1. select the related word/letters/number from the given alternative.

Zoology: Animal:: Psychology:?

(A) Plant

(B) Animal

(C) Human-being

(D) Animal and human -being

2. select the related word/letters/number from the given alternative.

CFIL:ABCD:: :WXYZ

(A) XURO

(B) ZYXW

(C) DCBA

(D) JHPS

3. select the related word/letters/number from the given alternative.

L X M:12 X13::UXW: 21X23

(B) 21x22

(C) 24x26

(D) 9x11

4. select the related word/letters/number from the given alternative.

Man: Mammal:: Liberty:Literate

(B) Hail:Snow

(C) Native:Inhabitant

(D) Offspring:Family

5. select the related word/letters/number from the given alternative.

6:2::8: 5

(B) 1

(C) 3

(D) 7

6. select the related word/letters/number from the given alternative.

CFIL:XURO:: ORUX: MJFC

(B) ROLI

(C) RITO

(D) LIFC

7. select the related word/letters/number from the given alternative.

1:8::4: 32

(B) 64

(C) 512

(D) 128

8. select the related word/letters/number from the given alternative.

Life starts :embryo:: Life ends: Death

(B) Old age

(C) Dead body

(D) Illness

9. select the related word/letters/number from the given alternative.

EVFU:TGSH::IRJQ: PKLO

(B) KWLX

(C) PKOL

(D) OLPK

10. find the add number/ letters/number pair form the given alternative.

(A) 72

(B) 81

(C) 93

(D) 66

11. find the add number/ letters/number pair form the given alternative. 216,02)

(D) (343,01)

12. find the add number/ letters/number pair form the given alternative.

(A) Division

(B) Addition

(C) Subtract

(D) Multiplication

13. find the add number/ letters/number pair form the given alternative.

(A) 47

(B) 17

(C) 27

(D) 37

14. find the add number/ letters/number pair form the given alternative.

(A) 5270-2936

(B) 186-69

(C) 168-570

(D) 1001-100

15. find the add number/ letters/number pair form the given alternative.

(A) 85362

(B) 63852

(C) 52638

(D) 28751

16. find the add number/ letters/number pair form the given alternative.

(A) VEIIDD

(B) IVEF

(C) VEENS

(D) EINN

17. find the add number/ letters/number pair form the given alternative. Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Jammu and Kashmir

(C) Haryana

(D) Himachal Pradesh

18. find the add number/ letters/number pair form the given alternative.

(A) Size

(B) Number

(C) Form

(D) Weight

19. find the add number/ letters/number pair form the given alternative.

(A) Fish

(B) Frog

(C) Tortoise

(D) Crab

20. find the add number/ letters/number pair form the given alternative.

(A) Board

(B) Commission

(C) Team

(D) Agenda


21. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

RAZSBYTCXUDWVEV ZAT

(B) WFU

(C) FWU

(D) XGX

22. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
AAC BBD CCE DDF EEG F DG

(B) FG

(C) GH

(D) FH

23. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

BIP D

(A) U

(B) W

(C) S

(D) R

24. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

DF GJ KM NQ RT, UX

(B) UW

(C) YZ

(D) XZ

25. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
a_ ba c _aad aa ea

(A) babbb

(B) babbd

(C) babbc

(D) bacde

26. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
aa_aa_bb_b_aa_aa_bb_bb.

(A) bbbaa

(B) bbbba

(C) aabbb

(D) babba

27. If 64/ then56/22 11

(B) 39

(C) 7

(D) 36

28. It was Shriram's and Sreedevi's 12 th Wedding annivrsary. Shriram said"When we got
married, Sreedevi was 3/4th of my age, but now she is 5/6th of my age", What actually are their presentages?

