Exam Details
| Subject | ||
| Paper | paper 2 | |
| Exam / Course | mains | |
| Department | ||
| Organization | maharashtra public service commission | |
| Position | ||
| Exam Date | 2012 | |
| City, State | maharashtra, |
Question Paper
1. A survey which con,sists of obs!!rvations of the hea!l!nly bodies such as Sun or any fIxed star, is known as
. Celestial Survey Astrological Survey
Heaven Survey Astronomical Survey
2. If the radius of simple circular curve is 300 m and intersection angle between two straight lines is 1200 the tangent length of curve is
173·105 m 174·305 m
173·205 m 175·050 m
3. In the change point procedure, change point is the point of
the initial position of dumpy level.
the portion of staff where instrument is shifted.
the fInal position of dumpy level.
None of the above
4. The process ofestablishing number of intermediate points between two fIxed end points on ground is known as
Ranging Offsets
Station points Auxiliary points
5. The latitude of a line of closed traverse is its length multiplied by
tangent of reduced bearing sine of reduced bearing
cosine of reduced bearing secant, of reduced bearing
6. When lines come close rogether in a contour map. it indicates
Hill Reservoir
St;eep slope Flat slope
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
P.T.O.
VOl 4 A
7. In geodetical observations, the correction for refraction is subtractive to both the angle of elevation and the angle of depression additive to both the angle of elevation and the angle of depression subtractive to the angle and additive to the angle of depression additive to the angle of elevation and subtractive to the angle of depression
8. A road section of length 2 km scales 9 cm on a vertical photograph. The focal length of the camera is 180 mm. If the terrain is fairly level, then the flying height will be
40 m 4000 m
40 km 400 km
9. The process of determining the location of the station (on the map) occupied by the plane table is
Intersection Two-point problem
Resection Traversing
10. The area of irregular plotted figure can be easily determined by using instrument named as
Pentagraph Planimeter
Subtense bar Vernier
11. In case of a truly vertical photographic survey, which of the following points
coincide?
I. Principal point
II. Isocentre
III. Plumb point
I and II only I and III only
II and III only II and III
12. Measurement of discharge of river usually forms a part of
Topographic surveying Hydrographic surveying
Geodetic surveying Route surveying
18. A total station is an instrument consisting of the combination of
prismatic compass, theodolite and dumpy level
auto level, tacheometer and compass
electronic theod04te and electronic distance meter
digital planimeter with auto level'
A V01
14. The most reliable estimate is Detailed estimate Plinth area estimate Preliminary estimate None of these
15. While computing masonry work, no deductions are generally made for
opening each up to 0·10 sq. m
ends of beam up to 0·05 sq. m
bed plates and wall plates up to 10 em
All the above
16. The estimated quantity of cement required per m3 in a compacted cement concrete of
1 2 4 nominal mix is
305 kg 330 kg
285 kg 255 kg
17. Identity correct statements from the following:
a.
Centre line method is the most common method for calculating the quantities of walls.
b.
Centre line method is suitable for determining quantities of walls which are curved in plan.
c.
Out-to-out and in·ta-in method is the most common method for calculating quantities of walls.
a and b a and c
a only band c
18. Annual income from a property is 25,000. The capitalized value of this property for a prevailing rate of 12·5% interest is
5,00,000 2,00,000
2,50,000 3,12,000
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P.T.O.
19. A property whose owner is in the absolute possession of the property, and the owner can utilise the Slime in any manner he likes subject to the rules and regulations of Govt. and local authorities is known as
Leasehold property Saleable property
Freehold property Absolute property
20. Which of the following documents, will not be required for drafting the tender notice?
Nature of work and its location
Estimated the work
Mode of submitting tender
Schedule of the proposed work
21. case of beains, the ratio of breadth to depth is usually taken as
0·5 to 0·7 0·9 to 1·0
1·2 to 1-4 1·8 to 2·0
22 Assertion (Aj Rate analysis is carried out to ,work out the actual cost of the structure or building.
Reason (RJ Rate is carried out to revise the schedule of rates.
