. The "appropriate government" may commute the sentence of death of an accused person to any other sentence:
With the consent of the accused
With the consent of relatives of accused
With the consent of advocate of the accused
Without the consent of the accused
82. "Necessity" as a defence cannot be claimed when the act has been done:
With good faith
Without criminal intent
With inherent risk of causing harm
For avoiding other greater harm
83. "X" who stole jewellery from a jeweller's shop caused fear of instant hurt to "Z" who tried to stop him while carrying away the stolen watch. Here "X" can be held liable for the offence
Extortion
Robbery
Theft
Dacoity
84. Transgender has been recognised as third gender with all rights and a right to reservation by the Supreme Court in the case
NAZ Foundation Vs. Govt. of NCT (Delhi)
Baljit Singh Vs. State of Haryana
NALSA Vs. Union of India
Vajresh Venkatray Anvekar Vs. State of Karnataka
85. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable offence under Indian Penal Code 1860, under:
Section 354 A
Section 354 C
Section 354 B
Section 354 D
86. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code 1860, under:
Section 326 A
Section 326 B
Section 228 A
Section 228
87. Which of the following is an offence of continuing under Indian Penal Code, 1860?
Rape
Theft
Abetment
Abduction
88. The offence of destruction of electronic record to prevent it's production as an evidence is punishable under Indian Panel Code 1860 under
Section 201
Section 204
Section 203
Section 202
89. The term "Harbour" defined under Indian Penal Code 1860, does not include
Supplying a person with shelter
Supplying a person means of conveyance
Assisting a person to evade apprehension
Prior to the commission of the offence, facilitating the commission therof
90. "A" incites a dog to spring upon "Z" without "Z" consent with intention to annoy "Z". Here "A" has committed the offence
Criminal force
Assault
Attempt to cause hurt
Defamation
91. "A" a police officer tortures "Z" in order to induce "Z" to confess that he has committed a crime. Here "A" is guilty of the offence
Assault
Causing hurt to extort confession
Causing criminal force
Attempt to cause hurt
92. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:
Section 376 A
Section 376 B
Section 166 166 354 C
All of the above
93. The right of private defence does not extend to cause death of the offender, in which of the following offences:
Rape
Kidnapping
Gratifying un-natural lust
Causing miscarriage
94. When a women was taking bath in her bathroom, "X" captures the image in his mobile and upload it on her facebook page. What offence has been committed by
Sexual assault
Insulting the modesty of a woman
Voyeurism
Stalking
95. Which of the following is not a "sine qua non" for making a person criminally liable:
Actus reus
Mens rea
Motive
All the above
96. "A" under the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill "B". "B" in attempting to defend himself caused grievous hurt to "A". Here:
"A" is liable for attempt to murder and "B" is liable for causing hurt
"A" commits no offence and "B" is liable for grievous hurt
"B" commits no offence and "A" is liable for attempt to murder
Both "A" and "B" are excused from liability
97. Statements under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 are recorded by the police:
During trial
Before investigation
During investigation
During inquiry
98. Under section 190 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, cognizance of offence is taken by the:
Judicial Magistrate
Session Judge
High Court
District Magistrate
99. During trial, statements of an accused person are recorded by the court under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, under:
Section 311
Section 312
Section 313
Section 314
100. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, charges may be added or altered under:
Section 211
Section 212
Section 215
Section 216
101. Under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 in a warrant case instituted on police-report, the trial begins when:
Charges are framed
Accused appears
Witnesses are examined
None of the above
102. In which of the following trials under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, hearing of the accused on sentence is not necessary:
In Session Trial
In trial of warrant case
In trial of summon case
In all of the above
103. "A" commits robbery on "B" and in doing so voluntarily causes hurt to him. Whether "A" may be separately charged under section 323, 392, and 394 of the Indian Penal Code 1860?
Yes
No
With the permission of Session Court
Depends upon the discretion of the court
104. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect
6th April 2013
3rd February 2013
7th January 2013
5th March 2013
105. Any dispute relating to the possession of immovable property under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is decided by the
Judicial Magistrate
High Court Judge
Session Judge
Executive Magistrate
106. An accused person may be a competent witness in his own defence under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973,
Section 312
Section 313
Section 315
Section 316
107. The classification of offences has been given under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, under:
Section 320
I Schedule
II Schedule
Section 482
108. Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, does not apply
The complainant
The witness
The accused
A person who is neither a complainant or accused or a witness
109. A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973,
Any police officer
The station police officer
The police officer investigating the case
None of the above
110. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a District Magistrate or Sub-Divisional Magistrate may prevent environmental pollution?