(A) Shriram38,Sreedevi32

(B) Shriram36,Sreedevi30

(C) Shriram30, Sreedevi24

(D) Shriram40,Sreedevi34


29. Find the wrong number in the series from the given alternatives.

17,36,53,68,83,92

(A) 92

(B) 53

(C) 68

(D) 83

30. If P denotes/ Q denotesX, R denotes and S denotes then 18Q12P4R5S6 95

(B) 53

(C) 51

(D) 57

31. If DEAF is equal to 32, what will be LEAF 56

(B) 48

(C) 50

(D) 52

32. If then 35/7 75

(B) 20

(C) 50

(D) 25

33. In a certain code, " CERTAIN" is coded as "XVIGZRM", "SEQUENCE" is coded as "HVJFVMXV" . How would"REQUIRED" be coded FJIVWVIR

(B) VJIFWTRV

(C) WVJRIFVI

(D) PVJFRIVW

34. CONSTITUTIONAL'

(A) CONSULT

(B) LOCATION

(C) TUTION

(D) TALENT

35. If 33 45=30,90 26=40, then 30 45= 15

(B) 14

(C) 16

(D) 18

36. Select the missing number from the given responses

(A) 4

37. Select the missing number from the given responses 7 6 9
2 8 4

4 3 ?

36 42 26

(A) 5

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

38. Ram and Sham start walking in opposite directions. Ram covers 6kms and Sham 8kms. Then Ram turns right and walks 8kms and Sham turns left and walks 6kms. How far each is from the starting point?


(A) 11kms

(B) 8kms

(C) 9kms

(D) 10kms

39. Sherly starting from a fixed point goes 15m towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15m.Then he goes 10,15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point?

(A) 15 metres

(B) 5 metres

(C) 10 metres

(D) 20 metres

40. Two statements are followed by 2 conclusions numbered I and II. Which one of the four alternatives is correct?

Statement All teachers are aged.
Statement II: Some women are teachers.
Conclusion All aged are women.
ConclusionII Some women are aged.

(A) Both conclusion I and II follow

(B) Only conclusion I follows

(C) Only conclusion II follows

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

41. Statement All skaters are good swimmers.
Statement II: All good swimmers are runners.
Conclusion Some runners are skaters.
conclusion II: Some skaters are good swimmers.

(A) Neither conclusion I nor II follow

(B) Only conclusion I follows

(C) Only conclusion II follows

(D) Both conclusion I and II follow

42. How many 9s are followed by and preceded by numbers divisible by 2?
8965359683496526973729413794173
498453976153195742968532957489451

(A) 12

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

43. If LUXOR is coded as 30, then GUILDS will be coded 40

(B) 36

(C) 38

(D) 24

44. In the following list of English alphabets, one alphabet has not been used.Identify the same.

XNFAPSRWLTMDEXMGB
CXQJLOPVRCQJZOHSG
ODIPTSMRABEFGNUNE

(A) V

(B) I

(C) K

(D) J

45. If Alphabets are serially numbered, one of the answers given below has a meaningful word hidden in i. Identify the answer.

(A) 20,5,8,1,3,5,18

46. which answer figure will complete the question figure?

Question figure

Answer figures




47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded

Question figure
Answer figures




48. In this question if a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Auestion figure

Answer figures


49. A square sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown below.You have to figure out from amongst the four response figures, how it will appear when opened?

Question figure
Answer figures



50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives a re represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below.The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 1 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. can be represented by 31, 76, etc. and "S" can be represented by 14,99, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set fro the woprdk STAR.

