Exam Details

Subject biochemistry
Paper
Exam / Course m.sc
Department
Organization central university
Position
Exam Date 2016
City, State telangana, hyderabad


Question Paper

1. When two heterozygous individuals are mated, the percent of heterozygous off springs will be

0





(d)100

2. The following receptor (type) mediates odorants and bitter taste signals:

G-protein coupled receptors

EGFR

Nuclear receptors

Receptors with tyrosine kinase activity

3. In dicotyledonous leaves, stomata are arranged in

Linear rows

Parallel manner

Scattered

Radially

4. Coir is made from which part of the coconut?

Epicarp

Seedcarp

Mesocarp

Pericarp

5. Which one of the following statements is not true?

Rate of facilitated transport is saturable

Facilitated transport is specific with respect to the type of molecules transported

Rate of transport by simple diffusion is saturable

Active transport can take place against concentration gradient

6. Transfer ofONA from donor to recipient by a bacteriophage is

Transformation

Transduction

Conjugation

Transposition

7. Coliform bacteria are used as indicators of sewage pollution because they:

Are non-pathogenic

Survive best in sewage

Are abundant in human intestine

Are easy to culture

8. Lichens are combinations of green algae and fungi. They exist in a ------relationship

Opportunistic

Commensal

Mutualistic

Parasitic

9. Carpel, the female reproductive part of a flower these parts except:

Stigma

Ovary

Style

Calyx

10. Which of the following blood cell types is NOT in the same group as others?

Lymphocyte

Eosinophil

Neutrophils

Basophil

11. Leeches feed on blood for which their saliva contains an anticoagulant. Which of the following is secreted by leeches in their saliva?

Heparin

Hirudin

Hematin

Hemoglobin

12. The portion of the nervous system that is responsible for the bodily functions without any conscious directions, such as breathing, heartbeat, and digestive processes etc are called:

Somatic nervous system

Sensory nervous system

Autonomic nervous system

Motor nervous system

13. Oleic acid has which of the following functional groups?

Carboxylic acid, alcohol

Alkene, carboxylic acid

Alkene, alcohol and carboxylic acid

Alkene and alcohol

14. Oearnination of cytosine leads to the fonnation of

Thymine

Uridine

5-Methylcytosine

Uracil

15. When 150 g of urea (MW 60) was dissolved in 1.35 kg of water it gave a solution of density 1.2 g/mL. What would be the molarity of the solution?

1.85

2.22

1.54

2.00

16. Which of the following proteins is an ATPase in the skeletal muscle?

Actin

Myosin

Troponin

Tropomyosin

17. Which of the following characteristics best defines gymnosperms:

Exposed seeds, vascular, unisexual flowers

Exposed seeds, bisexual flowers, haploid endosperm

Vascular, triploid endospenn, flat leaves

Cone like leaves, triploid endosperm, hard wood producing

18. The major site of regulation of glycolysis is with

Pyruvate kinase

Phosphofructokinase

Hexokinase

Aldolase

19. Starch is best defined as

Polysaccharide ofglucose and galactose in 1,6-glycosidic linkage

Polysaccharide of glucose in 1,4 and 1,6-glycosidic linkage

Polysaccharide exclusively ofglucose in l,4-alpha glycosidic linkage

Polysaccharide ofgalactose in 1,4-glycosidic linkage

20. The cause of disease scurvy is due to the deficiency

Vitamin B6

Ascorbic acid

Niacin

Pantothenic acid

21. What is concentration ofHi-ion in a solution of0.1 M NaOH?

10^-13 M

10^-10 M

M

M

22. All prokaryotic organisms are classified under

Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, and Protists

Archaebacteria and Protists

Protists and Eubacteria

Eubacteria and Archaebacteria

23. Which of the following is the correct sequence showing the highest taxonomical grade (most inclusive) to lowest taxonomical grade (least inclusive)?

Kingdom, Phylum, Domain, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species

Kingdom, Phylum, Family, Class, Order, Genus, Species

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

Species, Genus, Family, Class, Order, Phylum, Kingdom

24. Which of the following is a poor immunogen?

Enzymes

Antibodies

Glycogen

Whole yeast cell

25. Antigenic determinants of an antibody consist of

Variable regions of light chains only

Variable regions of heavy chains only

Variable regions of both heavy and light chains

Constant regions of both heavy and light chains 3 PARTB [These questions may have more than one right answer. Mark all the correct answers. For ego if there are three right answers for a particular question, all three options must be marked otherwise it will be considered incorrect]

26. Which of the following are true of sphingolipids?

Cerebrosides and gangliosides are sphingolipids.