Under section 151
Under section 133
Under section 145
Under section 107
111. Treatment of the victim has been incorporated under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, under:
Section 198 B
Section 357 B
Section 357 C
None of the above
112. In a First-Information-Report, an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable, the whole case shall be deemed to
Cognizable
Non-Cognizable
It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case
It is to be seen whether it is a summon case
113. Which of the following statements is true:
State Government shall establish a Court of Session with the consultation of High Court
State Government shall establish a Court of Session
The High Court shall establish a Court of Session
The Supreme Court shall establish a Court of Session
114. The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following:
State of Tripura
State of Assam
State of Meghalya
State of Nagaland
115. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a charge shall be written in the:
Language which accused understands
Language which witnesses understands
Language of the Court
Hindi language
116. What is the maximum default sentence that can be awarded in case of non-payment of compensation under section 358 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:
60 days
30 days
90 days
120 days
117. An order passed by a Magistrate under section 446 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is appealable
Session Judge
District Magistrate
High Court
Supreme Court
118. If a person against whom an order under section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is made, appears and show cause against the order, the Magistrate shall:
Take evidence in the matter as in a summon case
Take evidence in the matter as a warrant case
Take evidence in the matter as an extraordinary case
Take no evidence
119. Which of the following is not an essential procedural requirement of section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 namely:
Warning to the accused
Confession to be made voluntarily
Recording of statement in presence of advocate of the accused
Memorandum at the foot of confession
120. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, provides for confirmation by the High Court an order of death penalty passed by Session Court prior to it's execution:
Section 366
Section 371
Section 369
Section 368
121. The term "Res Sub Judice" means:
Stay of suit
Stay of appeal
Stay of application
Stay of execution
122. Under section 100 of Civil Procedure Code 1908, "Second appeal" lies to the High Court only on the ground
Question fact
Substantial question of law
Both on question of fact and law
Mixed question of law and fact 22 RNP
123. Which of the following person may not file an application for execution under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 namely:
A decree holder
Legal representative, if the decree holder is dead
A person claiming under decree holder
Judgement-debtor
124. Who may apply for reference under section 113 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908:
A party to suit
Court
Both and
None of the above
125. "It is a statement of claim, a document by presentation of which the suit is instituted". It is called
Affidavit
Written-statement
Counter-claim
Plaint
126. Order 42 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 deals with the:
Appeal to Supreme Court
Appeal by indigent person
Appeal from appellate decrees
Appeal against orders
127. Which one of the following provision of Civil Procedure Code 1908 is related to affidavit:
Order 17
Order 19
Order 26
Order 39
128. Under which provision of CPC a plaint is rejected by the courts in the absence of cause of action:
Order 7 Rule 11
Order 7 Rule 11
Order 7 Rule 11
Order 7 Rule 11
129. A "Caveat" shall not remain inforce after the expiry
30 days of it's filing
60 days of it's filing
90 days of it's filing
120 days of it's filing
130. Under which provision of CPC attachment before judgement is provided:
Order 39 Rule 2
Order 40 Rule 1
Section 96
Order 38 Rules 5-13
131. Execution of decree for specific performance for restitution of conjugal rights or for an injunction is provided under Civil Procedure Code 1908, under:
Order 21 Rule 30
Order 21 Rule 31
Order 21 Rule 32
Order 21 Rule 34
132. Maximum amount which a court may order for payment of compensatory cost in case of false or vexations claims or defences under Civil Procedure Code 1908,
Rs 10,000/-
Rs.
Rs. 25,000/-
Any amount
133. A "Garneeshe order" under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is issued
Judgement debtor
Judgement debtor's creditor
Decree holder
Judgement debtor's debtor
134. Which of the following order of CPC is related to "Set-off" and "counter-claims":
Order VI
Order VIII
Order VII
Order IX
135. Which of the following is not correctly matched according to Civil Procedure Code, 1908:
Legal Representative Section 50
Letter of Request Section 77
Notice Section 80
Res-Sub-Judice Section 11
136. Civil Procedure Code (Amendment) Act 2002, was enforced from:
1st April, 2002
1st June, 2002
1st July, 2002
6th June, 2002
137. During proceedings for execution of a decree, if question arises as whether any person is or is not the representative of a party, such question must be determined
The court which passed the decree
The court executing the decree
The appellate court
None of the above
138. Supplementary proceedings under Section 94 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not include:
Arrest before judgement
Attachment before judgement
Temporary in junctiojn
Appointment of executor
139. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 "Foreign Court" means:
A court situated outside India
A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India
A court situated in India, applying foreign law
All of the above
140. "Guardian at litem" used under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means:
A local commissioner
A court
A person defending a suit on behalf of a insane person
A person defending a suit on behalf of a minor
141. Under which of the following section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, divorce by mutual consent has been provided:
Section 13 A
Section 13 B
Section 11
Section 15
142. In which of the following reports, the Law Commission recommended the "Breakdown Principle" to be accepted as the additional ground for divorce:
In 70th report
In 72nd report
In 71th report
In none of the above
143. When a child of opposite sex is proposed to be adopted, the adopter must be senior to it in age by at least:
18 years
21 years
16 years
14 years
144. Under Hindu Adoption Maintenance Act, 1956 mandatory requirement for adoption of a child
Giving and taking
Duttak homan (Hawan)
Both and
None of the above
145. Which of the following is not a ground for divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:
Insanity
Leporsys
Epilipsy
Veneral disease
146. According to court rulings, custody of a Hindu child upto the age of 5 years shall ordinarily be with the:
Father
Sister
Grand Father
Mother
147. During the pendency of appeal against the decree of divorce, the parties:
Are competent to solumnise second marriage
May contract another marriage with the leave of the court
Are not competent to contract another marriage and their incapacity to do so is absolute
None of the above
148. A boy of 16 years of age may validly be taken into adoption:
By law
By contract between parties
By consent of father of child
If customar usage applicable to parties so permits
149. Laxmikant Pandey Vs. Union of India, A.I.R. 1984 S.C. lays down the rule regarding:
Inter-country adoption
Inter-caste marriage
Inter-religion adoption
Rights of maintenance
150. Registration of marriage has been made compulsory by Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 under:
Section 12
Section 14
Section 8
Section 6
151. Section 14 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 imposes a ban for filing petition for:
Judicial Separation
Divorce
Viodable marriage
Void marriage
152. Every appeal from decrees or orders under section 28 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 shall be preferred within how many days from the date of decree or order:
Within 90 days
Within 60 days
Within 45 days
Within 30 days
153. Who is natural guardian of a married minor girl:
Father-in-law
Mother
Father
Husband
154. Which of the following ceremonies is/are obligatory under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for a valid marriage:
Kanyadan
Saptapadi
Customary rites and ceremories of either party
All of the above