50. MATRIX-I


0 1 2 3 4
0 G V E A C
1 R O N G S
2 M N E S I
3 O T I T A
4 N S N E P


MATRIX -II

5 6 7 8 9
5 R E O N G
6 N P V E S
7 M T I O N
8 E A I C O
9 N T A R S


(A) 99,31,86,98

(B) 23,76,33,98

(C) 14,87,98,97

(D) 69,96,03,56

51. Which is NOT a correct statement?

(A) Phenols are acidic

(B) In benzene all the atoms lie in one plane

(C) Methylated spirit contains only methanol

(D) Dilute solutions contain less amount of solute

52. The infective stage of Malaria Gametocyte

(B) Ring stage

(C) Sporozoite

(D) Merozoite

53. The treaty of Versailles restored Alsace-Lorraine Italy

(B) Britain

(C) France

(D) Belgium

54. The Asokan Edicts were deciphered first by:

Sir John Marshall

Sir William Jones

Charles Wilkins

James Prinsep


55. Which of the following is meant for the ex-situ conservation of various species?

(A) Sperm bank

(B) Blood bank

(C) Germplasm bank

(D) Herbarium

56. Analgae type ocean deposit is Neritic remains

(B) Diatom Ooze

(C) Pteropod Ooze

(D) Pelagicdeposits

57. Photosynthetic vesicle found in bacteria is called Mesosome

(B) Chromatophore

(C) Genophore

(D) Pneumatophore

58. What type of mirror is used in a view finding mirror of a vehicle?

(A) Convex mirror

(B) Plane mirror

(C) Concave mirror

(D) Paraboloidal mirror

59. What is commerce?

(A) machine commerce

(B) mobile commerce

(C) money commerce

(D) marketing commerce

60. Who said that the Directive Principles of State Policy are just like " a cheque on
bank paya ble at the convenience of the bank"/

(A) Pandit Nehru

(B) K.T. Shah

(C) B.R.Ambedakar

(D) N.G. Ranga

61, Wheat, barley, Lemon, Orange, rye, and pearl millet belong the same plant family

(B) two plant families

(C) three plant families

(D) four plant families

62. Who favoured the Artic Home theory of the Aryans?

(A) Pargiter

(B) A.C.DAS

(C) B.G. Tilak

(D) Jacobi

63. A plant known only in cultivation having arisen under domestication is referred to Scion

(B) Cultigen

(C) Cultivar

(D) Clone

64.The proposal for the creation of new All India Services can be considered only:

(A) if majority of State Legislatures make such demand

(B) if lok Sabha passes a resolution by two- thirds majority

(C) if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority

(D) None of the above

65. Pyroligneous acid obtained from wood contains:

(A) 10% Formaldehyde

(B) 10% Acetic acid

(C) 10% Formic acid

(D) 10% ethanol

66. Union Carbide India Ltd. manufactured essentially:

(A) Heavy water

(B) Petrochemicals

(C) Fertilizers

(D) leather goods

67. The iron and steel plant in bihar is a

(A) Visakhapatnam

(B) Bokaro

(C) Burnpur

(D) Vijay Nagar

68. Who was the teacher of Gautama Buddha?

(A) Panini

(B) Alara Kalama

(C) Kapilla

(D) Patanjali

69. Ram Sharan Sharma, who died in 2011 was an eminent

(A) Chemist

(B) Economist

(C) Indologist

(D) Archaeologist

70. The 34th National Games were held in 2011 Uttarakhand

(B) Kerala

(C) Kamataka

(D) tharkhand


71. "Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth is the guiding principle of |Attributive theory of justice

(B) Retributive theory of justice

(C) Deterrent theory of justice

(D) Feformative theory of justice

72. Low cost housing is an example for:

(A) Mixed wants

(B) Social wants

(C) Private wants

(D) Mirit wants

73. Tohra is the sacred book of Zoroastrianism

(B) confucianism

(C) Taoism

(D) Judaism

74. The 98th Indian Science Congress was held in 2011 Bengaluru

(B) Bhopal

(C) Chennai

(D) Bhubaneshwar

75. Drying oils contain a fairly large proportion Unsaturated fatty acids

(B) Fats

(C) Proteins

(D) Saturated fatty acids

76. Consumption for the sake of enjoying social acknowledgement is called:

(A) Rational consumption

(B) Social consumption

(C) Conspicuous consumption

(D) Demonstration consumption

77. The red, orange and yellow colours of leaves are due Carotenoids

(B) Aldehydes

(C) Tannins

(D) Lignins

78. Which bank was the firs to introduce ATMs to the world?

(A) Hong Kong Bank

(B) Standard Chartered Bank

(C) Bank of America

(D) Citi Bank

79. We receive sunlight on earth surface.What type of light beams are these?

(A) Random

(B) Parallel

(C) Converging

(D) Diverging


80. The state which has registered the highest population growth rate according to 2001 census Kerala
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Nagaland
(D) Sikkim