Phosphatidylcholine is a typical sphingolipid.

They always contain glycerol and fatty acids.

Sphingomyelin is a phosphosphingolipid

27. Which of the enzymatic reactions in the citric acid cycle produces high energy containing phosphate compound?

Succinyl CoA synthetase

Succinate dehydrogenase

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Citrate synthetase

28. Which of the following bonds/interactions is NOT responsible for binding antibody to its cognate region on an antigen?

Ionic interactions

Hydrophobic forces

Hydrogen bonds

Disulfide bonds

29. Which of the following statement(s) about antibodies is NOT correct

They serve as the specific receptors on Band r lymphocytes.

They are composed of two heavy chains and two light chains.

The two light chains alone have the variable regions that can bind antigen.

The amino acid sequence within the variable regions varies widely from one clone ofB-cell to another

30. Which of the following genes code(s) for receptors that recognize(s) and present(s) foreign antigens only?

Class I MHC

Class II MHC

Class III MHC

CD4 receptors

31. Which of the statements about point mutations are correct? They can be

Induced by chemicals

Responsible for a genetic disease

Mapped by a technique similar to Maxam-Gilbert sequencing

Detected easily by Southern blotting

32. Identify the statements that describe correctly the events in transcription

RNA synthesis initiates denovo (no requirement for primer)

is inserted opposite to during transcription

Sigma factor in bacterial polymerase is required for accurate initiation

Eukaryotic mRNA are capped with a modified

33. Identify the events that occur in the cytoplasm

Polyadenylation of mRNA

Modification of tRNA

Assembly of small and large ribQsomal subunits

Synthesis of protein

34. Degenerate codons are

Usually different in the third base

Third base is invariant

Recognized by the same tRNA

Different DNA sequences that encode the same amino acid

35. Which of the following statements about vimses are true?

Have DNA or RNA as genetic material

Encode their complete replication machinery

Require a host cell for propagation

Do not infect plants

36. A buffer solution can be prepared from a mixture of

Sodium acetate and acetic acid in water

Sodium acetate and hydrochloric acid in water

Ammonia and ammonium chloride in water

Ammonia and sodium hydroxide in water

37. Which of the following is true for the rate constant of a chemical reaction?

Depends only on temperature and catalyst

Always increases with temperature

Linearly related to rate of reaction

Same for both directions in a reversible reaction

38.

src='./qimages/8042-38.jpg'>

39. Which of the following compound(s) can react with PCl5 to give POCl3.

O2

CO2

SO2

H2O

40. Which of the following pairs are enantiomers?

src='./qimages/8042-40-1.jpg'>
src='./qimages/8042-40-2.jpg'>

I

II

III

IV

41. Which of the following will exemplify passive immunity?

A person recovers from an infection

A person receives immune serum during treatment for hepatitis

A fetus receives maternal antibodies that cross the placenta

A person given BCG vaccine against tuberculosis

42. Which of the following is CORRECT for differentiating Crustaceans and Insects?

Crustaceans alone have fused head and thorax making cephalothorax

Crustaceans have three pairs of legs in their thorax region

Only insects have tri-segmented body

Insects have omatidia as photoreceptors

43. Which of the following statements are true for inbreeding?

Leads to homozygosity

Improves hybrid vigour

Loss of heterosis

Always increases productivity

44. Which of the following statements about photorespiration is NOT true?

Converts fixed carbon back into C02

C4 photosynthesis counters photorespiration

(c)RibuloseI,5-bisphosphate is oxidized to CO2 without production of ATP

Photorespiration produces NADPH

45. Which of the following events happen in telophase of mitosis?

Dis-assembly of spindle apparatus

Alignment of chromosomes in the centre of the nucleus

Decondensing of chromosomes

Cell plate is formed

46. Which of the following steps occur in one or more models of recombination?

Single-strand cleavage (nicking)

Double-strand cleavage. .

Excision of damaged nucleotide.

Resolution.

47. Which of the following experiments will detect the presence of introns in mRNA?

A comparison of the protein sequence with mRNA sequence

A comparison of the genomic DNA and cDNA sequences.