155. Children born out of void or voidable marriage under sections 11 and 12 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 are deemed to
Illegitimate
Illegitimate but can inherit the property of their parents
Legitimate and can inherit all family property
Legitimate but can inherit the property of their parents only
156. A "Divorced" Hindu wife can claim maintanence under which of the following Acts:
Hindu Marriage Act only
Hindu Marriage Act and Criminal Procedure Code 1973
Hindu Adoption Maintenance Act, 1956 and Hindu Marriage Act
In all of the above
157. Rules relating to "Sapinda relationship" are based on the principle
Endogamy
Exogamy
Polygamy
Monogamy
158. The "Breakdown theory" of divorce is reflected by which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:
Section 13
Section 13
Section 13
Section 13 B
159. The petition for divorce by mutual consent may be presented according to Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, if the spouses have been living separately for a period
1 year
2 years
3 years
None of the above
160. The property of a Hindu woman dying intestate shall devolve firstly upon:
Heirs of mother
Heirs of father
Hiers of husband
Sons and daughters and the husband
161. Contingent interest in the property becomes a vested interest, on the happening of an uncertain event or when the happening of the event becomes:
Possible
Impossible
Probable to happen
All of the above
162. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is not applicable:
Where the transfer is by way of sale
Where the transfer is by way of gift
Where the transfer is by way of exchange
Where the transfer is by way of lease
163. Which one of the following section of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, deals with the "direction for accumulation":
Section 14
Section 17
Section 19
Section 18
164. Transfer of ownership of immovable property in exchange for a price paid or promised or partly paid or partly promised is called
Mortgage
Lease
Sale
Exchange
165. Section 56 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with:
Marshalling by subsequent purchaser
Contract for sale
Discharge of encumbrance on sale
None of the above
166. If the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, the gift
Voidable
Valid
Illegal
Void
167. Chapter VII of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not apply to transfers of property under:
Christian Law
Parsi Law
Mohemmadan Law
Hindu Law
168. Which one of the following is not a ground for determination of a lease:
Effuse of the time limited
Implied surrender
Expiration of notice of determination of lease
Death of the lessee
169. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for applicaton of rule of "lis pendens" under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
Pendency of a suit or proceeding
Pendency in a competent court
Suit must be collusive
Alienation must affect the rights of other party
170. Find out the incorrect answer from the following:
Gift is the transfer of ownership without consideration
Gift should be accepted during the lifetime of the owner
If donee dies before acceptance, the gift is void
Gift may be made only of movable property
171. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force
1st August 1882
1st July 1882
1st September 1882
1st October 1882
172. According to Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the term "living person" includes:
A human being only
Only important company or associations
Company or associations or body of individuals
None of the above
173. Which one of the following condition is invalid according to Section 10 of Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
A condition not to sell outside the family
A condition not to sell during the lifetime of the transferor
A condition not to sell to a person of different religion
A condition restraining sub-letting of leased property
174. Which one of the following is not an essential condition of Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
The representation must necessarily be fraudulent
The transferor makes a representation that he is competent to transfer
Transfer is of immovable property
Transfer is for consideration
175. "Once a mortgage, always a mortgage" means
Mortgagor has no right to assign right of redemption to any person
Mortgagee has no right to assign the mortgagee debt to any other person
Mortgage cannot be redeemed after the expiry of a fixed period
Mortgage is always redeemable
176. Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with which following kinds of gift, namely
Gift inter-vivos
Gift moritis causa
Gift by will
All of the above
177. Which one of the following sections provides the statutory duties of a mortgage in possession
Section 77
Section 78
Section 79
Section 76
178. The provisions relating to "Onerous gift" have provided under Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Section 127
Section 124
Section 125
Section 126
179. The Transfer of Property (Amendment) Act 2003, has amended which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
Section 107
Section 106
Section 108
Section 100
180. The transferee of an actionable claim shall take it subject to all the liabilities and equities and towhich the transferor was subject in respect thereof:
At the date of transfer
Before the date of transfer
After 15 days from the date of transfer
Before 15 days from the date of transfer
181. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, does not apply
Post transfer rights
Pecuniary rights
Pre-existing rights
Instant rights
182. Under which one of the following schools of Muslim Law "Muta Marriage" is recognised:
Hanifi school
Shafii school
Ismaili school
Ithna Asheri school
183. Where the person who performed "Nikah" is dead, the proof of marriage will be given by the:
Husband
Wife
Witness
Guardian
184. A Muslim widow remarries during the period of "iddat", the marriage
Valid
Fasid
Batil
None of the above
185. "Musha" under Muslim Law means:
An undivided share in the property
Share in a joint property after partition
Compensation in lieu of share in the property
None of the above
186. Under Muslim Law, a bequest can validly be made to a child in womb, so long it is born from thedate of will within the period
3 months
6 months
9 months
10 months
187. Creating a "Waqf" means dedication of property
State
Himself
Family members
God
188. Shariat Act, 1937 contains only
12 sections
6 sections
15 sections
9 sections
189. According to Hanafi Law, a mother is entitled to the custody (Hizanat) of a male child till the age
12 years
18 years
7 years
21 years
190. "Khiyar-ul-bulug" means:
Option of puberty
A form of dower
A form of valid marriage
Infidelity
191. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 specifies certain grounds of divorce which are available
Husband as well as wife
Husband only
Wife only
None of them
192. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court, has recognized the validity of adoption of a child even by a Muslim:
Shabnam Hasmi Vs. Union of India others
Shabnam Bano Vs. Union of India
Roshnara Khatoon Vs. Union of India
Aisha Qureshi Vs. Asfaq Quereshi
193. A Muslim wife's right to can be claimed as
A preferential debt
An ordinary unsecured debt along with other creditors
An ordinary debt but priority over other creditors
A secured debt
194. How much time of abstinence is required in "Ila form" to enforce dissolution of marriage under Muslim Law:
2 months
3 months
4 months
6 months
195. Under Muslim Law the term "Faskh" is used to denote:
Restitution of conjugal rights
Dissolution of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of husband
Judicial separation
Dissolution of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of wife
196. Under Muslim Law, in the matter of marriage, if there is a conflict between the views of minor and guardian, the law gives priority
Minor
Guardian
State
Court
197. A sickman makes a bequest, and being unable to speak from weakness gives a nod with his head, and he dies without regaining the power of speech, the bequest
Void
Irregular
Valid
None of the above
198. A right of divorce by "Lian" is available to the wife when the husband accuses the wife:
of re-embracing her initial faith
of cruelty
of conversion to other faith
of adultry
199. In the "Ahsan Form"of talaq, the talaq is effective:
from the moment of pronouncement
on the expiration of Iddat period
on the third pronouncement
from the execution of writting of talaq-nama
200. In which of the following case the Supreme Court has held that the "three talaqs" would be treated as a "Single talaq" and not a valid talaq:
Mohd Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano A.I.R. 1985-S.C.
