Exam Details
Subject | political science | |
Paper | ||
Exam / Course | m.phil | |
Department | ||
Organization | central university | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | 2016 | |
City, State | telangana, hyderabad |
Question Paper
Entrance Examinations -2016
M.Phii. Political Science
Maximum marks: 75 Time: 2 hours
Hall Ticket No.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1.
Write your Hall Ticket Number in the OMR answer sheet and the separate answer book given to you. Also write the Hall Ticket Number in the space provided above.
2.
This question paper consists of two parts-Part A and Part B. Part A consists of 50 objective type questions of one mark each for a total of 50 marks.
3.
Answers for Part A must be marked on the OMR sheet following the instructions provided thereupon.
4.
There is negative marking for a wrong answer in Part A only. Each wrong answer carries -0.33 mark.
5.
Part Bconsists of five descriptive type questions and should be answered in a separate answer book provided. Attempt any two questions, each of which carries
12.5 marks for a total of 25 marks.
6.
Hand over the OMR answer sheet and the Answer Book of Part B at the end of the examination to the invigilator.
7.
No additional sheets will be provided. Rough work can be done in the question paper itself.
Page 1of12
Part A (Objective Type)
Answer all questions.
1. The distinction between amour de soi and amour-propre is central in the
thought of
a.
Alexis de Tocqueville
b.
Francois Furet
c.
J. J. Rousseau
d.
Montesquieu
2. Who among the following distinguished between work, labour and action?
a.
Walter Benjamin
b.
Giorgio Agamben
c.
Mikhail Bakhtin
d.
Hannah Arendt
3. The distinction between negative liberty and positive liberty was made by
a.
Isaiah Berlin
b.
Ronald Dworkin
c.
Karl Marx
d.
Bertrand Russell
4. Choose the correct code to match the following.
A. Primary Goods 1. Robert Nozick
B. Entitlement 2. Michael Sandel
C. Complex Equality 3. John Rawls
D. Unencumbered Self 4. Michael Walzer
Code:
AB C D
a.3 142
b.2 314
c. 3 412
d.4 123
5. Difference Principle is part of
a.
Plato's theory of justice
b.
Rawls's theory of justice
c.
Walzer's theory of equality
d.
Aristotle's theory of equality
Page 2of 12
L-4S
r
6. Kant's Categorical Imperative enjoins us to
a.
treat others as means to our ends
b.
treat others as fallible individuals
c.
treat others as part of the society,
d.
treat others as ends-in-themselves
7. Kautilya propounded
a.
Saptanga theory
b.
Ashtanga theory
c.
Karma theory
d.
Navarasa theory
8. Francis Fukuyama is famous for announcing
a.
the end of capitalism
b.
the end of modernity
c.
the end of history
d.
the end of ideology
9. Idealist theory of the State was not propounded by
a.
G. W. F. Hegel
b.
T. H. Green
c.
B. Bosanquet
d. T. H. Marshall
10. 'Poverty of Historicism' was written by
a.
Charles Taylor
b.
Karl Popper
c.
Karl Mannheim
d.
E.H. Carr
11. World Bank's proposals for participatory budgeting are mainly based on the successful experiment of decentralized governance in
a.
Kerala, India
b.
Porto Alegre, Brazil
c.
Paris, France
d.
Dhakka, Bangladesh
12. The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act 1996 is not applicable to
a.
Jharkhand
b.
Nagaland
c.
Chhattisgarh
d.
Gujarat
Page 3of 12
L-4S
13. Match the following authors with books and choose right answer from the code.
A. Karl Deutsch 1. Public Governance
B. Mark Bevir 2. Decentralized Governance
C. Gaebler and Osborne 3. Cybernetic Governance
D. James Manor 4. Reinventing Government
Code:
AB C D
a.2 341
b.3 142
c.2 314
d.4 321
14. Match the following initiatives for social welfare and economic development of Government of India with their specific objectives. Choose the right answer from the code.
A. PURA (Provision of Urban 1. Minimum 100 days of
Amenities to Rural Areas) guaranteed wage employment in every financial year to every rural household
B. JNNURM (Jawaharlal Nehru 2. To impart skills to rural and National Urban Renewal urban poor Mission)
C. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya 3. To bridge rural urban divide Antyodaya Yojana
D. Mahatma Gandhi National 4. Infrastructural development in Rural Employment Guarantee urban areas Act
Code:
AB CD
a.2 413
b.3 421
c.4 321
d.3 412
15. The concept Knowledge Worker is introduced by
a.