A hybridization between DNA and mRNA molecules.

Density-gradient centrifugation of total RNA

48. Which of the following is true for enzyme catalyzed reaction?Enzymes

Force reactions to proceed in only one direction. .

Do not alter the equilibrium of the reaction

Alter the standard free energy of the reaction

Can couple energetically unfavorable reactions to favorable ones

49. Which of the statements are true for HbF (Fetal Hb)

Fetal Hb has higher affinity for O2 than does maternal blood

Fetal hemoglobin is a tetramer that contains two a-and two y-chains

The HbF have a low affinity for BPG

Oxygen partial pressure P50 for HbA (Hemoglobin in Adults) is less than HbF

50. Which of the following statements are true for pollen tubes:

It shows tip growth

Transports male gametes

Holds the anther lobes

Required for pollination

51. Amino acids that contain hydroxyl group in their side chains are

Serine

Threonine

Tyrosine

Histidine

52. The common acceptor for amino group in transamination reactions are

a-keto glutarate

Oxaloacetate

Acetoacetate

Citrate

53. Which of the following structures mediate communication between cells?

Gap junction

Lamin

Desmosomes

Microtubules

54. Gastric glands secrete gastric juice rich in HCl in response to

Dietary food available in the stomach

Stimulation by gastrins the parietal cells in gastric glands secrete HCl

Stimulation of chief cell singastric glands

Stimulation of neck cells in the gastric glands

55. Thiamine pyropohosphate is the prosthetic group in which of the following enzymes

Pyruvate decarboxylase

Pyruvate carboxylase

Transketolase

Transaldolase

56. The conduction of a nerve impulse is an electro-chemical impulse. Which of the following is true in the context of conduction of a nerve impulse through a nerve fibre?

The neurilemma permits only ion to diffuse freely into and outside a neuron

The sodium pumps of the neurons are resting during resting potential

The sodium pumps actively transport Na+ ions to the outside of the neuron under resting condition

Depolarization causes positive charges like Ca2+ and Na+ to rush inside the neuron

57. Which of the following compounds has a higher group transfer potential for phosphate thanATP?

Glucose 6-phosphate

2-Phosphoenolpyruate

Creatine phosphate

Ribose 5-phosphate

58. Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood gets mixed in the heart of which of the following organisms?

Fish

Frog. .

House lizard

Man

59. Under normal conditions, which of the following substances should NOT be found in urine?

Urea

Glucose

Protein

Creatinine

60. Which of following hormones are glycoprotein in nature?

PRL

FSH

TSH

B-endorphin

61. Beadle and Tatum isolated several mutants that were defective in arginine biosynthesis. However they found that they could group them into three classes based on complementation analysis. This suggested that

Arginine biosynthesis required 3 enzymes

Three different pathways exist for arginine biosynthesis

Three different amino acids have to be provided as precursors

Many different mutations were isolated in each of the genes

62. Identify the methods that are likely to be bactericidal:

Ionizing radiation

Membrane filtration

Autoclaving

RefrigeratiQP.

63. Which of the following features are unique to plasmids but not true for transposans

Become inserted into chromosomes

Replicated autonomously outside of the chromosome

Depend on the host cell machinery for their propagation

Move from chromosome to chromosome

64. Sedimentation velocity of a protein in a centrifugal field depends on which of the following properties:

Charge of protein

Shape of theprotein

Molecularmass of theprotein

pI of theprotein

65. Which of the following phenomena contribute to variety and combination of maternal and paternal traits in offsprings?

Recombination

Random assortment of chromosomes during Metaphase I

Errors during DNA replication

Semi-conservative replication

66. Which of the following coenzymes are involved in enzymatic reduction reactions?

Thiamine pyrophosphate

NADH

FAD+

NADPH

67. Unit of kcat of an enzyme cannot be







min^-1

68. Which of the following biomolecules have only H and

Glucose

Glycerol

Glycine

Palimitic acid

69. Advantage(s) of cis double bonds (as opposed to trans double bonds) in fatty acids is that they

Maintain membrane symmetry.

Increase membrane rigidity.

Decrease membrane fluidity.