Bai Taheri Vs. Ali Hussain, A.I.R. 1979 S.C.
Shamim Ara Vs. State of U.P., A.I.R. 2002 S.C.R
None of the above
Article 223
Article 224
Article 224-A
Article 225
2. Who shall be the Chairman of the Council of States in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India?
President of India
Vice-President of India
Prime Minister of India
None of the above
3. The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act was passed in the year?
2012
2013
2014
None is correct
4. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was enacted in India in the year:
2014
2013
2012
2011
5. The National Food Security Act was passed in the year:
2012
2013
2014
None of the above
6. Territorial water limit of India is
3 Nautical miles
6 Nautical miles
12 Nautical miles
None of the above
7. Which one of the following rules is related to Extradition?
Rule of Speciality
Rule of Double Criminality
Both and
None of the above
8. Who defined Neutrality as "The attitude of impartiality adopted by Third States towards belligerents and recognized by belligerents, such attitude creating rights and duties between the impartial states and the belligerents"?
J. G. Starke
L. Oppenheim
J. L. Brierly
Hall
9. Which of the following is not a specialised agency of the United Nations?
UNESCO
International Labour Organisation
Economic and Social Council
All the above
10. On whom the members of United Nations confer primary responsibility for the maintenance of International peace and security?
Security Council
International Court of Justice
Secretary General
None of the above
11. Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961 came into force
April 18, 1961
April 24, 1961
April 24, 1964
None of the above
12. Who made the observation "Jurisprudence is Lawyer's extraversion"?
Jhon Austin
Stone
Cicero
C.K. Allen
13. Which is not jural-correlative in the following pairs?
Right-Duty
Liberty-No-right
Immunity-Disability
Power-Disability
14. The commission on the status of women was established by the:
Economic and Social Council
General Assembly
United Nations Secretariat
Security Council
15. Which of the following can enforce the judgement of the International Court of Justice?
General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
Secretary General
Security Council on the request of the International Court of Justice
None of the above
16. National Human Rights Commission in India came into force from:
28th September, 1993
18th December, 1993
1st January, 1994
12th October, 1993
17. The recommendations of the National Human Rights Commission
Binding
Advisory
Both and
None of the above
18. The head quarter of World Bank is situated
Geneva
New York
Paris
Washington D.C.
19. Who among the following was hanged by the British Government in regard to the 'Kakori Conspiracy'?
Bhagat Singh
Chandra Shekhar Azad
Ram Prasad Bismil
Batukeshwar Dutt
20. On whose recommendation amongst the followings the Constituent Assembly was constituted?
Crips Mission
Webel Mission
Lord Mountbatten
Cabinet Mission Plan
21. Ashok Mehta Committee was related to the:
Centre-State Relations
Economic Reforms
Panchayati Raj
None of the above
22. Power to constitute new states and its determination of boundary vests
Parliament
Vice-President
Governor
None of the above
23. Who is the Chairman of National Development Council?
President
Prime Minister
Finance Minister
None of the above
24. 'Carry Forward Rule' was held as ultra-vires in the case
Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
Devadasan Vs. Union of India
Pradeep Tandon Vs. State of U.P.
None of the above
25. 'Hicklin Test' under Article is related
Decency and morality
Defamation
Integrity of India
None of the above
26. Dispute between states in India comes to the Supreme Court under:
Appellate Jurisdiction
Original Jurisdiction
Advisory Jurisdiction
None of the above
27. Which amendment under the Indian Constitution provides for the reservation in Panchayats to the Women?
77th Amendment
75th Amendment
74th Amendment
73rd Amendment
28. To whom the President of India tenders his resignation?
Prime Minister
Vice-President
Chief Justice of India
Parliament
29. In which organ of United Nations, the membership has been enlarged twice by amending U.N. Charter
International Court of Justice
Security Council
Trusteeship Council
Economic and Social Council
30. The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held
9th December, 1946
15th August,1947
26th November, 1949
10th January, 1948
31. Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council?
Britain
United States of America
Japan
China
32. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
Sri. B.N. Rau
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
33. The present Lok Sabha
Thirteenth
Fourteenth
Fifteenth
Sixteenth
34. Which of the following Amendments Act of the Constitution provided for the appointment of one person as Governor of two or more states?
2nd Amendment
3rd Amendment
5th Amendment
7th Amendment
35. Who amongst the following has drafted the Preamble to the Indian Constitution:
Mr. Rajendra Prasad
Mr. Jawahar Lal Nehru
Mr. B.R. Ambedkar
Mr. Vallabh Bhai Patel
36. In which of the following subjects India has recently in 2014 signed an agreement with Russia:
Environment
Defence
Atomic Energy Co-operation
Health
37. In which of the following countries 8th summit was held in 2014?
India
Bangladesh
Nepal
Pakistan
38. In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 is a under Article 13?
Sajjan Singh Vs. State of Rajsthan
Shankari Prasad Vs. Union of India
Kesvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala
Goloknath Vs. State of Punjab
39. Doctrine of Prospective over-ruling was approved for the first time in Constitutional interpretation in the case
Kesvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala
Goloknath Vs. State of Punjab
A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
Charanjitlal Vs. Union of India
40. The General Assembly of the U.N. cannot be said to be a "World Parliament", because:
It cannot legislate for the States of the World;
Its resolutions do not have binding force upon the member states;
It cannot intervene in the matters of domestic jurisdiction of any state member;
All of the above
41. In which section of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 the word 'Domestic Violence' has been defined?
Section 4
Section 3
Section 6
Section 5
42. By which amendment Act schedule-IX was inserted in Indian Constitution?
44th Amendment Act
25th Amendment Act
42nd Amendment Act
1st Amendment Act
43. Where the G-7 summit in June 2014 was held?
Oofa
Brussels
Durban
Loskebas
44. Which convention was related to Prisoners of War, cruelty and collective penalties and formulated for providing medical and other facilities to the prisoners of war?
