Directions: In the following sentences a word is underlined. From the given alternatives choose the one which best substitutes the underlines word.


1. Although charging interest is contrary to the law, the landlords contravene this by accepting a compulsory donation.

A. circumvent

B. escape

C. circumspect

D. prevent

2. Without that circumstance, he would have been jailed.

A. happening

B. extenuation

C. expediency

D. emergency

3. I saw him as old, corrupt and irretrievably evil.

A. inertly

B. irredeemably

C. irreproachably

D. irresolutely

4. The General Election gave the party no such authority.

A. mandate

B. pennission

C. power

D. clout

5. In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option is the answer. Will you kindly open the knot?

A. untie

B. break

C. loose

D. No improvement

6. In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option is the answer.The poor villagers have waited in the bitter cold for more than 4 hours now.

A. have been waiting

B. had waited

C. has been waiting

D. No improvement

7. In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option is the answer.Why the dinosaurs died out is not known.

A. it is not known

B. the reason is not known

C. that is not known

D. No improvement

8. Question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship. FILTER:WATER

A. curtai1:activity

B. expunge:book

C. edittext

D. censor:play

9. question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship. AFTER:BEFORE

A. firstsecond

B. presentpast

C. contemporary:historic

D. successor:predecessor

10. question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship. SYMPHONY:COMPOSER

A. Leonardo:music

B. Fresco:painter

C. colours:pallet

D. art:appreciation

11. Two sentences are followed by a que"stion or statement. Read the sentences, then choose the bestanswer to the question or the best completion of the statement.
To perform CPR correctly, open the victim's mouth and free the throat of any obstructions. Begin artificial breathing by blowing down the victim's cleared throat while keeping the nostrils closed with your fingers.
What is the relationship between these two statements?

A. The second statement is an example of the first.

B. The second statement is in contrast with the first.

C. The second statement describes what happens after the first.

D. The second statement restates the first.

12. Two sentences are followed by a que"stion or statement. Read the sentences, then choose the bestanswer to the question orthe best completion of the statement.
There are rules that drivers and passengers should follow to stay safe when in moving vehicles. These rules include driving within the speed limit and wearing seatbelts.
What is the relationship between these two statements?

A. The second statement provides examples of the" first.

B. The second statement restates the first.

C. The second statement describes an effect of the first.

D. The second statement makes a comparison to the first.

13. Two sentences are followed by a que"stion or statement. Read the sentences, then choose the bestanswer to the question orthe best completion of the statement.
The number ofyoung, unmarried people has grown dramatically in the last decade. Business people, politicians, and advertisers now target the incomes and interests ofthis population.
What is the relationship between these two ideas?

A. The fIrst statement is the cause of the second.

B. The first statement contradicts the second.

C. The second statement defines the first.

D. The second statement illustrates the first

Geological Survey of India will send two teams of surveyors in the Himalayan Range. Each team will consist of at least three persons. The teams will be constituted from seven persons, Amla, Bharathi, Catherine, Devyani, Esther, Fathima, and Gargi. These persons are experts in oneofthe areas ofMap Surveying, DataInterpretation, Paleontology and Seismology. Every group must have at least one Paleontologist and a Seismologist. Amla and Bharathi are Map Surveyors and they cannot be together. Devyani and Esther are Seismologists. Catherine and Devyani cannot be together and Gargi and Bharathi are always in the same group. Fathima is a Paleontologist.
Now answer the questions

14. If Fathima is in the same group with Bharathi, then Catherine must be specialized in

A. Data Interpretation

B. Paleontology

C. Seismology

D. None of the Above

15. If Fathima cannot go, then what must be the specialization of Gargi?

A. Paleontology

B. Seismology

C. Data Interpretation

D. Map Surveying

16. If Devyani cannot be in the same group as Fathima, then who must always be in the group of Fathima?

A. Amla

B. Bharathi

C. Catherine

D. Esther

17. If Catherineis in the area of Data Interpretation, then who must always be in the same group as Catherine?

A. Bharathi

B. Devyani

C. Esther

D. Fathima

18. If Bharathi is not in any of the group, then who can be in the same group of Arilla?

A. Gargi and Esther

B. Catherine and Esther

C. Catherine and Fathima

D. or or

Two scientists, Rani and Raju, are each selecting a group of three strains of drosophila from a group of 7 strains Y and Z. No strain can be in both groups. The selections made by Rani and Raju are subject to the following conditions:
i. If U is in Rani's group, W must be inRaju's group
ii. IfX in Rani's group, Z must be in Raju's group
iii. T and Z cannot be in same group
iv. W and Y cannot be in the same group .