Increase membrane fluidity

70. Choose all the statements that are TRUE about telomeres

Telomeres contain regions with a high G content

Telomeres solve end-replication problem

Telomeres contain short repetitive sequences, which are invariant among different organisms

Telomeres cORtain non-Watson-Crick base pairing PARTe [Each Question has only one right answer. Mark the right answer]

71. Which option represents all the right pairs?

P. Eukaryotic genome 10^4 bp

Q. Bacterial genome II) 10^5 bp

R. Chloroplast genome III) 10^6 bp

S. Viral genome IV) 10^8 bp

P-I Q-II R-III

Q-III, S-I

R-III, S-I

R-III, S-I

72. You took three tubes of immunoglobulin G one was digested with papain, another was digested with pepsin and the last tube was digested with pepsin followed by reduction with Dithiothreitol (DTT). You, however, forgot to label the tubes. To resolve the problem, the digested IgG were fractionated on a denaturing PAGE (Poly-Acrylamide Gel Electrophoresis), tube 1 was loaded in lane tube 2 loaded in lane 2 and tube 3 was loaded in lane 3. Based on the schematic gel picture of the denaturing PAGE, identifY the tube digested with pepsin followed by reduction with dithiothreitol

src='./qimages/8042-72.jpg'>

Tube1

(b)Tube2

(c)Tube3

Tube 1 or Tube 3

73. Given below is the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. If the pO2 in the lung is 100 torr and pO2 in the tissues is 20 torr, from the graph below, what percentage of oxygen picked up by hemoglobin in the lung will be released in the tissues?

src='./qimages/8042-73.jpg'>

About 50%

About 60%

About 80%

About 20%

74. Given below is a Spirogram labeled to show the subdivisions of the total lung capacity which is 600Oml. The amount of air during normal, relaxed breathing, that is, the tidal volume is about 500 mL, the inspiratory reserve volume or the additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after normal inspiration, is about 3,100 mL, and the expiratory reserve volume is about 1,200 mL. What are the Residual volume the vital capacity and the inspiratory capacity of the lung?

src='./qimages/8042-74.jpg'>

RV= 1200 ml, VC= 3600 ml and IC= 2600 ml

RV= 1200 ml, VC= 4800 ml and IC= 3600 ml

RV= 1900 ml, VC= 4300 ml and IC= 3600 ml

RV= 1200 ml. VC= 3600 ml and IC= 4800 ml

75. pK1 pK2 and pK3 (side chain) of aspartic acid are: 1.88,9.6 and 3.65 respectively. At which pH Asp will not move in an electric field?

5.74

2.77

6.6

6.0

76. The standard cell potential (E°cell) of the reaction below is +0.126 V. The value of delta G° for the reaction shown below is X


-24 kJmol

+24 kJmol

-12 kJmol

+12 kJ/mol

77. A population of DNA letters consists of equal numbers of each letter(A, G and C). The probability that a randomly selected letter from this population being either A or T is:

0.1

0.5

0.25

0.4

78. In a sample consisting of lysine, leucine, and glutamic acid,which will be eluted first from a cation exchange resin at pH

All three will be eluted at the same time

Lysine

Leucine

Glutamic acid

79. What would be the structure of histidine at pH 8.0?

src='./qimages/8042-79.jpg'>

80. What is the length and molecular mass of a polypeptide chain having 60 amino acids in a single contiguous a helix?

A,20kDa

(b)90A,22kDa

A,6.6kDa

(d)60A,6.6kDa

81. Which option best represents the order in which the proteins below are added during formation of the replication-initiation complex in prokaryotes?

P. DnaB

Q. Primase

R. Pol III

S. Ssb protein

T. DnaA









82. Which of the following equation holds true for an enzyme's Michaelis-Menten equation when the substrate concentration is very low compared to its michaelis constant km?

src='./qimages/8042-82-1.jpg'>
src='./qimages/8042-82-2.jpg'>

83. Match proteins to their functions.

haemoglobin enzyme

ii) y-globulin mechanical strength

iii) collagen oxygen transport

iv) lipase immune protection


iii-2, iv-4

iii-4, iv-l

iii-2, iv-l

ii4, iii-I, iv-2

84. Colour blindness is a recessive, non-X linked inherited disorder. A man whose father is totally colour blind marries a woman whose mother is totally colour blind. What is the probability that their offspring will be colour blind?

100% boys and 50% of girls

50% of boys and girls

25% of girls and 50% of boys

25% of boys and girls

85. Imagine you are having a delicious fruit salad. From 10 items, in how many ways can you select 3 items?

720

60

120

None of the above


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