81. Earth is a very big magnet.In which direction does its magnetic field extend West to east

(B) North to south

(C) South to north

(D) east to west

82. Of the following economists, whom do lyou consider to be the Master of "Partial Analysis"?

(A) Leon Walras

(B) Alfred Marshall

(C) J.M.Keynes

(D) Lionel Robbins

83. The authority to specify which castes shall be deemed to be scheduled castes rests with the:

(A) Commissioner for Scheduled Castes and Tribes

(B) Prime Minister

(C) President

(D) Governor

84. Polar-bears hold cures for:

(A) Type II diabetes

(B) Osteoporosis

(C) Breast-cancer

(D) Kidney failure

85. Which colour/colours of light has the highest velocity through vacuum?

(A) Blue

(B) Red

(C) Green

(D) All of the above

86. The ultimate source of energy in a hydroelectric power station solar energy

(B) the potential energy of water

(C) the kinetic energy of water

(D) the electro-chemical energy of water

87. Mamta Sharma was appointed in 2011 as the charperson of National commission for Minorities

(B) National Commission for Protection of Child Right

(C) National Commission for women

(D) National Copmmission for BCs

88. India making 'Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement' (DTAA) with other countries for the promotion Bilateral trade

(B) External commercial borrowings

(C) Foreign direct investments

(D) Foreign institutional investment

89. The seat of Keral High Court is located Kottayam

(B)Thiruvananthapuram

(C) Kollam

(D) Ernakulam

90. The disease that kills more people than lung cancer as a consequence of air pollution chronic bronchitis

(B) asthma

(C) emphesema

(D) heart attack

91. The most densely populated state in India Kerala

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) West Bengal

(D) Tamil nadu

92. Brain drain has been caused failure to recognise talent in the originating country.

(B) the lure of high living standards

(C) lack of employment opportunities

(D) socio-economic instability

93. Human Development Index was formulated ASEAN

(B) I B R D

(C) U N D P

(D) U N C T A D


94. The biggest planet in the solar system Venus

(B) Jupiter

(C) Saturn

(D) Uranus

95. Peninsular India has the following zonal soil types:

(A) Red and yellow soil

(B) Forest soil

(C) Saline soil

(D) Alluvial soil

96. The prose collection of the vedic poems are:

(A) Samhitas

(B) Upanishads

(C) Aranyakas

(D) Brahmanas

97. The Study of population is known Demography

(B) Climatology

(C) Petrology

(D) Hydrology

98. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Milk of lime-sodium sulphate

(B) Glauber's salt- calcium sulphate

(C) Salt petre- potassium nitrate

(D) Gypsum-calcium hydroxide


99. Which is the author of the book 'Pakistan:Beyond the Crisis Khuram Iqbal

(B) Maleeha Lodhi

(C) Amir Mir M.J.Akbar

100. The first speaker of Lok Sabha was:

(A) S.Radhakrishnan

(B) M.Ananthasayanam Ayyangar

(C) Sardar Hukam Singh

(D) G.V.Mavlankar

101. If cotA=cosecA=3 and A is an acute angle, then the value of cos A 1

(C) 3/4

102. A three -digit number 4a3 is added to another three-digit number 984 to give the four digit
number 13b7 which is divisible by 11.