19. If X is in Rani's group, any one of the following could be in Raju's group except:

A. U

B. T

C. V

D. W

20. Which of the following pairs of groups selected by Rani and Raju conform to the restrictions?

Rani Raju
A. V

B. Z

C. W,X

D.

21. If U is in Rani's group, which of the following is true?

A. T must be in Rani's group

B. Y must be in Rani's group

C. V must be in Raju's group

D. Y cannot be in Raju's group

22. The reflection of an object in water below it form an image that is known as water image. Select the water image of the figure below.



23. You have to choose between four rooms with conditions given below

A. The first is full of raging fires.

B. The second is full of tigers that haven't eaten in 3 years.

C. The third is full of assassins with loaded machine guns.

D. The floor can cave in any time and you and whatever you are on will fall in to liquid nitrogen.

24. Pedro goes either hunting or fishing every day. Ifit is snowing windy then Pedro goes hunting. If it is sunny and not windy then Pedro goes fishing. Sometimes it can be snowing and sunny.

Which of the following statements must be true:

A. If it is not sunny and it is snowing then Pedro goes hunting.

B. If it is windy and Pedro does not go hunting then it is not snowing.

C. If it is windy and not sunny then Pedro goes hunting.

D. If it is windy and sunny then Pedro goes hunting.

25. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers whose product is even?

A. 1/2

B. 3/4

C. 3/8

D. 5/16

26. X is positive and 5 1/X . Then, X is

A. equal to 1/5

B. ieater than 1/5

C. less than 1/5

D. None ofthe above

27. The three angles ofa triangle are in the ratio of 1:2:3. What type of a triangle isit?

A. An equilateral triangle

B. An isosceles triangle

C. An obtuse angled triangle

D. A right angled triangle

28. Which number replaces the question mark?



A. 6

B. 0

C. 0.5

D. 3

29. Kunal is in India and walks 10 km towards North. From there he walks 6 Km towards South. Then, he walks 3 Km towards east. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?

A. 5 KmNorth

B. 5 Km South

C. 5 KmEast

D. 5 Km North-East

30. What does the number 0100 in binary system number system in base stand for in the decimal system?

A. 2000

B. 500

C. 8

D. 4

31. One-half of a number is 17 more than one-third of that number. What is the number?

A. 52

B. 84

C. 102

D. 204

32. In a four-digit number, the sum of the first two digits is equal to that of the last two digits. The sum of the first and last digits is equal to the third digit. Finally, the sum of the second and fourth digits is twice the sum of the other two digits. What is the third digit of the number?

A. 5

B. 8

C. 1

D. 4

33. Two boys A and B are at two diametrically opposite points on a circle. At one instant the two start running on the circle; A anticlockwise with constant speed v and B clockwise with constant speed 2v. In 2 minutes, they pass each other for the first time. How much later· will they pass each other for the second time?

A. 1 minute

B. 2 minutes

C. 3 minutes

D. 4 minutes

34. 10 is the mean of a set of 7 observations and 5 is the mean of a set of 3 observations. The mean ofthe combined set is given by

A. 7.5

B. 8.5

C. 10

D. 15

35. A sum of money is divided among. D in she ratio of 3 5 9 13 respectively. If the share of C is Rs. 2,412 more than the share of A,then what is the total amount of money of B D together?

A. Rs. 4,422

B. Rs. 7,236

C. Rs. 6,030

D. Rs. 4,824

36. In households, electric appliances are normally connected

A. in series between phase and neutral wires

B. in parallel between phase and neutral wires

C. in series between phase and ground wires

D. in parallel between phase and ground wires

37. If the velocity of an object increases causing its momentum to change by what will be the change in its kinetic energy?