State whether
Both A and R are true A is true and R is false
A is false and R is true Both A and R are false
23. Which value of asset will fetch more money from market?
Distress value Monopoly value
Sentimental value Poiential value
A 7 Y01
24. Main improvement of Indian Standard Soil Classification system over Unified Soil Classification system was
division of fine-grained into four groups and inclusion of peat.
division of fine-grained soil portion into six groups.
division of fine-grained soil portion into six groups and inclusion of peat.
division of fine-grained soil based on compressibility.
26. The maximum vertical stress occurs when the angle made by the polar ray attains a value corresponding to value of equal to
39° 53·5" and 0·817 39° 53·5" and 0·488
33° 33" and 0·817 33° 33" and 1·000
26. The shear strength of loamy soil depends upon
internal friction
cohesion
both internal friction and cohesion
neither internal friction nor cohesion
27. The mechanics of consolidation was demonstrated by Terzaghi by means of
Newmark's influence chart Spring analogy
Isobar diagrams Pressure bulb
28. Bearing capacity of Boil is not influenced by
shape and depth of footing position of water table
(31 overcoming load on footing type of soil
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P.T.O.
V01 8 A
29. Large movement of retaining structure is required to produce. active earth pressure passive earth pressure both active and passive earth pressures at rest pressure
30. When the allowable soil pressure is low or building loads are heavy, suitable type of foundation is
Strap footing Raft footing
Spread footing Combined footing
31. A normally consolidated clay stratum 5 m deep is underlain by hard rock. The average effective overburden pressure before after construction was 25 KPa and 250 KPa. The laboratory tests on this strata indicated: natural moisture content of50%, specific gravity of and liquid limit of 54%. The consolidation settlement of this layer will be nearly equal to
0·4m 0·8m
1·6 m 2·0 m
32. The allowable load on a pile from pile load te'st is calculated as
50% load corresponding ,to a settlement of 10% pile diameter
of load corresponding to a settlement of 12 mm
50% load corresponding to a settlement of 25 mm
lesser of and
33. Pneumatic cailsions are preferred in situations where the soil flow into the excavated area is than it can be 'removed.
slower faster
initially faster initially slower
A 9 V01
34. Surface tension is a phenomenon due to cohesion only viscous force adhesion between liquid and solid molecules difference in magnitude between the forces due to adhesion and cohesion
35. An object weighs 100 N in air and 75 N in water when fully submerged in it. The specific gravity of the object is
4·0 4·5
2·5 1·25
36. A flow of fluid has diverging straight streamlines. If the flow is steady, the flow
is a uniform flow with local acceleration
has convective normal acceleration
has convective tangential acceleration
has convective normal as well as tangential accelerations
37. The head over a 90° V-notch increases from 0·20 m to 0·40 m. The ratio of the new discharge to the original discharge is
1-414 2·000
4·000 more than 4·000
38. For a given open channel carrying a certain discharge, the critical depth depends on
the geometry of the channel the viscosity of the liquid
the roughness of the channel the longitudinal slope of the channel
39. In flow through pipe bends, the pressures on inner and outer radii
do not vary and are same as at center of pipe
vary, it being more on the inner one
are different; pressure increases with increase in radius and is more on outer radius
stand at same level,. increasing towards centre
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P.T.O.