Sam Pitroda
b.
Peter Drucker
c.
Julian Assange
d.
Azim Premji
Page 4of12
L-45"
16. Which of the following country's constitution envisages participatory democracy and decentralization as its objectives in the preamble?
a.
Democratic People's Republic of Korea
b.
Swiss Confederation
c.
Bolivian Republic of Venezuela
d.
People's Republic of China
17. 'Prior approval' is a technique of
a.
span of control
b.
supervision
c.
delegation
d.
hierarchy
18. 'Trait Theory' is related to
a.
delegation
b.
supervision
c.
organization
d.
leadership
19. Match the following authors with books and choose the right answer from the code.
A. Karl Marx 1. Arthashastra B. Herbert Simon 2 Critique of Hegel's Philosophy of Right
C. Max Weber 3 Administrative Behavior
D. Kautilya 4 Economy and Society
Code:
A BCD
a.2 143
b.4 321
c.2 341
d.1 234
20. Who is closely associated with the theory of 'hierarchy of needs'?
a.
Herbert Simon
b.
Marx Weber
c.
Karl Marx
d.
Abraham Maslow
21. The concept of 'Print Nationalism' is associated with
a.
Rupert Murdoch
b.
Joseph Nye
c.
Benedict Anderson
d.
Nelson Mandela
Page 5of12
22. The author of 'Anarchical Society' is
a.
Thomas Hobbes
b.
Samuel Huntington
c.
John Mearsheimer
d.
Hedley Bull
23. The 'Gujral doctrine' emphasized
a.
peaceful resolution of disputes
b.
non-reciprocity
c.
bilateralism
d.
track-two diplomacy
24. The Neo-realist view of anarchy refers to
a.
chaos and disorder
b.
absence of overarching authority
c.
violence
d.
inequality
25. The principle of collective security is first laid out in
a.
Woodrow Wilson's Fourteen Points
b.
Treaty of Versailles
c.
Covenant of League of Nations
d.
Truman Doctrine
26. Modernization theory focuses on
a.
issues of social justice
b.
political independence
c.
political culture
d.
trade relations
27. The term 'Society of States' is related to
a.
English School of Realism
b.
Classical realism
c.
Functionalism
d.
Constructivism
28. Structural Realism is associated with
a.
Hans Morgenthau
b.
Niccolo Machiavelli
c.
Kenneth Waltz
d.
Joseph Keohane
Page 6of12
29. The 'policy of containment' followed by the United States during the Cold War refers to:
a.
Giving financial aid to the Soviet Union
b.
Stopping the spread of communism
c.
Stopping the spread of nuclear weapons
d.
Reducing the use of carbon emissions
30. Balance of power refers fO:
a.
States will balance one another's power to secure themselves
b.
States will balance their economies
c.
States will balance their trade relations in times of economic crises
d.
Two states will go to war with each other
31. Whose idea does James Scott challenge in his Weapons ofthe Weak where he notes that subordinate groups engage in "everyday resistance" to authority?
a.
Partha Chatterjee
b.
V. I. Lenin
c.
Hannah Arendt
d.
Antonio Gramsci
32. By setting state actors and institutions at the center of analysis, broke both with Marxist theories that denied the possibility of state autonomy and with behavioralist approaches that focused on rebels and revolutionaries.
a. Robert Bates in Unions, Parties, and Political Development
b. David Collier in The New Authoritarianism in Latin America
c.
Samuel P. Huntington in The Soldier and the State
d.
Theda Skocpol in States and Social Revolutions
33. Tolerance of different opinions as long as they are within the limits of the basic party programme is an important feature of
a.
intraparty democracy
b.
mass parties
c.
one party states
d.
multi party systems
34. consolidated and stable system that is founded on a well-developed civil society, secure civil and political rights, a set of autonomous institutions of government that act within the rule of law, a system of free and fair elections and a government with effective power to perform its duties' is called
a.
Guided Democracy
b.
Social-Political Democracy
c.