A. 169%

B. 160%

C. 69%

D. 60%

38. Sound in a medium has a frequency of 2Hz and a wavelength of 100m. How long does it take for it to travel 200m?

A. 40sec

B. 1/4sec

C. 1sec

D. 4sec

39. You apply the same force on a knife and it cuts through some material while a thick rod does not. This is because
A. Knife applies greater pressure compared to the rod
B. Knife is meant for cutting
C. Knife applies greater total force
D. Knife is narrower on one side compared to the other side
40. Which among the options is the integral ofthe function lIx?
A.
2
B. x
C. lIx2
D. eX 41. What is the value

i. x2+1 for odd x.
ii. 4x+1 for even x.
A 100
B.95
C.105
D.110
42. Which ofthe following is proportional to the force exerted by an egg ofmass z kg on earth if the mass of earth is M kg.
A. zMNewtons
B. zM2 Newons
C. rM Newtons
D. z Newtons
43. The essential component ofa step-down transformer is
A. Electrical connection between primary and secondary coil
B. Interaction between magnetic fields of primary and secondary coils.
C. A dielectric core
D. A laminated iron core
44. A Hall effect sensor
A. exists only in theory
B. is a noncontacting magnetic sensor
C. measures static electric field
D. measures echo
45. If a bee is travelling straight from its hive to a cluster of flowers with velocity v m/sec for halfthe total time to reach the flowers 2v m1sec for quarter ofthe time and v/2 m1sec for the rest to the time, what is bee's average velocity?
A. v m1sec
7v/8 m1sec

C. 5v/9 m1sec
D. 9v/8 m1sec

46. Which is the false statement about light and sound?
A. Both light and sound require media to propagate
B. Both light and sound can diffract
C. Both light and sound can be reflected
D. Both light and sound can have different velocities in different media

47. Which are the main elements that make up living cells?
A. Carbqn, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Silicon
B. Carbon, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Calcium
C. Carbon, Sulphur, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Magnisium
D. Carbon, Sulphur, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Silicon
48. If 8Volts applied to a resistor caused a current flow of2Ampere what will be the current
when 4Volts is applied?

A.O.5Amp
B.2Amp

C. 8Amp
D. 1Amp
49. Life on earth was originated in:
A. reducing environment
B. oxidizing environment
C. chlorinated environment
D. brominated environment
50. A mollkey experiences fear the frrst time it sees a snake. This is because:
A. the monkey has learned to beware of snakes from its parents
B. the monkey is frightened by any novel experience
C. natural selection has led monkeys having an instinctive fear ofsnakes
D. the monkey logically deduces that the snake must be dangerous
51. Wings of insects and birds have become flat, large and streamlined. This is an example of:
A. Convergent evolution
B. Parallel evolution
C. Divergent evolution
Co-evolution

12

52. Recipients of 2014 Nobel Prize on Physiology or Medicine were involved in the discovery of:
A. bipolar cells and tripolar cells
B. basket cells and endothelial cells
C. rod cells and cone cells
D. place cells and grid cell.
53. Among the following, which is a sex-linked disorder:
A. Night blindness
B. Colour blindness
C. Cretinism
D. Myxodema
54. Haemophilia is X linked disorder. If a haemophilic male marries a normal female, what percentage of sons will have hemophilia?
A.25%
B.50%
C.O%
D.I00%

55. Active genes are associated with the loosely packed chromatin called
A. euchromatin
B. heterochromatin
C. metaphase chromatin
D. silenced chromatin
56. Homeotic genes are responsible for:
A. Homeostasis
B. Hematopoiesis·
C. Development
D. Cell cycle·
57.Vinblastine
is apoisonthatpreventsthepolymerization ofmicrotubules. Which ofthe
following processes are likely to be affected in the presence ofVinblastine?


A.
Protein synthesis on polysomes

B.
Protein synthesis on free ribosomes

C.
Ribosome assembly

D.
Cell division.


13

58. Receptors for neurotransmitters are located on the:
A. nucleus
B.·endosome

C. Golgi apparatus
D. cell surface
59..Depolarizationofneuronalmembraneduringthepropagation ofnerve impulseoraction potential involves:
A. entry ofpotassium ions to the neuron
B. entry of calcium ions to the neuron
C. entry of chloride ions to the neuron
D. entry of sodium ions to the neuron
60. The minimum distance at which a microscope is capable ofdistinguishing two points as separate is its:
A. Magnification
B. Illumination
C. Resolving power
D. Fluorescence
61. Hematopoietic stem cells are found in:
A. Lymphoid organs
B. Skin
C. Bone marrow
D. Spleen
62. Temperature-sensitive mutants are important in molecular biology because they help in studying:
A. genes for heat stress
B. genes for cold stress
C. genes necessary for survival of cell or organism
D. genes involved in heat shock response
63. First cells to be differentiated in a developing embryo are:
A. Epithelial cells
B.Rods