40. The fluid flow in the model and the prototype will be dynamically similar if
the forces in the two sy:stems are same
the two systems are geometrically similar
the two systems are kinematically similar
the forces at similar points in the two systems have same ratio throughout the flow field
41. The main function of the surge tank is to
restrict the water hammer effects to small length of penstock
provide a free water surface near turbines
act as a reservoir
protect the penstock from bursting
42. In all reaction turbines, the following conditions should be satisfied for maximum efficiency
The velocity of whirl at entrance must be zero
The velocity of flow at outlet must zero
Velocity of whirl at outlet must be zero
(4)-Velocity of flow at entrance must be zero
43. In centrifugal pump, the inlet angle will be designed to have
relative velocity vector in radial direction
absolute velocity vector in radial direction
velocity of flow to be zero
peripheral velocity to be zero
A 11 Y01
44. In a hydrological cycle, the average residence tilQe of water in the global atmospheric moisture is larger than that in the global rivers oceans is smaller than that of the global groundwater rivers is larger than that of the global groundwater oceans is larger than that of the global groundwater
45. An isohyet is a line joining points having
equal evaporation value
equal barometric pressure
equal height above the MSL
equal rainfall depth in a given duration
46. Anticyclone is a
low pressure zone that occurs in the northern hemisphere only
high pressure zone with moderate winds
zone of low pressure with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
zone of low pressure with anticlockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
47. Hydrograph is a graph which shows the variation of discharge with
rainfall time
runoff coefficient rainfall excess
48. Ifthe maximum depth ofa 50 years -15h rainfall depth at BhulHtneshwar is 260 mm. the 50 year-Sh-maximum rainfall depth at the same place is
260 mm 260 mm
=260 mm None of the above
49. A cetchment was found -to have a ,-index of 0·6 cm/h in winter season. If a rainfall of 3 em occurs in that season at a uniform rate in a 6 h storm. the resulting direct runoff is
0·6 cm -0·6 em
0 em 6·6 em
50. Indicate the i1lCOITfIf:t statement out offollowing four statements in which PET stands for Potential Evapotranspiration
PET depends essentially on climatic factors and is not critically dependent on soil and plant factors.
PET is same as the consumptive use of an irrigated crop.
Decreasein PETofanareaonthebasisofmeanannualvaluereflects anincrease in runoff.
The ratio of PET to lake evaporation is always greater than unity.
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51. The process by which plants water from the surface of their leaves, stalks
and trunks in known as
evaporation evapo-transpiration
delta conjunctive use
52. Match the following lists
List I List II
(Plot of) (Name)
a. Accumulated precipitation vs I. Hydrograph
time in chronological order
b. ·Rainfall intensity vs time II. Hyetograph
c. Stream flow vs time in III. Flow-duration curve
chronological order
d. Steam discharge vs percent time IV. Mass curve of rainfall
the flow is equalled or exceeded
a .b c d
IV II I III
IV II III I
II ·IV I III
II IV III I
53. If a soil has infiltration capacity of actual infiltration rate f is given by
fewhen i 00; f f i when i fe
f fwhen i f fwhen i f
ee e
(where i =Rainfall intensity in above options)
54. The .chemical that is found to be most suitable as water evaporation inhibitor is
ethyl alcohol methyl alcohol
cetyl alcohol butyl alcohol
55. A peak ordinate of a 4-h unit hydrograph for a catchment is 80 mS/s. The peak ordinate of an 8-h unit hydrograph for the same catchment will be
(Ii >80 m3/s =80 mSls
80 m3/s Data inadequate
A 13 V01
66. Conjunctive use of water in a basin means
the sum of evapo-transpiration and the amount of water used up in plant metabolism.
combined use of surface and ground water resources.
combined use of wat;er for irrigation and hydropower generation.
the sum of evapo-transpiration and infiltration losses.
57. The moisture content of the soil after free drainage removes most of the gravity water is known as
Wilting point Available moisture
Saturation capacity Field capacity
58. If the duty on crop is reduced the irrigated area will be
less more
does not depend on duty None of the above
59. For the irrigation of a crop, the base period is 100 days and delta is 150 em. Then the duty in halm3. s on the field is
5·76 576 0·576 13·06
60. The ratio of the quantity of water stored in 'the root zone of the crop to the quantity of water actually delivered in the field known as
water conveyance efficiency water application efficiency
water use efficiency water storage efficiency
61. Consumptive use for a particular crop is defined as
water used by plant in transpiration only
water used in evaporation from adjacent soils and plant leaves
water used by plant in transpiration and evaporation also
None of the above
62. Which of the statements given below are correct? In the check-basin method of irrigation
a.
tlie ridges interfere with the movement of tractor drawn implements.
b.
considerable land is wasted by ridges and lateral channels.
c.
the surface drainage is unhindered and as such, is excellent.
d.
is unsuitable for growing crops which are sensitive to wet·soil conditions around their stem.
a,bandc a,bandd a,c andd b,c andd
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
P.T.O.