Social Democracy
d.
Embedded Democracy
Page 7of12
35. Match the following and choose the right answer from the code.
Type of Activity Group
A Groups that do not represent organised occupational 1 Fire Brigade Groups interests, but promote ideas or issues.
B Private and voluntary organisations that try to influence or 2 Episodic Groups control government pc51icies but do not want to become the government.
C Groups that are not usually politically active but become so 3 Pressure Groups when the need arises. D Groups formed to fight a specific issue, and dissolved when it 4 Cause Groups is over.
Code: a. b. c. d. A 4 3 4 1 B 2 4 3 2 C 1 1 2 3 D 3 2 1 4
36. While on the one hand presidents are strong because they are directly elected and have popular support. They can rise above the petty in-fighting of parties and factions and speak for their country and its people. Yet, on the other hand, presidents are normally bound by all sorts of constitutional provisions that limit their power: they must have legislative support for actions, decisions and appointments; they have to deal with the independence of the courts; and they sometimes face a highly fragmented, undisciplined and ineffective party system that makes it difficult to shape and implement a coherent What is central thesis of this passage?
a.
Powers and functions of the President
b.
Paradox of Presidentialism
c.
Advantages of Presidentialism
d.
Comparing Presidential and Parliamentary forms of government
37. 'The principle of democracy that decisions should be taken at the lowest possible level of government -that is, at the level closest to the people affected by the decisions' is known as
a.
Subsidiarity
b.
Plebiscite
c.
Consociationalism
d.
Recall
Page 8of 12
38. 'Feeling of detachment, estrangement, or critical distance from politics, often because the voters feel there is something basically wrong with the political system' is called
a.
Parochialism
b.
Alienation
c.
Subjectivism
d.
Marginalisation
39. Deciding which party to vote for on the basis of general social or economic circumstances is called
a.
Pocket-book voting
b.
Sociotropic voting
c.
Vote for cash
d.
Inflation indexed voting
40. 'The array of institutions, relationships, and norms that shape the quality and quantity of a society's social interactions' is known as
a.
Social Capital
b.
Common Property
c.
Political Capital
d.
Knowledge Capital
41. After the enactment of 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution of India,
" delimitation of electoral constituencies of panchayat raj institutions is the responsibility of
a.
Election Commission of India
b.
District Panchayats
c.
State Election Commission
d.
Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India
42. Choose a correct observation regarding the impact of economic liberalization in India from the following.
a.
There is a decrease in inter-state competition after economic liberalization in India
b.
State governments are able to meet welfare expenditure from their own budgets
c.
Autonomy of the monetary policies of government from market forces has decreased
d.
More than state governments the fiscal health of central government deteriorated after liberalization
Page 9of12
43. T. N. Madan, the anthropologist, argues: "secularism in South Asia as a generally shared credo of life is impossible" because
a.
secularism was an outmoded exercise of the ancient age
b.
atheism in the native philosophy has done much damage to the culture
c.
majority of people living in this region are active adherents of some religious faith,
d.
there is very less scope for state religions in South Asia
44. Susanne RUdolph and Lloyd Rudolph say that the 'regulatory state' in India in the 1990s enhanced the role of
a.
President and Governor
b.
Judiciary, Election Commission and President
c.
Comptroller and Auditor General of India and Central Vigilance Commission
d.
Parliament and Judiciary
45. According to Ranajit Guha, which among the following social classes in postcolonial politics in India exhibits'dominance without hegemony'?
a.
Peasantry
b.
Bourgeoisie
c.
Feudallords
d.
Proletariat
46. Match the following scholars with their approaches to study of Indian politics and choose the right answer from the code.
A. Rudolph and Rudolph 1. Functionalism
B. Aseema Sinha 2 Modernization
e.
Rajni Kothari 3 Legal-constitutional
D.
Granville Austin 4 Subnational comparison
Code:
ABC D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 2 1 4
47. According to E. Sridharan, which of the following periods shows bipolarization of state party system in India?
a.
1967-89
b.
1952-67
c.
1989-2009
d.
1947-52
Page 10 of 12
48. Choose the right remark from the following regarding Aadhaar (Targeted
Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill2016:
a.
The Bill was passed by both houses of Parliament in a joint sitting.
b.