C. RBCs
D. Nerve cells
14

64. Most ofthe dry mass in the trunk ofa tree was originally derived froni
A. the soil
B. light energy
C. amino acids
D.C02

65. A student was given a task of identifying the contents of five bottles of amino acids from which the labels had fallen off. Each of the original bottles contained one of the following: arginine, histidine, cysteine, proline, and tryptophan. Which of the following methods could be most readily employed to identify tryptophan?
A. Electrophoresis
B. Ultraviolet spectroscopy
C. Analytical ultracentrifugation
D. Optical rotation
66. Which ofthe following statements about circadian rhythms is correct?
A. They are expressed during cell division only.
B. They occur only in mammals.
C. They are generated exogenously.
D. They have a periodicity of about 24 hours.
61. In the DNA sequence CGA TCG GCT which ofthe following is considered a transition type mutation?
A. CGATGOCT3'
B. CGA TCO CCT
Co. CGA TCO OCA

D. CGA UCG OCU
68. The experimental technique most suited for the determination of the three dimensional structure ofa crystalline solid is
A. UV-visible spectrophotometer
B. polarimetry
C. X ray diffraction
D. measurement of colligative properties
69. The process ofspeciation can be prevented by
A. genetic differentiation
B. geographical barriers
C. gene flow
D. behavioural barriers
15

70. How many grams ofMgCh are required to prepare one litre ofa 10-millimolar MgCh solution? (Atomic weight ofMg =24.3 atomic weight ofCI 35.5 g.)
A. 0.59 g
B.·0.95 g

C. 59g
D. 950 g
71. Which ofthefollowingcatalyzesthetransfer ofaphosphorylgrouptoanucleoside diphosphate
A. Kinase
B. Ligase
C. Phosphatase
D. Oxidoreductase
72. Which ofthe following is known as organ ofbalance in humans?
A.Ear
B.Eye

C. Heart
D. Brain
73. For protein detection the most commonly used probe is:
A.lectin
B. antigen
C. antibody
D. interferons
74. Which pump is responsible for initiating muscle contraction through depolarization of muscle cell membrane?
A.Na+pump.
B.K+pump.

C. Ca2+ pump.
D. Mg2+ pump.

75. Which ofthe following brain part is responsible for spatial navigation?
A. Cerebellum
B. Amygdala
C. Hippocampus
D. Hypothalamus
PART II
Stream: Cognitive Science (Mark the booklet code B in OMR sheet)
36. When did the cognitive revolution took place?
A.1930s
B.1950s
C.1980s
D. none ofthe above
37. Whose name is associated with an influential model ofworking memory?
A. Baddeley
B. James
. C. Ramsey

D. Chomsky
38. One brain center of interest to cognitive psychologists is the hippocampus, a center that:
A. Plays a prominent role in motivation
B. Controls intention and volition
Processes abstract thoughts

D. Appears to be crucial to the formation ofmemory
39. Which ofthe following was instrumental in producing the "cognitive revolution"?
A. Broadbent's work with pilots during WWII
B. Noam Chomsky's work in the field of linguistics
C. The development ofcomputers and artificial intelligence
D. All ofthe above

40. Evidence indicates that
A. The left hemisphere is dominant for language processing while the right hemisphere is dotp.inant for spatial processing.
B. Both heinispheres handle the same tasks but in different ways
C. The right brain is analytic while the left brain is perceptual

D. The left brain has primitive language centers but the right brain is where the real language processing occurs
41. The school of psychology that emphasizes the "whole is greater than the sum of its parts" and that emphasizes the tendency to integrate separate stimuli into meaningful patterns is the school of
A. Behaviorism
B. Gestalt Psychology
C. Functionalism
D. Structuralism
42. Whose name is associated with theories of decision making?
A. Daniel Kahneman
B. Robert Frost
C. William James
D. None ofthe above
43. Who originated the idea of localization offunction?
A. Franz Gall
B. Wilhelm Wundt
C. William James
D. Paul Broca
44. The major problem with phrenology was the assumption that
A. Different parts ofthe brain controlled different functions
B. The size of a portion ofthe brain corresponded to its relative power
C. Different faculties were absolutely independent
D. Both and are correct answers
45. Disruption of language abilit.ies is referred to as
A. Aphasia
B. Epilepsy
C. Agnosia
D. Anosmia