V01 14 A
68. The maximum application rate of sprinklers is limited by the infiltration capacity of the soil the prevailing wind velocity the quantity of water available the prevailing humidity and radiation
64. Leaching is the process in which
water table is lowered by using pumps
land is flooded with adequate depth of water to reduce salts in the top layer
land is flooded with adequate depth of water to reduce salts in· the bottom layer
None of the· above
66. An irrigant has the ionic concentrations of Ca+2 and Mg+2 as 30, 10 and 8 meqlL respectively. The Sodium Adsorption Ratio of this water is
0·10 3·33 10 1·66
66. A land is known as waterlogged when
gravity drainage ·has·. ceased
permanent wilting point is reached
the soil becomes completely saturated
capillary fringe reaches the root zone of the plants
67. An aqueduct means
passing canal drainage
passing canal below the road
passing the drain through the canal
passing the canal over the drainage
68. The uplift pressure is reduced in a gravity dam when a drainage gallery with its drainage pipe system is provided.
at all levels below the upstream level
at all levels below the drainage gallery
at all levels below the downstream level
at the foundation level only
A 16 Y01
69. In planning surveys for highways, which of the following studies is concerned with collection of details about the trend of population growth
Engineering !ltudies Economic studies
Financial studies Traffic studies
70. Which of the following statements gives the most suitable meaning of highway alignment?
Fixing the direction of highway
Deciding the radius of horizontal and vertical curves
Determining the gradient of volley and summit curves
Layout of the centre line of the highway on ground
71. Which of the following values is recommended by IRC as longitudinal friction coefficient for calculation of the stopping sight distance
0·05 to 0·10 0·15 to 0·20
0·25 to 0·30 0·35 to 0·40
72. Which of the following terms represents cross slope provided to the road surface to drain off the rainwater
Shoulder Camber
Kerb Drain
73. Width of the carriageway for single lane as standardised by IRC is
2·44 m 2·50 m
3·50 m 3·75 m
74. The mechanical widening of pavement required on horizontal curve along a two traffic lane road is given by which of the following equations
W =t2/2R W
m m
W 2l2/R
m m
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P.T.O.
75. It is not desirable to provide transition curve on which of the following types of curves?
Summit curves Valley curves
Sharp curves Steep curves
76. In traffic engineering, which of the following information is collected by road side interview method
Origin and destination data Traffic capacity data
Traffic volume data Parking studies
77. CBR test is developed to evaluate which of the following
Shearing resistance of soil Modulus of subgrade reaction
Stability of soil subgrade Stress -strain relationship of soil
78. To study weathering action on road aggregate, which of the following tests is carried out?
Abrasion test Crushing test
Impact test Soundness test
79. Guidelines of design of flexible pavement are recommended in which of the following IRC codes?
IRC 29 IRC 37
IRC 58 IRC 86
SO. As per IRC recommendations for design of concrete pavements, the'flexural strength of cement concrete used in the' pavement should not be less than
6 kg/cm2 24 kg/cm2
30 kg/cm2 40 kg/cm2
A vo,
81. A small bridged passage for the conveyance of water, under the road, from one side of the roadway to the other side is known as
Underground drain Channel
Aqueduct Culvert
82. If aftlux is more, scour depth
will be less will be more
will have no effect on it None of the above
. 83. IRC recommendations for minimum width of footpath on bridge is
1·0m 1·5m 2·0 m 2·5 m
84. IRC standard loading for bridge designs are
Class Class Class AB and Class 70-R
Class Class Class AB and Class 9O-R
Class Class Class BB and Class 70-R
Class Class Class AA and Clas's 70-R
85. The type of bearing uslld on a bridge, depends on
Amount of movement of the bridge ends
Temperature variations
Load carried
All of the above
86. Abutment piers are provided in multiple span
Arch bridges Submersible bridges
Temporary bridges Suspension bridges
87. The difference between the designed H.F.L. allowing for amm, if any, and the level of crown of road at its lower point, whether on the bridges or its approaches, is known as
Head room Free room
Highest water level Free board
88. Culvetts are provided 'for linear waterway upto maximum of
6 m 9 m 12 m 15 m
89. A thin wall used as a shield or protection against scouring action of stem is called
Baftle wall Dwarf wall
Curtain wall Any of the above
90. Floats are used to measure
Discharge of stream Velocity of stream
Flood discharge Aftlux
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P.T.O.