The Bill was fi;st introduced in Lok Sabha as Money Bill.
c.
The Bill was passed by Rajya Sabha as Ordinary Bill, but later it was introduced in Lok Sabha as Money Bill.
d.
Rajya Sabha rejected the Bill. Hence it did not become law.
49. The Vishakha judgement (1997) of the Supreme Court is about
a.
street violence in cities
b.
domestic violence at home
c.
sexual harassment at the workplace
d.
dowry harassment in marital home
50. Consider the following statements about protective discrimination in India:
I. It relates to giving reservation of central and state government jobs principally to Scheduled Castes, Schedule Tribes, and OBCs in matters of appointment and promotion.
II. It relates to giving reservation of central and state government jobs principally to Scheduled Castes, Schedule Tribes and OBCs only in matters of appointment.
III. It relates to giving reservation of central and state government jobs to Scheduled Castes, Schedule Tribe, OBCs, etc., only in matters of promotion.
IV. It relates to giving reservation of central and state government jobs principally to Scheduled Castes, Schedule Tribes, and OBCs with a qualification that whereas SCs and STs would avail this both in matters of appointment and promotion, OBCs can not avail of this in matters of promotion.
In light of the above statements, which of the following options is true?
a.
Only I
b.
Both I and II
c.
Both III and IV
d.
Only IV
Page 11 of 12
PartB
Marks: 25
Answer any TWO of the following questions in about two or three pages. Each question carries 12.5 marks. A separate answer book is provided for answers.
1.
What role did political parties play in the transition to and consolidation of democracy in post-colonial countries? Compare the Indian experience with anyone country in Africa.
2.
Analyze the 'six principles' of Realism as enunciated by Hans J. Morgenthau and summarize the major criticisms levelled against it.
3.
Explain the triangular relationship between bureaucracy, market and civil society organizations in the context of governance.
4.
Describe Aristotle's classification of regimes with special reference to his views on polity and democracy. How does his discussion of this subject exemplify his practical wisdom?
5.
Has the coalition politics prevented Indian economy from becoming more market-friendly? Discuss.
M.Phii. Political Science
Maximum marks: 75 Time: 2 hours
Hall Ticket No.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1.
Write your Hall Ticket Number in the OMR answer sheet and the separate answer book given to you. Also write the Hall Ticket Number in the space provided above.
2.
This question paper consists of two parts-Part A and Part B. Part A consists of 50 objective type questions of one mark each for a total of 50 marks.
3.
Answers for Part A must be marked on the OMR sheet following the instructions provided thereupon.
4.
There is negative marking for a wrong answer in Part A only. Each wrong answer carries -0.33 mark.
5.
Part Bconsists of five descriptive type questions and should be answered in a separate answer book provided. Attempt any two questions, each of which carries
12.5 marks for a total of 25 marks.
6.
Hand over the OMR answer sheet and the Answer Book of Part B at the end of the examination to the invigilator.
7.
No additional sheets will be provided. Rough work can be done in the question paper itself.
Page 1of12
Part A (Objective Type)
Answer all questions.
1. The distinction between amour de soi and amour-propre is central in the
thought of
a.
Alexis de Tocqueville
b.
Francois Furet
c.
J. J. Rousseau
d.
Montesquieu
2. Who among the following distinguished between work, labour and action?
a.
Walter Benjamin
b.
Giorgio Agamben
c.
Mikhail Bakhtin
d.
Hannah Arendt
3. The distinction between negative liberty and positive liberty was made by
a.
Isaiah Berlin
b.
Ronald Dworkin
c.
Karl Marx
d.
Bertrand Russell
4. Choose the correct code to match the following.
A. Primary Goods 1. Robert Nozick
B. Entitlement 2. Michael Sandel
C. Complex Equality 3. John Rawls
D. Unencumbered Self 4. Michael Walzer
Code:
AB C D
a.3 142
b.2 314
c. 3 412
d.4 123
5. Difference Principle is part of
a.
Plato's theory of justice
b.
Rawls's theory of justice
c.
Walzer's theory of equality
d.
Aristotle's theory of equality
Page 2of 12
L-4S
r
6. Kant's Categorical Imperative enjoins us to
a.
treat others as means to our ends
b.
treat others as fallible individuals
c.
treat others as part of the society,
d.
treat others as ends-in-themselves
7. Kautilya propounded
a.