Then the values of 11

(B) 12

(C) 9

(D) 10

103. In a right-angled triangle ABC,<B is the right angle and AC 2 root 5cm. if AB BC= 2cm,
then the value of (cos2A cos2-c) 3/10

104.A boy standing in the middle of a field, observes a flying bird in the north at an angle of elevation of 30* and after 2 minutes, he observes the same bird in the south at an angle of elevation for If the bird flies all along in a straight line at a height of 50 root 3 then its speed in km/his:

(A) 4.5

(B) 3

(C) 9

(D) 6

105. The perimeter of an isosceles right-angled triangle is 2p unit. The area of the same triangle root2)p2 sq. unit

(B) root2)p2sq.unit

(C) (2-root 2)p2sq.unit

(D) (3-root2)p2sq.unit

106. ABC AND DEF are similar and their areas be respectively 64 cm2 and 121 cm2. if EF= 15.4 cm, BC 12.3cm

(B) 11.2cm

(C) 12.1cm

(D) 11.0cm

107. If G is the centroid of ABC and AG=BC, then <BGC 60*

108. If tan(x tan then the value of tan x root3

(B) 1

(C) root3

109. In a partnership business, A investes 1/6 th of the capital for 1/6 of the total time,B invests 1/4 of the capital for 1/4 of the total time and the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of Rs 19,400, share Rs. 2000

(B) Rs. 1200

(C) Rs. 1600

(D) Rs. 1800

110. A jar contains a mixture of two liquids A abd B in the ratio 4:1 . When 10 it of the mixture is replaced with liquid the ratio becomes 2:3. The volume of liquid A present in the jar earlier was:

(A) 29 lt.

(B) 10 lt.

(C) 16 lt.

(D) 15 lt.

111. If (5x 3y2) then the positive value of x/y 5/3

112. By decreasing 15* of each angle of a triangle, the ratios of their angles are 2:3:5. The radian measure of greatest angle 11ii/24

(B) ii/12

(C) ii/24

(D) 5ii/24

113. The least value of 4 cosec 2 a 9 sin2 ais:

(A) 14

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 12

114. The greatest no. that will divide 19,35 and 59 to leave the same remainder in each case 9

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

115. The average temperature of Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 30*C and that of Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday was 33*C. If the temperature on Monday was 32* then the temperature on Thursday was.

(A) 33*C

(B) 30*C

(C) 31*C

(D) 32*C

116. Ia a root3-root2/root3 roo2 root3 root2/root3-root2, then the value of a2/b b2/a 900

(B) 970

(C) 1030

(D) 930

117.The next term of the 345

(B) 143

(C) 341

(D) 343

118. O is the circum centre of the triangle ABC with circum radius 13cm. Let BC =24 cm and OD is perpendicular to BC . Then the length of OD 7 cm

(B) 3 cm
4 cm

(D) 5 cm

119. If ax by bx 2 and x2 y2 then the value of (a2 b2) would 10

(B) 2

(C) 4

(D) 5

120. The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi circle of radius x in square unit 4x2

(B) x2

(C) 2x2

(D) 3x2

121.D and E are the mid -points of AB and AC of ABC;BC is produced to any point P;DE,DP and EP are joined. Then,

(A) PED= 1/4 ABC

(B) PED= BEC

(C) ADE= BEC

(D) BDE= BEC

122. If a 1/a then the value of a3 2

(C) 4

123. The mean of 19 observation is 24. If the mean of the first 10 observations is 17 and that of the last 10 observations is 24, find the 10th observation.

(A) 65

(B) 37

(C) 46

(D) 53

124. A watch is sold at a profit of 30% . Had it been sold for Rs 80less, there would have been a loss of 10%. What is the cost price in rupees?

(A) 150

(B) 200

(C) 400

(D) 800

125. A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the ame direction in which the train is
running, at the rate of 2 kmph and 4kmph and passes them completely in 9 and 10 seconds
respectively. The length of the train (inmetres) 72

(B) 45

(C) 54

(D) 50

126. The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm. and 20 cm whose centres are 25cm apart is 20

(B) 24

(C) 25

(D) 15

127. If a commission of 10% is given on the marked price of a work, the publisher gains 20%. If
the commission is increased to 15% the gain percent 16 13 15 1/6%

128.If 2rootx=( FIGURE,), then the vlue of x is.