'91. Which air pollutant is not included in National Ambient Air Quality Standards 2009
Ozone B.enzene
Mercury Arsenic
92. The fire demand IS 9668 1990 is for a population of 1·5 lakh as per the recommendation of
1800 litre/min 3600 litre/min
5400 litre/min 7200 litre/min
93. The following characteristics pertain to the sand filters in water treatment The effective size of fllter medium is 0·25 mm to 0·35 mm.
b. Backwashing is carried out by air scouring followed by water washing.
c. The suspended solids are removed at the surface on biofilm mat. Which of these are related to slow sand filters
, .
a and b . band c
a and c band c
94. What are the Ambient Air Quality Standards in respect of noise in daytime for industrial and commercial areas respectively
75, 65 Leq. 75, 70 Leq.
75, 55 Leq. 65,55 Leq.
95. The following data pertain to a 'sewage sample at 20°C Initial dissolved oxygen 6 mglL Final dissolved oxygen after 5 days 3·5 mglL Dilution ratio The BOD5 of the above sample at 20°C is
500 mgIL 125 mgIL 175 mgIL 12·5 mgIL
YO,
A
N. Which of the following is attached growth process used for waste water treatment
Rotating Biological Contactor Activated Sludge Procesa
Aerated Lagoon Waste Stabilization Pond
97. Which of the following pairs Ware correctly matched
a.
Tricking filter -Attached growth anaerobic treatment system
b.
Activated sludge process -Suspended growth aerobic treatment system
c.
Oxidation pond -Suspended growth aerobic treatment system
d.
Oxidation ditch -Modified activated sludge process
a,bandc b,c andd
bandd andd
98. Factors that influence sedimentation process are
size, viscosity, density and temperature of water
surface overflow rate, detentioD time
inlet and outlet characteristics, depth of settling
All the above
19. Which of the following statements are correct .
a.
The burning of gasoline fuel emits carbon monoxide.
b.
Sulphur dioxide is formed from coal buru:iJll.
c.
The burning of tyres results in hydrocarbons.
aandb aandc
bandc a,bandc
100. What is the IS: 10500 standard for E. coli as per Drinking Water Quality Stand.rds
101100 mL 51100 mL
01100 mL or absent 11100 mL
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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. Celestial Survey Astrological Survey
Heaven Survey Astronomical Survey
2. If the radius of simple circular curve is 300 m and intersection angle between two straight lines is 1200 the tangent length of curve is
173·105 m 174·305 m
173·205 m 175·050 m
3. In the change point procedure, change point is the point of
the initial position of dumpy level.
the portion of staff where instrument is shifted.
the fInal position of dumpy level.
None of the above
4. The process ofestablishing number of intermediate points between two fIxed end points on ground is known as
Ranging Offsets
Station points Auxiliary points
5. The latitude of a line of closed traverse is its length multiplied by
tangent of reduced bearing sine of reduced bearing
cosine of reduced bearing secant, of reduced bearing
6. When lines come close rogether in a contour map. it indicates
Hill Reservoir
St;eep slope Flat slope
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
P.T.O.