Saptanga theory
b.
Ashtanga theory
c.
Karma theory
d.
Navarasa theory
8. Francis Fukuyama is famous for announcing
a.
the end of capitalism
b.
the end of modernity
c.
the end of history
d.
the end of ideology
9. Idealist theory of the State was not propounded by
a.
G. W. F. Hegel
b.
T. H. Green
c.
B. Bosanquet
d. T. H. Marshall
10. 'Poverty of Historicism' was written by
a.
Charles Taylor
b.
Karl Popper
c.
Karl Mannheim
d.
E.H. Carr
11. World Bank's proposals for participatory budgeting are mainly based on the successful experiment of decentralized governance in
a.
Kerala, India
b.
Porto Alegre, Brazil
c.
Paris, France
d.
Dhakka, Bangladesh
12. The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act 1996 is not applicable to
a.
Jharkhand
b.
Nagaland
c.
Chhattisgarh
d.
Gujarat
Page 3of 12
L-4S
13. Match the following authors with books and choose right answer from the code.
A. Karl Deutsch 1. Public Governance
B. Mark Bevir 2. Decentralized Governance
C. Gaebler and Osborne 3. Cybernetic Governance
D. James Manor 4. Reinventing Government
Code:
AB C D
a.2 341
b.3 142
c.2 314
d.4 321
14. Match the following initiatives for social welfare and economic development of Government of India with their specific objectives. Choose the right answer from the code.
A. PURA (Provision of Urban 1. Minimum 100 days of
Amenities to Rural Areas) guaranteed wage employment in every financial year to every rural household
B. JNNURM (Jawaharlal Nehru 2. To impart skills to rural and National Urban Renewal urban poor Mission)
C. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya 3. To bridge rural urban divide Antyodaya Yojana
D. Mahatma Gandhi National 4. Infrastructural development in Rural Employment Guarantee urban areas Act
Code:
AB CD
a.2 413
b.3 421
c.4 321
d.3 412
15. The concept Knowledge Worker is introduced by
a.
Sam Pitroda
b.
Peter Drucker
c.
Julian Assange
d.
Azim Premji
Page 4of12
L-45"
16. Which of the following country's constitution envisages participatory democracy and decentralization as its objectives in the preamble?
a.
Democratic People's Republic of Korea
b.
Swiss Confederation
c.
Bolivian Republic of Venezuela
d.
People's Republic of China
17. 'Prior approval' is a technique of
a.
span of control
b.
supervision
c.
delegation
d.
hierarchy
18. 'Trait Theory' is related to
a.
delegation
b.
supervision
c.
organization
d.
leadership
19. Match the following authors with books and choose the right answer from the code.
A. Karl Marx 1. Arthashastra B. Herbert Simon 2 Critique of Hegel's Philosophy of Right
C. Max Weber 3 Administrative Behavior
D. Kautilya 4 Economy and Society
Code:
A BCD
a.2 143
b.4 321
c.2 341
d.1 234
20. Who is closely associated with the theory of 'hierarchy of needs'?
a.
Herbert Simon
b.
Marx Weber
c.
Karl Marx
d.
Abraham Maslow
21. The concept of 'Print Nationalism' is associated with
a.
Rupert Murdoch
b.
Joseph Nye
c.
Benedict Anderson
d.
Nelson Mandela
Page 5of12
22. The author of 'Anarchical Society' is
a.
Thomas Hobbes
b.
Samuel Huntington
c.
John Mearsheimer
d.
Hedley Bull
23. The 'Gujral doctrine' emphasized
a.
peaceful resolution of disputes
b.
non-reciprocity
c.
bilateralism
d.
track-two diplomacy
24. The Neo-realist view of anarchy refers to
a.
chaos and disorder
b.
absence of overarching authority
c.
violence
d.
inequality
25. The principle of collective security is first laid out in
a.
Woodrow Wilson's Fourteen Points
b.
Treaty of Versailles
c.
Covenant of League of Nations
d.
Truman Doctrine
26. Modernization theory focuses on
a.
issues of social justice
b.
political independence
c.
political culture
d.
trade relations
27. The term 'Society of States' is related to
a.