(A) 6

(B) 30

(C) root 15

(D) 15

129. If x=2 root3, then the value of rootx 1/root x root 3

(B) root 6

(C) 2 root6

(D) 6

130. If 12 men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 days, then working at the same rate,
8, men and 16 women can reap the same filed 9 days

(B) 5 days

(C) 7 days

(D) 8 days

131. By selling 9 articles for a rupee, a man incurred a loss of 4%. To make a gain of 44% ,
the number of articles to be sold for a rupee 5

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 6

132.The simplied value of

1- sin2 1 cosA 1 cosA/sinA sinA/1-cosA cosA

(B) 0

(C) 1

(D) sinA

133. If a3-b3 56 and a-b then the value of (a2 b2) 20

(D) 18

134. If tan0-cot0 a and cos0-sin0= then the value of(a2 4

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

135. Area of the trapezium formed by x-axis; y-axis and the lines 3x 4y =12 and 6x 8y=60 37.5 sq.unit

(B) 31.5 sq.unit

(C) 48 sq.unit

(D) 36.5 sq.unit


136. Area of the triangle formed by the graph of the line 2x-3y 6=0 along with the coordinate axes 1/2sq.units

(B) 3/2sq.units

(C) 3 sq.units

(D) 6 sq.units

137. If sin0 2 ab cos0 =a2 b2, then the value of tan0 is

(A) 1/2ab (a2 1/2 1/2ab 1/2 (a2 b2)

138. Prabhat took a certain amount as a loan from a bank at the rate of p.a.simple interest and gave the same amount to Ashish as a loan at the rate of 12% p.a.If at the end of 12 years, he made a profit of Rs. 960 in the deal, then the original amount was:

(A) Rs. 3356

(B) Rs. 1000

(C) Rs. 2000

(D) Rs. 3000

139. AB is a diameter of a circle with centre O.CD is a chord equal to the radius of the circle. AC and BD are produced to meet at P. Then the measure of APB 120*

(B) 90*

140. R and r are the radius of two circles If the distance between the centre of the two
circles be then length of common tangent of two circles root r2 d2

(B) root root d2

(D) root R2 d2

141 P is a point outside a circle and is 13 cm away from its centre, A secant drawn from the point P intersects the circle at points A and B in such a way that PA 9cm and AB 7cm. The radius of the circle 5.5cm

(B) 5cm

(C) 4cm

(D) 4.5cm

142. If a 1/a 2 then the value of 2)3 2)3 is 2

(B) 6

(C) 4

(D) 3

143. If a is a positive acute angle and 2sina 15cos2a=7, then the value of cota root5/2

(D) 2/root5

144. 1 876542 X 876544/876543 X 876543 is equal to 3

(B) 0

(C) 1

(D) 2

145. The perimeters of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are 36 cm and 24cm respectively.
If PQ= 10cm, then AB 25cm

(B) 10cm

(C) 15cm

(D) 20cm

146. In Assam, the ratio of Aircell simcard and Airtel simcard sold 2:3

147. In which state are there the largest number of owners of Airtel simcard?

(A) Tamilnadu

(B) Gujarat

(C) Kerala

(D) Assam

148. Average of simcard sold in the four states in lakhs is

(A) 30.25

(B) 40.5

(C) 35

(D) 33.75

149. The range of BSNL simcard sold in the 4 states in lakhs 12

(B) 15

(C) 14

(D) 13

150. Of all the simcards sold in all the four states, the number of simcards sold in Gujarat is (approx)

(A) 42%

151. Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter(a,b,c). if a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle corresponding to the answer sheet

World is producing enough/A) for every citizen but still there is hunger and malnutition
B)and it continuing year after year.C) No error.D)


152. Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter(a,b,c). if a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle corresponding to the answer sheet

The N.CC commandant along with his cadets are going to Delhi/C) to participate in the Republic Day Pardade./D) No error.

153. Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter(a,b,c). if a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle corresponding to the answer sheet

He did not succeed/A) to getthe job though he tried his level best error.D)



154. Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter(a,b,c). if a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle corresponding to the answer sheet

Many of the famous/A) advertising offices/B) arelocated at Madison Abvenue./C) No error.D)



155. Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter(a,b,c). if a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle corresponding to the answer sheet

Nature has denied the power of closing our ears/B) which she gave in respect of our eyes./C) No error.D)



156. Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word . Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle in the Answer sheet.

The ladies black purse, which is on sale has a beautiful carved on it.

(A) motif

(B) patch

(C) layout

(D) schematic

157. Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word . Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle in the Answer sheet.

Who is the person you at the cinema last night?

(A) were recognising

(B) recognised

(C) have recognised

(D) had recognised

158. Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word . Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle in the Answer sheet.

As you shall you reap.

(A) when

(B) as like

(D) so

159. Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word . Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle in the Answer sheet.

He complemented he new dress.

(A) for

(B) of

(C) on

(D) about

160. Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word . Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate circle in the Answer sheet.

It took him a long time candidate's application.

(A) to considering

(B) to consider and weigh

(C) considering weighing

(D) to consider and to weigh

161. choose the word opposite in meaning to the given work and mark it in the Answer sheet

Annexure

(A) retirement

(B) commencement

(C) attachment development

162. choose the word opposite in meaning to the given work and mark it in the Answer sheet

Errand energy

(B) task

(C) mistake

(D) blunder

163. choose the word opposite in meaning to the given work and mark it in the Answer sheet

Bequeath

(A) give

(B) disclose

(C) scold

(D) surround

164. choose the word opposite in meaning to the given work and mark it in the Answer sheet

Nonchalant

(A) imaginary

(B) casual

(C) neutral

(D) formal

165. choose the word opposite in meaning to the given work and mark it in the Answer sheet

Forbearance

(A) deliverance

(B) patience

(C) extravagance

(D) relevance

166. choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Amenable

(A) Acquiescent

(B) Distrustful

(C) Inattentive

(D) Unwilling

167. choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Conspicuous

(A) blatant

(B) definite

(C) obvious

(D) obscure

168. choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Reproof

(A) Approbation

(B) Apposition

(C) Condemnation

(D) Appropriation

169. choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Niggard

(A) Avaricious

(B) Extravagant

(C) Generous

(D) Miserly

170. choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Exotic

(A) Conventional

(B) Poor

(C) Inexpensive

(D) Indigenous


171. Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

His speech has taken the wind out of my sails.

(A) made my words or actions ineffective
(B) made me depressed
(C) made me think of the future
(D) made me remember my past

172. Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

There is no point in discussing the new project with him as he always pours cold water on any new ideas.

(A) puts off

(B) dislikes

(C) disapproves of

(D) postpones

173. Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

Regardless of what her parents said, she wanted to let her hair down that night.

(A) Really enjoy

(B) Wash her hair

(C) Comb her hair

(D) Work till late

174. Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

I jumped out of my skin when the explosion happened.

(A) was in panic was excited

(C) was nervous

(D) was angry

175. Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

She didn't realize that the cleave salesman was taking her for a ride.

(A) trying to trickher

(B) taking her in a car

(C) pulling her along

(D) forcing her to go with him


176. A part of the sentence is underlined: Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at whicH may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.In case no improvement is needed your answer is .Mark your answer in the Answer sheet.

It took her a long time to get past her failure in the medical examination.

(A) through

(B) over

(C) by

(D) No improvement

177. A part of the sentence is underlined: Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at whicH may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.In case no improvement is needed your answer is .Mark your answer in the Answer sheet.

The boy wanted to ask his father for money, but waited for a propitious occasion.