Kellog-Briand Paris Pact (1928)
Geneva Convention (1929)
Declaration of Paris (1856)
Hague Conference (1907)
45. Who has been awarded by highest award of Japan as "The Grand Carden of the order of Palonia flowers" recently?
Mr. Narendra Modi
Dr. Manmohan Singh
Mr. Nawaz Sharif
None of the above
46. "A person convicted by the court may be punished, only in accordance with the statute", is the meaning of which maxim amongst the below?
Nullum Crimen Sine lege
Nemo propria causa judex csse debet
Nulla poena sine lege
None of the above
47. What is the right sequence of the followings
The United Nations declarations
The Atlantic Charter
The Declaration of St. Jemes Palace
Sanfrancisco Conference
4
1
4
1
48. Which Articles amongst the following were added by the 97th Amendment Act of Indian Constitution?
Art 243(P) to Art 243
Art 243 to Art 243
Art 243 to Art 243
Art 243 to Art 243
49. In which of the following cases it has been observed that Prime Minister and Chief Ministers of the States are subject to the Doctrine of Constitutional Trust?
Dr. Subramaniyam Swami Vs. Director, CBI (2014)
Manoj Narula Vs. Union of India (2014)
Ashraf Kokur Vs. K.V. Abdul Qudir (2014)
Vishwajeet Bhattacharya Vs. Union of India (2014)
50. Auto limitation theory is related
Succession
Recognition
State jurisdiction
Regarding the basis of International Law
51. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the maxim "SALUS POPULI SUPREMALEX" is related to
Section 121
Section 122
Section 123
Section 124
52. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not deal with the criminal matters:
Section 23
Section 27
Section 53
Section 133
53. The term "Judicial notice" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, means:
Notice given by the court
Information given to the court
To ask for evidence
To recognise without proof something as existing
54. Court can presume about the legality of digital signature on electronic record under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 when it
30 years old
15 years old
5 years old
12 years old
55. "Presumption of fact" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
is based on logic, human experience and natural events and law of nature
is based on provisions of law
cannot be ignored by the court
is of certain and uniform position
56. The contents of electronic records may be proved under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in accordance with the provisions
Section 65 C
Section 65 B
Section 66 B
Section 66 C
57. Electronic record presented for inspection of the court under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
Electronic evidence
Documentary evidence
Oral evidence
Modern evidence
58. Which of the following is correctly matched according to Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Refreshing memory Section 158
Identification parade Section 10
Admission Section 24
None of the above
59. "Written document must be proved by writing only", this maxim has been incorporated under which of the following sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Section 87
Section 91
Section 121
None of the above
60. Where the court has to form an opinion as to electronic signature of any person, the opinion of the certifying authority which has issued the electronic signature certificate
Fact in issue
Relevant fact
Proved fact
None of the above
61. Which kind of agreement can be presumed by the court under section 85-A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
Written agreement
Oral agreement
Electronic agreement
None of the above
62. Presumption of dowry death which is mentioned under section113-B of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been incorporated by the Amendment Act
1983
1984
2000
1986
63. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a declaration made in course of business is admissible under:
Section 32
Section 32
Section 32
Section 32
64. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings may be asked under:
Section 146
Section 147
Section 148
Such questions cannot be asked
65. Which kind of jurisdiction is not mentioned under section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
Probate
Admirality
Insolvency
Revenue
66. Kaushal Rao Vs. State of Bombay A.I.R-1958 S.C. 22 is related with which topic of the law of evidence:
Confession
Admission
Dying declaration
Estoppel
67. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not expressly mention about:
Oral Evidence
Documentary Evidence
Secondary Evidence
Circumstantial Evidence
68. The question is whether "A" was ravished? The fact that without making a complaint, she said that she has been ravished
Relevant as conduct
Admissible as conduct
Not relevant as conduct
A subject matter of enquiry
69. Where a document is executed in several parts, there:
each part is a primary evidence of the document
each part cannot be primary evidence of the document
each counter part is secondary evidence
only main part is primary while rest is secondary evidence of the document
70. "Nothing in section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 shall be taken to exempt any barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil from giving evidence of any matter of which he may be compelled to give evidence" is provided by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, under:
Section 127
Section 128
Section 129
Section 126
71. The fact of which the court will take judicial notice under Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
need to be proved
is optional to be proved
need not to be proved
is better to be proved
72. As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act
to provide, define and amend the law of evidence
to provide, consolidate the law of evidence
to define and amend the law of evidence
to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
73. In criminal proceedings against any person, the husband or wife of such person, shall
Competent witness
Incompetent witness
Competent witness only if they are major and with the consent of other
Competent witness only if they are sane and with the consent of other
74. A contingent of police led by Sub-Inspector is on patrolling duty at night. They are attacked by two criminals in which one constable is severely injured and criminals escaped with their property. Here, a case can be made under Indian Penal Code 1860 for the offence
Theft
Dacoity
Robbery
Mischief
75. Revealing the identity or name of victim of rape is punishable under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code 1860:
Section 354 D
Section 376 E
Section 229
Section 228 A
76. Which of the following factors separate robbery from dacoity:
Time
Property
Number
Place
77. "A" gave poisioned "Halwa" (sweet dish) to "B" with intention to kill him. "B" ate one spoon and kept it on the side. "C" who was sitting there, picked up and ate it. "C" dies. Here "A" is guilty
Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
Offence of murder of "C"
Here "A" is not guilty of murder as he never intended to kill "C"
Causing grievous hurt
78. The maxim " ignorantia juris non excusat" means:
Ignorance of law is no excuse
Ignorance of fact is no excuse
Ignorance of law is an excuse
Ignorance of fact is an excuse
79. The plea of "sudden and grave provocation" under Section 300 Exception of the Indian Penal Code 1860 is
Question of law
Question of fact
Mixed question of law and fact
Presumption under law
80. "Common Intention" and "similar intention" was distinguished in the famous case of
Barendra K. Ghosh Vs. King 1925 P.C. 1
Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor 1943 P.C. 118
Kripal Singh Vs. State of U.P. 1954 S.C. 706
Rishidev Pandey Vs. State of U.P. 1955 S.C. 331
81. The "appropriate government" may commute the sentence of death of an accused person to any other sentence:
With the consent of the accused
With the consent of relatives of accused
With the consent of advocate of the accused
Without the consent of the accused
82. "Necessity" as a defence cannot be claimed when the act has been done:
With good faith
Without criminal intent
With inherent risk of causing harm
For avoiding other greater harm
83. "X" who stole jewellery from a jeweller's shop caused fear of instant hurt to "Z" who tried to stop him while carrying away the stolen watch. Here "X" can be held liable for the offence
Extortion
Robbery
Theft
Dacoity
84. Transgender has been recognised as third gender with all rights and a right to reservation by the Supreme Court in the case
NAZ Foundation Vs. Govt. of NCT (Delhi)
Baljit Singh Vs. State of Haryana
NALSA Vs. Union of India
Vajresh Venkatray Anvekar Vs. State of Karnataka
85. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable offence under Indian Penal Code 1860, under:
Section 354 A
Section 354 C
Section 354 B
Section 354 D
86. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code 1860, under:
Section 326 A
Section 326 B
Section 228 A
Section 228
87. Which of the following is an offence of continuing under Indian Penal Code, 1860?
Rape
Theft
Abetment
Abduction
88. The offence of destruction of electronic record to prevent it's production as an evidence is punishable under Indian Panel Code 1860 under
Section 201
Section 204
Section 203
Section 202
89. The term "Harbour" defined under Indian Penal Code 1860, does not include
Supplying a person with shelter
Supplying a person means of conveyance
Assisting a person to evade apprehension
Prior to the commission of the offence, facilitating the commission therof
90. "A" incites a dog to spring upon "Z" without "Z" consent with intention to annoy "Z". Here "A" has committed the offence
Criminal force
Assault
Attempt to cause hurt
Defamation
91. "A" a police officer tortures "Z" in order to induce "Z" to confess that he has committed a crime. Here "A" is guilty of the offence
Assault
Causing hurt to extort confession
Causing criminal force
Attempt to cause hurt
92. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:
Section 376 A
Section 376 B
Section 166 166 354 C
All of the above
93. The right of private defence does not extend to cause death of the offender, in which of the following offences:
Rape
Kidnapping
Gratifying un-natural lust
Causing miscarriage
94. When a women was taking bath in her bathroom, "X" captures the image in his mobile and upload it on her facebook page. What offence has been committed by
Sexual assault
Insulting the modesty of a woman
Voyeurism
Stalking
95. Which of the following is not a "sine qua non" for making a person criminally liable:
Actus reus
Mens rea
Motive
All the above
96. "A" under the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill "B". "B" in attempting to defend himself caused grievous hurt to "A". Here:
"A" is liable for attempt to murder and "B" is liable for causing hurt
"A" commits no offence and "B" is liable for grievous hurt
"B" commits no offence and "A" is liable for attempt to murder
Both "A" and "B" are excused from liability
97. Statements under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 are recorded by the police:
During trial
Before investigation
During investigation
During inquiry
98. Under section 190 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, cognizance of offence is taken by the:
Judicial Magistrate
Session Judge
High Court
District Magistrate
99. During trial, statements of an accused person are recorded by the court under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, under:
Section 311
Section 312
Section 313
Section 314
100. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, charges may be added or altered under:
Section 211
Section 212
Section 215
Section 216
101. Under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 in a warrant case instituted on police-report, the trial begins when:
Charges are framed
Accused appears
Witnesses are examined
None of the above
102. In which of the following trials under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, hearing of the accused on sentence is not necessary:
In Session Trial
In trial of warrant case
In trial of summon case
In all of the above
103. "A" commits robbery on "B" and in doing so voluntarily causes hurt to him. Whether "A" may be separately charged under section 323, 392, and 394 of the Indian Penal Code 1860?
Yes
No
With the permission of Session Court
Depends upon the discretion of the court
104. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect
6th April 2013
3rd February 2013
7th January 2013
5th March 2013
105. Any dispute relating to the possession of immovable property under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is decided by the
Judicial Magistrate
High Court Judge
Session Judge
Executive Magistrate
106. An accused person may be a competent witness in his own defence under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973,
Section 312
Section 313
Section 315
Section 316
107. The classification of offences has been given under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, under:
Section 320
I Schedule
II Schedule
Section 482
108. Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, does not apply
The complainant
The witness
The accused
A person who is neither a complainant or accused or a witness
109. A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973,
Any police officer
The station police officer
The police officer investigating the case
None of the above
110. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a District Magistrate or Sub-Divisional Magistrate may prevent environmental pollution?