English School of Realism
b.
Classical realism
c.
Functionalism
d.
Constructivism
28. Structural Realism is associated with
a.
Hans Morgenthau
b.
Niccolo Machiavelli
c.
Kenneth Waltz
d.
Joseph Keohane
Page 6of12
29. The 'policy of containment' followed by the United States during the Cold War refers to:
a.
Giving financial aid to the Soviet Union
b.
Stopping the spread of communism
c.
Stopping the spread of nuclear weapons
d.
Reducing the use of carbon emissions
30. Balance of power refers fO:
a.
States will balance one another's power to secure themselves
b.
States will balance their economies
c.
States will balance their trade relations in times of economic crises
d.
Two states will go to war with each other
31. Whose idea does James Scott challenge in his Weapons ofthe Weak where he notes that subordinate groups engage in "everyday resistance" to authority?
a.
Partha Chatterjee
b.
V. I. Lenin
c.
Hannah Arendt
d.
Antonio Gramsci
32. By setting state actors and institutions at the center of analysis, broke both with Marxist theories that denied the possibility of state autonomy and with behavioralist approaches that focused on rebels and revolutionaries.
a. Robert Bates in Unions, Parties, and Political Development
b. David Collier in The New Authoritarianism in Latin America
c.
Samuel P. Huntington in The Soldier and the State
d.
Theda Skocpol in States and Social Revolutions
33. Tolerance of different opinions as long as they are within the limits of the basic party programme is an important feature of
a.
intraparty democracy
b.
mass parties
c.
one party states
d.
multi party systems
34. consolidated and stable system that is founded on a well-developed civil society, secure civil and political rights, a set of autonomous institutions of government that act within the rule of law, a system of free and fair elections and a government with effective power to perform its duties' is called
a.
Guided Democracy
b.
Social-Political Democracy
c.
Social Democracy
d.
Embedded Democracy
Page 7of12
35. Match the following and choose the right answer from the code.
Type of Activity Group
A Groups that do not represent organised occupational 1 Fire Brigade Groups interests, but promote ideas or issues.
B Private and voluntary organisations that try to influence or 2 Episodic Groups control government pc51icies but do not want to become the government.
C Groups that are not usually politically active but become so 3 Pressure Groups when the need arises. D Groups formed to fight a specific issue, and dissolved when it 4 Cause Groups is over.
Code: a. b. c. d. A 4 3 4 1 B 2 4 3 2 C 1 1 2 3 D 3 2 1 4
36. While on the one hand presidents are strong because they are directly elected and have popular support. They can rise above the petty in-fighting of parties and factions and speak for their country and its people. Yet, on the other hand, presidents are normally bound by all sorts of constitutional provisions that limit their power: they must have legislative support for actions, decisions and appointments; they have to deal with the independence of the courts; and they sometimes face a highly fragmented, undisciplined and ineffective party system that makes it difficult to shape and implement a coherent What is central thesis of this passage?
a.
Powers and functions of the President
b.
Paradox of Presidentialism
c.
Advantages of Presidentialism
d.
Comparing Presidential and Parliamentary forms of government
37. 'The principle of democracy that decisions should be taken at the lowest possible level of government -that is, at the level closest to the people affected by the decisions' is known as
a.
Subsidiarity
b.
Plebiscite
c.
Consociationalism
d.
Recall
Page 8of 12
38. 'Feeling of detachment, estrangement, or critical distance from politics, often because the voters feel there is something basically wrong with the political system' is called
a.
Parochialism
b.
Alienation
c.
Subjectivism
d.
Marginalisation
39. Deciding which party to vote for on the basis of general social or economic circumstances is called
a.
Pocket-book voting
b.
Sociotropic voting
c.
Vote for cash
d.
Inflation indexed voting
40. 'The array of institutions, relationships, and norms that shape the quality and quantity of a society's social interactions' is known as
a.
Social Capital
b.
Common Property
c.
Political Capital
d.
Knowledge Capital
41. After the enactment of 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution of India,
" delimitation of electoral constituencies of panchayat raj institutions is the responsibility of
a.
Election Commission of India
b.
District Panchayats
c.
State Election Commission
d.
Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India
42. Choose a correct observation regarding the impact of economic liberalization in India from the following.
a.