(A) protective

(B) prophetic

(C) prospective

(D) No improvement

178. A part of the sentence is underlined: Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at whicH may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.In case no improvement is needed your answer is .Mark your answer in the Answer sheet.

I did not agree with him; he appeared to be so bigoted for me to concur.

(A) much

(B) very

(C) too

(D) No improvement

179. A part of the sentence is underlined: Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at whicH may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.In case no improvement is needed your answer is .Mark your answer in the Answer sheet.

As soon as she noticed the workmen, she asked them what they have been doing.

(A) have done

(B) had been

(C) are doing No improvement

180. A part of the sentence is underlined: Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at whicH may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.In case no improvement is needed your answer is .Mark your answer in the Answer sheet.

He was asleep before the mother tucked him off.

(A) through

(B) away

(C) in

(D) No improvement

181. out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences

A raised place on which offerings to a God are made.

(A) rostrum

(B) church

(C) altar

(D) mound

182. out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences

Something that cannot be explained:

(A) unthinkable

(B) impregnable

(C) mysterious

(D) inexplicable

183. out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences

A written declaration made on oath in the presence of a magistrate:

(A) affidavit

(B) dossier

(C) voucher

(D) document

184. out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences

A person who thinks only about himself and not about others needs:

(A) egomaniacal

(B) egoistic

(C) egotistic

(D) egocentric

185. out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences

A guide- post pointing lout the way for a place.

(A) finger-post

(B) lamp-post

(C) checkpost

(D) lastpost

186. four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt, Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it in the Answer sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle(__)

(A) digresion.

(B) digrestion

(C) digression

(D) degression

187. four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt, Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it in the Answer sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle(__)

(A) presumpchous

(B) presumtous

(C) presumptuous

(D) presomptous

188. four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt, Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it in the Answer sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle(__)

(A) equalibirium

(B) equilibrium

(C)equilibriam

(D) equilibirium

189. four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt, Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it in the Answer sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle(__)

(A) vaterinerian

(B) veterinarian

(C) vetarinerian

(D) veterinerian

190. four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt, Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it in the Answer sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle(__)

(A) marrytime

(B) marytime

(C) maritime

(D) meritime


191. you have the brief passages with 5 questions Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate in the Answer Sheet.

The phrase' on tenterhooks" means:

(A) in a state of thoughtfulness

(B) in a state of anxiety

(C) in a state of sadness

(D) in a state of forgetfulness

192. It is true that:

(A) money alone can give happiness

(B) money always gives happiness

(C) money seldom gives happiness

(D) money alone cannot give happiness

193. A rich man's life many become miserable if has evil son, bad health and business worries

(B) does not enjoy good health

(C) has business worries

(D) has business worries and his only son has taken to evil ways

194. Which of the following is the most appropriate title to the passage?

(A) Poverty, a great evil

(B) The key of happiness

(C) Contentment, the key to happiness

(D) Money and contentment

195. Which of the following statement is true?

(A) Only a poor but contented man can be happy

(B) A poor but contented man can never be happy

(C) A poor but contented man can be happy

(D) A poor but contented man is always happy



196. All the following words mean' chemicals' except:

(A) sands substances
(C) pesticides
(D) deposits

197. The main argument of paragraph 1 that there are sinister interaction in the use of chemicals
(B) that there are numerous reasons for contrmination of water supplies
(C) that there are many dangers from nuclear fallout
(D) that pesticides are dangerous

198. The word gunk in the last line refers:

(A) to the waste products deposited by sanitary engineers
(B) to the debris found in rivers
(C) to unidentififable chemicals found in water
(D) to the domestic water supplies

199.Water pollution can only be understood:

(A) in relation to world contamination by the whole human race
(C) in context
(D) in relation to the number of pesticides that exit

200. Water contamination has become serious:

(A) Since water pollution was difficult to assess
(B) since nature has taken a hand in pollution
(C) since chemists began to use new substances
(D) since businessmen authorised the use of chemicals