46. Which is a cognitive process?
A. attention
B. vision
C. memory
D. all ofthe above
47. Posner's name is associated with which task
A. spatial cuing
B. visual world
.C. simon

D. all ofthe above
f1.8. Endogenous attention shift is
A. voluntary
B. involuntary
C. both ofthe above
D. none ofthe above
49. How much time it takes to program a saccade?
200ms
B.400ms
C.50ms

D. None ofthe above
50. Broca's area is known to be involved in
A. speaking
B. syntactic processing
C. sequential processing
D. all ofthe above
51. Self-paced technique is widely used as a method in
A. Sentence processing
B. Face perception
C. Object recognition
D. Numerical cognition
52. Foveal vision is limited to
A. 1-2 degrees
B. 4-5 degrees
C. 10-12 degrees
D. none ofthe above · Maximum ofcapacityofvisual short tenn memory is

A. 4-6 items
B. 8-9 items
c.
1-3 items

D.
12-14 items


54. The reluctance ofattention to return to a location immediately is known as
A. inhibition of return
B. inhibition of cause
c.
perspective taking

D.
none ofthe above


55. Chomskyan transformation involves
A. sand d structures
B. k and m structures
C. tand I structures
D. band d structures
56. SQUIDS (superconducting quantum interference devices) are commonly used in which neuroimaging method?
A.MEG
B. fMRI
C. both
D. none ofthe above
57. In ERP methodology one sees an N400 when
A. there is a semantic mismatch with the context
B. there is a working memory problem
C. when there is a reading problem
D. when there is a problem related to numerical calculation
58. What Mary did not particularly refers to a problem in
A. Philosophy ofmind
B. Philosophy of science
C. History ofscience
D. behavioral psychology

59. Nikolai Trubetzkoy was a founder figure in
A. phonology
B. semantics
C. syntax
D. pragmatics

60. DRC model is a cognitive model of
A. visual word recognition
B. sense perception
C. memory
D. none ofthe above
61. Change detection as a paradigm deals with
A. selective attention
B. working memory
C. semantic processing
D. all ofthe above
62. Which discipline was a core discipline in the formation of cognitive science
A. linguistics
B. astronomy
C. Mechanical engineering
D. none ofthe above
63. Top down effects in cognitive processing refers to
A. an influence of context
B. an influence ofthe goals ofthe agent
C. both ofthe above
D. only a
64. The PDP model ofcognition proposed by
A. McClelland and Rumelhart
B. Chomsky and Halle
C. Steven Pinker
D. James Watson
65. The Levelt's model is a model of
A. sentence processing
B. semantic memory
C. Speech production
D. Executive control

66. Design features of language were proposed by
A. Charles·F Hockeet
B. Claude Levi -Strauss
C. ·Posner
D. None ofthe above
67. Which ofthe following sub-cortical structure is involved in saccade programming
A. superior colliculus
B. Broca's area
C. Wernicke's area
D. Hypothalamus
68. Word superiority effect refers to
A. ability to recognize letters in words better than in non-words
B. ability to identify morphology ofwords
Identifying pragmatics ofwords

D. All ofthe above
69. Dyslexia is a
A. disorder ofvisual word recognition
B. Disorder of sentence production
C. Memory disorder
D. movement disorder
70. dichotic listening paradigm is a task used to measure
A. selective attention
B. visual perception
C. working memory
D. long term memory
71. What is the cannonical sentence structure of Hindi?
A.SOV
B.OVS
C.VSO
D. None ofthe above
72. Visual word form area is a functional region of
A. fusiform gyrus
B. frontal eye field
C. Wernicke's area
D. cerebellum 73. Visual neglect refers to

A. An attention disorder where patients fail to identify stimuli on anyone side
B. A disorder ofaction memory
A disorder linked to computation