VOl 4 A
7. In geodetical observations, the correction for refraction is subtractive to both the angle of elevation and the angle of depression additive to both the angle of elevation and the angle of depression subtractive to the angle and additive to the angle of depression additive to the angle of elevation and subtractive to the angle of depression
8. A road section of length 2 km scales 9 cm on a vertical photograph. The focal length of the camera is 180 mm. If the terrain is fairly level, then the flying height will be
40 m 4000 m
40 km 400 km
9. The process of determining the location of the station (on the map) occupied by the plane table is
Intersection Two-point problem
Resection Traversing
10. The area of irregular plotted figure can be easily determined by using instrument named as
Pentagraph Planimeter
Subtense bar Vernier
11. In case of a truly vertical photographic survey, which of the following points
coincide?
I. Principal point
II. Isocentre
III. Plumb point
I and II only I and III only
II and III only II and III
12. Measurement of discharge of river usually forms a part of
Topographic surveying Hydrographic surveying
Geodetic surveying Route surveying
18. A total station is an instrument consisting of the combination of
prismatic compass, theodolite and dumpy level
auto level, tacheometer and compass
electronic theod04te and electronic distance meter
digital planimeter with auto level'
A V01
14. The most reliable estimate is Detailed estimate Plinth area estimate Preliminary estimate None of these
15. While computing masonry work, no deductions are generally made for
opening each up to 0·10 sq. m
ends of beam up to 0·05 sq. m
bed plates and wall plates up to 10 em
All the above
16. The estimated quantity of cement required per m3 in a compacted cement concrete of
1 2 4 nominal mix is
305 kg 330 kg
285 kg 255 kg
17. Identity correct statements from the following:
a.
Centre line method is the most common method for calculating the quantities of walls.
b.
Centre line method is suitable for determining quantities of walls which are curved in plan.
c.
Out-to-out and in·ta-in method is the most common method for calculating quantities of walls.
a and b a and c
a only band c
18. Annual income from a property is 25,000. The capitalized value of this property for a prevailing rate of 12·5% interest is
5,00,000 2,00,000
2,50,000 3,12,000
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
P.T.O.
19. A property whose owner is in the absolute possession of the property, and the owner can utilise the Slime in any manner he likes subject to the rules and regulations of Govt. and local authorities is known as
Leasehold property Saleable property
Freehold property Absolute property
20. Which of the following documents, will not be required for drafting the tender notice?
Nature of work and its location
Estimated the work
Mode of submitting tender
Schedule of the proposed work
21. case of beains, the ratio of breadth to depth is usually taken as
0·5 to 0·7 0·9 to 1·0
1·2 to 1-4 1·8 to 2·0
22 Assertion (Aj Rate analysis is carried out to ,work out the actual cost of the structure or building.
Reason (RJ Rate is carried out to revise the schedule of rates.
State whether
Both A and R are true A is true and R is false
A is false and R is true Both A and R are false
23. Which value of asset will fetch more money from market?
Distress value Monopoly value
Sentimental value Poiential value
A 7 Y01
24. Main improvement of Indian Standard Soil Classification system over Unified Soil Classification system was
division of fine-grained into four groups and inclusion of peat.
division of fine-grained soil portion into six groups.
division of fine-grained soil portion into six groups and inclusion of peat.
division of fine-grained soil based on compressibility.
26. The maximum vertical stress occurs when the angle made by the polar ray attains a value corresponding to value of equal to
39° 53·5" and 0·817 39° 53·5" and 0·488
33° 33" and 0·817 33° 33" and 1·000
26. The shear strength of loamy soil depends upon
internal friction
cohesion
both internal friction and cohesion
neither internal friction nor cohesion
27. The mechanics of consolidation was demonstrated by Terzaghi by means of
Newmark's influence chart Spring analogy
Isobar diagrams Pressure bulb
28. Bearing capacity of Boil is not influenced by
shape and depth of footing position of water table
(31 overcoming load on footing type of soil
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
P.T.O.