There is a decrease in inter-state competition after economic liberalization in India
b.
State governments are able to meet welfare expenditure from their own budgets
c.
Autonomy of the monetary policies of government from market forces has decreased
d.
More than state governments the fiscal health of central government deteriorated after liberalization
Page 9of12
43. T. N. Madan, the anthropologist, argues: "secularism in South Asia as a generally shared credo of life is impossible" because
a.
secularism was an outmoded exercise of the ancient age
b.
atheism in the native philosophy has done much damage to the culture
c.
majority of people living in this region are active adherents of some religious faith,
d.
there is very less scope for state religions in South Asia
44. Susanne RUdolph and Lloyd Rudolph say that the 'regulatory state' in India in the 1990s enhanced the role of
a.
President and Governor
b.
Judiciary, Election Commission and President
c.
Comptroller and Auditor General of India and Central Vigilance Commission
d.
Parliament and Judiciary
45. According to Ranajit Guha, which among the following social classes in postcolonial politics in India exhibits'dominance without hegemony'?
a.
Peasantry
b.
Bourgeoisie
c.
Feudallords
d.
Proletariat
46. Match the following scholars with their approaches to study of Indian politics and choose the right answer from the code.
A. Rudolph and Rudolph 1. Functionalism
B. Aseema Sinha 2 Modernization
e.
Rajni Kothari 3 Legal-constitutional
D.
Granville Austin 4 Subnational comparison
Code:
ABC D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 2 1 4
47. According to E. Sridharan, which of the following periods shows bipolarization of state party system in India?
a.
1967-89
b.
1952-67
c.
1989-2009
d.
1947-52
Page 10 of 12
48. Choose the right remark from the following regarding Aadhaar (Targeted
Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill2016:
a.
The Bill was passed by both houses of Parliament in a joint sitting.
b.
The Bill was fi;st introduced in Lok Sabha as Money Bill.
c.
The Bill was passed by Rajya Sabha as Ordinary Bill, but later it was introduced in Lok Sabha as Money Bill.
d.
Rajya Sabha rejected the Bill. Hence it did not become law.
49. The Vishakha judgement (1997) of the Supreme Court is about
a.
street violence in cities
b.
domestic violence at home
c.
sexual harassment at the workplace
d.
dowry harassment in marital home
50. Consider the following statements about protective discrimination in India:
I. It relates to giving reservation of central and state government jobs principally to Scheduled Castes, Schedule Tribes, and OBCs in matters of appointment and promotion.
II. It relates to giving reservation of central and state government jobs principally to Scheduled Castes, Schedule Tribes and OBCs only in matters of appointment.
III. It relates to giving reservation of central and state government jobs to Scheduled Castes, Schedule Tribe, OBCs, etc., only in matters of promotion.
IV. It relates to giving reservation of central and state government jobs principally to Scheduled Castes, Schedule Tribes, and OBCs with a qualification that whereas SCs and STs would avail this both in matters of appointment and promotion, OBCs can not avail of this in matters of promotion.
In light of the above statements, which of the following options is true?
a.
Only I
b.
Both I and II
c.
Both III and IV
d.
Only IV
Page 11 of 12
PartB
Marks: 25
Answer any TWO of the following questions in about two or three pages. Each question carries 12.5 marks. A separate answer book is provided for answers.
1.
What role did political parties play in the transition to and consolidation of democracy in post-colonial countries? Compare the Indian experience with anyone country in Africa.
2.
Analyze the 'six principles' of Realism as enunciated by Hans J. Morgenthau and summarize the major criticisms levelled against it.
3.
Explain the triangular relationship between bureaucracy, market and civil society organizations in the context of governance.
4.
Describe Aristotle's classification of regimes with special reference to his views on polity and democracy. How does his discussion of this subject exemplify his practical wisdom?
5.
Has the coalition politics prevented Indian economy from becoming more market-friendly? Discuss.
Other Question Papers
Subjects
- anthropology
- applied linguistics
- centre for english language studies
- comparative literature
- dalit adivasi studies & translation
- economics
- english
- gender studies
- hindi
- history
- indian diaspora
- philosophy
- political science
- sanskrit
- social exclusion & inclusion.
- sociology
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