D. A disorder linked to decision making
74. The 'computer metaphor' in cognitive science refers to
A. Viewing the mind as a digital computer
B. Studying computer hardware
C. Studying animal cognition
D. All ofthe above·
75. Qualia in philosophy ofmind refers to
A. subjective awareness ofevents
B. attending to objects
C. knowing others bodily states
D. none ofthe above
PART II
Stream: Linguistic Cognition (Mark the booklet C in OMR sheet)
36. My wife beats me. This sentence is
A. lexically ambiguous
B. structurally ambiguous
C. phonologically ambiguous
D. not ambiguous
37. He put the cat in the box on the table. This sentence is
A. lexically ambiguous
B. structurally ambiguous
C. phonologically ambiguous
D. not ambiguous Here is data from a hypothetical language.

bujuk kopekim big dog'
kara kopekler 'black dog'
. uc kukuc kopeklerim three little dogs'

ik kukuc kopeklersi 'his two little dogs'
.iki kopeklersi 'his two dogs'

38. 'kara kukuc kopekim' means
A. my little black dog
B. my three black dog
c.
his little black dog

D.
his three black dogs


'39. 'bujuk kopeksi' means
A. his big dogs
B. my black dog
C. his big dog
D. my little dogs
40. New words in English very rarely start with sound combinations like or This illustrates one of
A. the phonological rules of English
B. the morphological rules ofEnglish
C. the phonetic rules ofEnglish
D. the semantic rules ofEnglish
41. Infants distinguish /paJ and but not and Ita!. This is because they go by
A. place of articulation of phonemes
B. voice onset time and the syllable
C. pitch and accent ofthe syllable
D. rhythm ofthe syllable
42. Given current evidence, what is the most likely impact of language on thought?
A. One's language determines one's thought
B. One's language has no impact on one's thought
C. One's language has a permanent impact on one's thought
D. One's language impacts one's thought indirectly by impacting memory and attention

43. The question "Can eagles that fly swim?" is about
A. whether eagles can swim
B. whether eagles can fly
C. ·whether eagles can fly and swim
D. whether eagles can either fly or swim

44. "Modularity," or "the modularity of mind" is
A. the idea that language has many parts to it, like sounds and grammar
B. the idea that the mind has many modules, just as the body has various organs
C. the ability ofthe mind to understand the world
D. the idea is that language patterns are modality specific
45. Target: I forgot my tennis racquet at home. Slip: I forgot my tennis bat at home.
The slip happens at the stage.
A. conceptualization
B. formulation
C. articulation
D. self-correction
46. Target: Take my bike Slip: Bake my bike.
The slip happens because the speaker
A. adds a phoneme
B. anticipates an phoneme
C. repeats a phoneme
D. swaps two phonemes
47. Target: I am not in the mood for reading. Slip: I am not in the read for mooding.
The slip is a result of
A. morpheme exchange
B. phoneme exchange
C. meaning exchange
D. phrase exchange
Werker and Tees (1984) looked at three infant groups months, 8-10 months, and 10-12 months) and their perception of two non-native contrasts, the Hindi dental-retroflex contrasts -fia vs. and the Salish velar-uvular contrast in ejectives -qi vs. ki. Using the Head turn task, they found that the 6-8 month old English infants could discriminate the Hindi and Salish contrasts, while the 10-12 month old infants could not.
25

48. 6-8 month children showed they could
A. discriminate all speech contrasts
B. discriminate contrasts from cognate languages
C.. produce limited speech sounds

D. understand Hindi and Salish
49. 10-12 month children could not perceive non-native contrasts because
A. they had suppressed contrasts which were not phonemic in their L1
B. they had lost their ability to discriminate contrasts
C. they had learnt new contrasts in their L1
D. they were told not to listen to non-native contrasts
50. Plato's Problem is about
A. language acquisition
B. language change
C. language extinction
D. none ofthe above
51. Sita wants Hari to hate herselfviolates
A. subjacency
B. condition A ofthe Binding Theory
C. condition C ofthe Binding theory
D. theECP
52. Which ofthe following sentences violates the Empty Category PrinCiple?
A. Who do you think that Soumya likes?
B. Who do you think that.likes Soumya?
C. Who knows what to do?
D. What like·swho?
53. Which ofthe following illustrates hyponymy?
A. car: wheel
B. mammal: horse
C. black: white
D. woodchuck: hedgehog
54. The national languages ofIndia are
A. Hindi and Tamil
B. Sanskrit and English
C. Hindi and English
D. none ofthe above