V01 8 A
29. Large movement of retaining structure is required to produce. active earth pressure passive earth pressure both active and passive earth pressures at rest pressure
30. When the allowable soil pressure is low or building loads are heavy, suitable type of foundation is
Strap footing Raft footing
Spread footing Combined footing
31. A normally consolidated clay stratum 5 m deep is underlain by hard rock. The average effective overburden pressure before after construction was 25 KPa and 250 KPa. The laboratory tests on this strata indicated: natural moisture content of50%, specific gravity of and liquid limit of 54%. The consolidation settlement of this layer will be nearly equal to
0·4m 0·8m
1·6 m 2·0 m
32. The allowable load on a pile from pile load te'st is calculated as
50% load corresponding ,to a settlement of 10% pile diameter
of load corresponding to a settlement of 12 mm
50% load corresponding to a settlement of 25 mm
lesser of and
33. Pneumatic cailsions are preferred in situations where the soil flow into the excavated area is than it can be 'removed.
slower faster
initially faster initially slower
A 9 V01
34. Surface tension is a phenomenon due to cohesion only viscous force adhesion between liquid and solid molecules difference in magnitude between the forces due to adhesion and cohesion
35. An object weighs 100 N in air and 75 N in water when fully submerged in it. The specific gravity of the object is
4·0 4·5
2·5 1·25
36. A flow of fluid has diverging straight streamlines. If the flow is steady, the flow
is a uniform flow with local acceleration
has convective normal acceleration
has convective tangential acceleration
has convective normal as well as tangential accelerations
37. The head over a 90° V-notch increases from 0·20 m to 0·40 m. The ratio of the new discharge to the original discharge is
1-414 2·000
4·000 more than 4·000
38. For a given open channel carrying a certain discharge, the critical depth depends on
the geometry of the channel the viscosity of the liquid
the roughness of the channel the longitudinal slope of the channel
39. In flow through pipe bends, the pressures on inner and outer radii
do not vary and are same as at center of pipe
vary, it being more on the inner one
are different; pressure increases with increase in radius and is more on outer radius
stand at same level,. increasing towards centre
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
P.T.O.
40. The fluid flow in the model and the prototype will be dynamically similar if
the forces in the two sy:stems are same
the two systems are geometrically similar
the two systems are kinematically similar
the forces at similar points in the two systems have same ratio throughout the flow field
41. The main function of the surge tank is to
restrict the water hammer effects to small length of penstock
provide a free water surface near turbines
act as a reservoir
protect the penstock from bursting
42. In all reaction turbines, the following conditions should be satisfied for maximum efficiency
The velocity of whirl at entrance must be zero
The velocity of flow at outlet must zero
Velocity of whirl at outlet must be zero
(4)-Velocity of flow at entrance must be zero
43. In centrifugal pump, the inlet angle will be designed to have
relative velocity vector in radial direction
absolute velocity vector in radial direction
velocity of flow to be zero
peripheral velocity to be zero
A 11 Y01
44. In a hydrological cycle, the average residence tilQe of water in the global atmospheric moisture is larger than that in the global rivers oceans is smaller than that of the global groundwater rivers is larger than that of the global groundwater oceans is larger than that of the global groundwater
45. An isohyet is a line joining points having
equal evaporation value
equal barometric pressure
equal height above the MSL
equal rainfall depth in a given duration
46. Anticyclone is a
low pressure zone that occurs in the northern hemisphere only
high pressure zone with moderate winds
zone of low pressure with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
zone of low pressure with anticlockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
47. Hydrograph is a graph which shows the variation of discharge with
rainfall time
runoff coefficient rainfall excess
48. Ifthe maximum depth ofa 50 years -15h rainfall depth at BhulHtneshwar is 260 mm. the 50 year-Sh-maximum rainfall depth at the same place is
260 mm 260 mm
=260 mm None of the above
49. A cetchment was found -to have a ,-index of 0·6 cm/h in winter season. If a rainfall of 3 em occurs in that season at a uniform rate in a 6 h storm. the resulting direct runoff is
0·6 cm -0·6 em
0 em 6·6 em
50. Indicate the i1lCOITfIf:t statement out offollowing four statements in which PET stands for Potential Evapotranspiration
PET depends essentially on climatic factors and is not critically dependent on soil and plant factors.