Under section 151
Under section 133
Under section 145
Under section 107
111. Treatment of the victim has been incorporated under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, under:
Section 198 B
Section 357 B
Section 357 C
None of the above
112. In a First-Information-Report, an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable, the whole case shall be deemed to
Cognizable
Non-Cognizable
It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case
It is to be seen whether it is a summon case
113. Which of the following statements is true:
State Government shall establish a Court of Session with the consultation of High Court
State Government shall establish a Court of Session
The High Court shall establish a Court of Session
The Supreme Court shall establish a Court of Session
114. The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following:
State of Tripura
State of Assam
State of Meghalya
State of Nagaland
115. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a charge shall be written in the:
Language which accused understands
Language which witnesses understands
Language of the Court
Hindi language
116. What is the maximum default sentence that can be awarded in case of non-payment of compensation under section 358 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:
60 days
30 days
90 days
120 days
117. An order passed by a Magistrate under section 446 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is appealable
Session Judge
District Magistrate
High Court
Supreme Court
118. If a person against whom an order under section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is made, appears and show cause against the order, the Magistrate shall:
Take evidence in the matter as in a summon case
Take evidence in the matter as a warrant case
Take evidence in the matter as an extraordinary case
Take no evidence
119. Which of the following is not an essential procedural requirement of section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 namely:
Warning to the accused
Confession to be made voluntarily
Recording of statement in presence of advocate of the accused
Memorandum at the foot of confession
120. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, provides for confirmation by the High Court an order of death penalty passed by Session Court prior to it's execution:
Section 366
Section 371
Section 369
Section 368
121. The term "Res Sub Judice" means:
Stay of suit
Stay of appeal
Stay of application
Stay of execution
122. Under section 100 of Civil Procedure Code 1908, "Second appeal" lies to the High Court only on the ground
Question fact
Substantial question of law
Both on question of fact and law
Mixed question of law and fact 22 RNP
123. Which of the following person may not file an application for execution under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 namely:
A decree holder
Legal representative, if the decree holder is dead
A person claiming under decree holder
Judgement-debtor
124. Who may apply for reference under section 113 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908:
A party to suit
Court
Both and
None of the above
125. "It is a statement of claim, a document by presentation of which the suit is instituted". It is called
Affidavit
Written-statement
Counter-claim
Plaint
126. Order 42 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 deals with the:
Appeal to Supreme Court
Appeal by indigent person
Appeal from appellate decrees
Appeal against orders
127. Which one of the following provision of Civil Procedure Code 1908 is related to affidavit:
Order 17
Order 19
Order 26
Order 39
128. Under which provision of CPC a plaint is rejected by the courts in the absence of cause of action:
Order 7 Rule 11
Order 7 Rule 11
Order 7 Rule 11
Order 7 Rule 11
129. A "Caveat" shall not remain inforce after the expiry
30 days of it's filing
60 days of it's filing
90 days of it's filing
120 days of it's filing
130. Under which provision of CPC attachment before judgement is provided:
Order 39 Rule 2
Order 40 Rule 1
Section 96
Order 38 Rules 5-13
131. Execution of decree for specific performance for restitution of conjugal rights or for an injunction is provided under Civil Procedure Code 1908, under:
Order 21 Rule 30
Order 21 Rule 31
Order 21 Rule 32
Order 21 Rule 34
132. Maximum amount which a court may order for payment of compensatory cost in case of false or vexations claims or defences under Civil Procedure Code 1908,
Rs 10,000/-
Rs.
Rs. 25,000/-
Any amount
133. A "Garneeshe order" under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is issued
Judgement debtor
Judgement debtor's creditor
Decree holder
Judgement debtor's debtor
134. Which of the following order of CPC is related to "Set-off" and "counter-claims":
Order VI
Order VIII
Order VII
Order IX
135. Which of the following is not correctly matched according to Civil Procedure Code, 1908:
Legal Representative Section 50
Letter of Request Section 77
Notice Section 80
Res-Sub-Judice Section 11
136. Civil Procedure Code (Amendment) Act 2002, was enforced from:
1st April, 2002
1st June, 2002
1st July, 2002
6th June, 2002
137. During proceedings for execution of a decree, if question arises as whether any person is or is not the representative of a party, such question must be determined
The court which passed the decree
The court executing the decree
The appellate court
None of the above
138. Supplementary proceedings under Section 94 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not include:
Arrest before judgement
Attachment before judgement
Temporary in junctiojn
Appointment of executor
139. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 "Foreign Court" means:
A court situated outside India
A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India
A court situated in India, applying foreign law
All of the above
140. "Guardian at litem" used under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means:
A local commissioner
A court
A person defending a suit on behalf of a insane person
A person defending a suit on behalf of a minor
141. Under which of the following section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, divorce by mutual consent has been provided:
Section 13 A
Section 13 B
Section 11
Section 15
142. In which of the following reports, the Law Commission recommended the "Breakdown Principle" to be accepted as the additional ground for divorce:
In 70th report
In 72nd report
In 71th report
In none of the above
143. When a child of opposite sex is proposed to be adopted, the adopter must be senior to it in age by at least:
18 years
21 years
16 years
14 years
144. Under Hindu Adoption Maintenance Act, 1956 mandatory requirement for adoption of a child
Giving and taking
Duttak homan (Hawan)
Both and
None of the above
145. Which of the following is not a ground for divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:
Insanity
Leporsys
Epilipsy
Veneral disease
146. According to court rulings, custody of a Hindu child upto the age of 5 years shall ordinarily be with the:
Father
Sister
Grand Father
Mother
147. During the pendency of appeal against the decree of divorce, the parties:
Are competent to solumnise second marriage
May contract another marriage with the leave of the court
Are not competent to contract another marriage and their incapacity to do so is absolute
None of the above
148. A boy of 16 years of age may validly be taken into adoption:
By law
By contract between parties
By consent of father of child
If customar usage applicable to parties so permits
149. Laxmikant Pandey Vs. Union of India, A.I.R. 1984 S.C. lays down the rule regarding:
Inter-country adoption
Inter-caste marriage
Inter-religion adoption
Rights of maintenance
150. Registration of marriage has been made compulsory by Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 under:
Section 12
Section 14
Section 8
Section 6
151. Section 14 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 imposes a ban for filing petition for:
Judicial Separation
Divorce
Viodable marriage
Void marriage
152. Every appeal from decrees or orders under section 28 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 shall be preferred within how many days from the date of decree or order:
Within 90 days
Within 60 days
Within 45 days
Within 30 days
153. Who is natural guardian of a married minor girl:
Father-in-law
Mother
Father
Husband
154. Which of the following ceremonies is/are obligatory under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for a valid marriage:
Kanyadan
Saptapadi
Customary rites and ceremories of either party
All of the above
155. Children born out of void or voidable marriage under sections 11 and 12 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 are deemed to