55. Grimm's Law is about
A. meaning change
B. sound change
C. syntactic change
D. none ofthe above
56. The segment It! in English is
A. dental
B. palatal
C. alveolar
D. retroflex
57. Pitch is the same as
A. intensity
B. frequency
C. volume
D. none ofthe above
58. The sentence Colorless green ideas sleepfuriously is
A. syntactically ill-formed
B. semantically ill-formed
C. ambiguous
D. none of the above
59. The horse racedpast the barnfell is an example of a
A. syntactically ill-formed sentence
B. semantically ill-formed sentence
C. garden-path .sentence
D. none ofthe above
60. In the sentence Flyingplanes are dangerous the wordflying is
A. agerund
B. a participle
C. an adverb
D. a verb
61. The term cognition" assumes that
A. the language faculty is identical with the cognitive faculty.
B. all cognition is through language.
C. language is one among the cognitive faculties.
D. language and cognition are inseparable.

62. The words "yesterday" and "tomorrow" in English correspond to a single word "kal" in Hindi. This shows that
A. Hindi speakers do not distinguish the concepts YESTERDAY and TOMORROW.
B. there are two words kal in Hindi, which are homophones.
C. Time is culturally less important in India.
D. Hindi kal and the English words share a meaning component "one day away from today."
63. Some languages do not have separate words for he and she. Speakers of such languages often hesitate between these words or use the wrong pronoun when they speak English. This is an error
A. of linguistic performance
B. ofjudgement
C. of linguistic competence
D. of cognition
64. Language in the hearing-impaired, the blind, and the seeing-hearing populations
A. differs in fundamental ways.
B. is expressed through different modalities.
C. is located in different parts ofthe mind-brain.
D. is present to different degrees.
65. The sentence All Indians know a song
A. is ambiguous
B. is false
C. is true
D. maybe false ortrue depending on the context
66. In a child's story, a mother hen who finds only four of her five chicks says: "Where are my chicks? I can't find them all." A child thought the mother hen was telling a lie. This is because
A. the child doesn't know her English properly.
B. the child obligatorily reversed the scopes of all and not.
C. the sentence does not allow the scope relation not>all.
D. the child did not know that quantifiers have scope relations.


67. People who know more than one language
A. keep them separately stored in their brain
B. .have a single over:arching language system in their brain
C. have one lexicon but separate syntactic systems corresponding to each language
D. have a way of using each language independently, regardless how they are represented in the brain.
68. According to linguistic relativity ("language affects cognition"), people who speak two unrelated languages
A. must have two different thought systems
B. must have a confused thought system
C. must have a thought system that incorporates both thought systems
D. must be allowing only one language to interact with thought.
69. Language and intelligence
A. go together
B. show a dependence of intelligence on language
C. are independent of each other
D. show a dependence of language on intelligence
70. Which ofthe following statements is true? "There are language deficits in which
A. speech is fluent and grammatical but meaningless
B. speech is dysfluent and ungrammatical but meaningful
C. formulaic speech is preserved but creative speech is affected
D. all ofthe above.
71. When a linguistic form is late-acquired, the question whether the difficulty is one of language or cognition is relevant
A. in first or chilq language acquisition
B. in second or later (after the age of3) language acquisition
C. in neither
D. in both

72. Although sentences and phrases can be infmitely long, they are not so in actuality. This shows that
A. no real speaker has the ideal native speaker's competence
B.. linguistic performance is subject to constraints of memory, fatigue, etc.

C. language does not occur without meaningfulness
D. linguistic rules have no real instantiation in the brain.
73. The mind-brain problem refers to
A. the divide between philosophy and neuroscience
B. the problem that everyone who has a brain does not have a mind
C. the problem ofhow consciousness and thought arise out ofthe physical brain
D. the problem that the brain cannot feel its own pain because it is not the mind.
74. The idea of a Universal Grammar means that
A. there must be a single parent language for all human languages
B. language is a genetic endowment which can vary within limits in its expression
C. all human beings could understand each other even ifthey didn't speak
D. babies must understand much more than we think they do, ifthey are to speak.
75. Read the bilingual joke below and say ofthe following statements are true. Question: "What did one banana say to another?" Answer: "Akela huii me." The pun in this joke is between
A. a Hindi word and an English word
B. an English sentence and a Hindi sentence
C. a Hindi word and an English phrase
D. a Hindi word and a mixed English-Hindi phrase.