Illegitimate
Illegitimate but can inherit the property of their parents
Legitimate and can inherit all family property
Legitimate but can inherit the property of their parents only
156. A "Divorced" Hindu wife can claim maintanence under which of the following Acts:
Hindu Marriage Act only
Hindu Marriage Act and Criminal Procedure Code 1973
Hindu Adoption Maintenance Act, 1956 and Hindu Marriage Act
In all of the above
157. Rules relating to "Sapinda relationship" are based on the principle
Endogamy
Exogamy
Polygamy
Monogamy
158. The "Breakdown theory" of divorce is reflected by which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:
Section 13
Section 13
Section 13
Section 13 B
159. The petition for divorce by mutual consent may be presented according to Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, if the spouses have been living separately for a period
1 year
2 years
3 years
None of the above
160. The property of a Hindu woman dying intestate shall devolve firstly upon:
Heirs of mother
Heirs of father
Hiers of husband
Sons and daughters and the husband
161. Contingent interest in the property becomes a vested interest, on the happening of an uncertain event or when the happening of the event becomes:
Possible
Impossible
Probable to happen
All of the above
162. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is not applicable:
Where the transfer is by way of sale
Where the transfer is by way of gift
Where the transfer is by way of exchange
Where the transfer is by way of lease
163. Which one of the following section of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, deals with the "direction for accumulation":
Section 14
Section 17
Section 19
Section 18
164. Transfer of ownership of immovable property in exchange for a price paid or promised or partly paid or partly promised is called
Mortgage
Lease
Sale
Exchange
165. Section 56 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with:
Marshalling by subsequent purchaser
Contract for sale
Discharge of encumbrance on sale
None of the above
166. If the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, the gift
Voidable
Valid
Illegal
Void
167. Chapter VII of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not apply to transfers of property under:
Christian Law
Parsi Law
Mohemmadan Law
Hindu Law
168. Which one of the following is not a ground for determination of a lease:
Effuse of the time limited
Implied surrender
Expiration of notice of determination of lease
Death of the lessee
169. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for applicaton of rule of "lis pendens" under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
Pendency of a suit or proceeding
Pendency in a competent court
Suit must be collusive
Alienation must affect the rights of other party
170. Find out the incorrect answer from the following:
Gift is the transfer of ownership without consideration
Gift should be accepted during the lifetime of the owner
If donee dies before acceptance, the gift is void
Gift may be made only of movable property
171. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force
1st August 1882
1st July 1882
1st September 1882
1st October 1882
172. According to Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the term "living person" includes:
A human being only
Only important company or associations
Company or associations or body of individuals
None of the above
173. Which one of the following condition is invalid according to Section 10 of Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
A condition not to sell outside the family
A condition not to sell during the lifetime of the transferor
A condition not to sell to a person of different religion
A condition restraining sub-letting of leased property
174. Which one of the following is not an essential condition of Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
The representation must necessarily be fraudulent
The transferor makes a representation that he is competent to transfer
Transfer is of immovable property
Transfer is for consideration
175. "Once a mortgage, always a mortgage" means
Mortgagor has no right to assign right of redemption to any person
Mortgagee has no right to assign the mortgagee debt to any other person
Mortgage cannot be redeemed after the expiry of a fixed period
Mortgage is always redeemable
176. Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with which following kinds of gift, namely
Gift inter-vivos
Gift moritis causa
Gift by will
All of the above
177. Which one of the following sections provides the statutory duties of a mortgage in possession
Section 77
Section 78
Section 79
Section 76
178. The provisions relating to "Onerous gift" have provided under Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Section 127
Section 124
Section 125
Section 126
179. The Transfer of Property (Amendment) Act 2003, has amended which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:
Section 107
Section 106
Section 108
Section 100
180. The transferee of an actionable claim shall take it subject to all the liabilities and equities and towhich the transferor was subject in respect thereof:
At the date of transfer
Before the date of transfer
After 15 days from the date of transfer
Before 15 days from the date of transfer
181. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, does not apply
Post transfer rights
Pecuniary rights
Pre-existing rights
Instant rights
182. Under which one of the following schools of Muslim Law "Muta Marriage" is recognised:
Hanifi school
Shafii school
Ismaili school
Ithna Asheri school
183. Where the person who performed "Nikah" is dead, the proof of marriage will be given by the:
Husband
Wife
Witness
Guardian
184. A Muslim widow remarries during the period of "iddat", the marriage
Valid
Fasid
Batil
None of the above
185. "Musha" under Muslim Law means:
An undivided share in the property
Share in a joint property after partition
Compensation in lieu of share in the property
None of the above
186. Under Muslim Law, a bequest can validly be made to a child in womb, so long it is born from thedate of will within the period
3 months
6 months
9 months
10 months
187. Creating a "Waqf" means dedication of property
State
Himself
Family members
God
188. Shariat Act, 1937 contains only
12 sections
6 sections
15 sections
9 sections
189. According to Hanafi Law, a mother is entitled to the custody (Hizanat) of a male child till the age
12 years
18 years
7 years
21 years
190. "Khiyar-ul-bulug" means:
Option of puberty
A form of dower
A form of valid marriage
Infidelity
191. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 specifies certain grounds of divorce which are available
Husband as well as wife
Husband only
Wife only
None of them
192. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court, has recognized the validity of adoption of a child even by a Muslim:
Shabnam Hasmi Vs. Union of India others
Shabnam Bano Vs. Union of India
Roshnara Khatoon Vs. Union of India
Aisha Qureshi Vs. Asfaq Quereshi
193. A Muslim wife's right to can be claimed as
A preferential debt
An ordinary unsecured debt along with other creditors
An ordinary debt but priority over other creditors
A secured debt
194. How much time of abstinence is required in "Ila form" to enforce dissolution of marriage under Muslim Law:
2 months
3 months
4 months
6 months
195. Under Muslim Law the term "Faskh" is used to denote:
Restitution of conjugal rights
Dissolution of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of husband
Judicial separation
Dissolution of marriage by judicial decree at the instance of wife
196. Under Muslim Law, in the matter of marriage, if there is a conflict between the views of minor and guardian, the law gives priority
Minor
Guardian
State
Court
197. A sickman makes a bequest, and being unable to speak from weakness gives a nod with his head, and he dies without regaining the power of speech, the bequest
Void
Irregular
Valid
None of the above
198. A right of divorce by "Lian" is available to the wife when the husband accuses the wife:
of re-embracing her initial faith
of cruelty
of conversion to other faith
of adultry
199. In the "Ahsan Form"of talaq, the talaq is effective:
from the moment of pronouncement
on the expiration of Iddat period
on the third pronouncement
from the execution of writting of talaq-nama
200. In which of the following case the Supreme Court has held that the "three talaqs" would be treated as a "Single talaq" and not a valid talaq:
Mohd Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano A.I.R. 1985-S.C.
Bai Taheri Vs. Ali Hussain, A.I.R. 1979 S.C.
Shamim Ara Vs. State of U.P., A.I.R. 2002 S.C.R
None of the above