PET is same as the consumptive use of an irrigated crop.
Decreasein PETofanareaonthebasisofmeanannualvaluereflects anincrease in runoff.
The ratio of PET to lake evaporation is always greater than unity.
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51. The process by which plants water from the surface of their leaves, stalks
and trunks in known as
evaporation evapo-transpiration
delta conjunctive use
52. Match the following lists
List I List II
(Plot of) (Name)
a. Accumulated precipitation vs I. Hydrograph
time in chronological order
b. ·Rainfall intensity vs time II. Hyetograph
c. Stream flow vs time in III. Flow-duration curve
chronological order
d. Steam discharge vs percent time IV. Mass curve of rainfall
the flow is equalled or exceeded
a .b c d
IV II I III
IV II III I
II ·IV I III
II IV III I
53. If a soil has infiltration capacity of actual infiltration rate f is given by
fewhen i 00; f f i when i fe
f fwhen i f fwhen i f
ee e
(where i =Rainfall intensity in above options)
54. The .chemical that is found to be most suitable as water evaporation inhibitor is
ethyl alcohol methyl alcohol
cetyl alcohol butyl alcohol
55. A peak ordinate of a 4-h unit hydrograph for a catchment is 80 mS/s. The peak ordinate of an 8-h unit hydrograph for the same catchment will be
(Ii >80 m3/s =80 mSls
80 m3/s Data inadequate
A 13 V01
66. Conjunctive use of water in a basin means
the sum of evapo-transpiration and the amount of water used up in plant metabolism.
combined use of surface and ground water resources.
combined use of wat;er for irrigation and hydropower generation.
the sum of evapo-transpiration and infiltration losses.
57. The moisture content of the soil after free drainage removes most of the gravity water is known as
Wilting point Available moisture
Saturation capacity Field capacity
58. If the duty on crop is reduced the irrigated area will be
less more
does not depend on duty None of the above
59. For the irrigation of a crop, the base period is 100 days and delta is 150 em. Then the duty in halm3. s on the field is
5·76 576 0·576 13·06
60. The ratio of the quantity of water stored in 'the root zone of the crop to the quantity of water actually delivered in the field known as
water conveyance efficiency water application efficiency
water use efficiency water storage efficiency
61. Consumptive use for a particular crop is defined as
water used by plant in transpiration only
water used in evaporation from adjacent soils and plant leaves
water used by plant in transpiration and evaporation also
None of the above
62. Which of the statements given below are correct? In the check-basin method of irrigation
a.
tlie ridges interfere with the movement of tractor drawn implements.
b.
considerable land is wasted by ridges and lateral channels.
c.
the surface drainage is unhindered and as such, is excellent.
d.
is unsuitable for growing crops which are sensitive to wet·soil conditions around their stem.
a,bandc a,bandd a,c andd b,c andd
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68. The maximum application rate of sprinklers is limited by the infiltration capacity of the soil the prevailing wind velocity the quantity of water available the prevailing humidity and radiation
64. Leaching is the process in which
water table is lowered by using pumps
land is flooded with adequate depth of water to reduce salts in the top layer
land is flooded with adequate depth of water to reduce salts in· the bottom layer
None of the· above
66. An irrigant has the ionic concentrations of Ca+2 and Mg+2 as 30, 10 and 8 meqlL respectively. The Sodium Adsorption Ratio of this water is
0·10 3·33 10 1·66
66. A land is known as waterlogged when
gravity drainage ·has·. ceased
permanent wilting point is reached
the soil becomes completely saturated
capillary fringe reaches the root zone of the plants
67. An aqueduct means
passing canal drainage
passing canal below the road
passing the drain through the canal
passing the canal over the drainage
68. The uplift pressure is reduced in a gravity dam when a drainage gallery with its drainage pipe system is provided.
at all levels below the upstream level
at all levels below the drainage gallery
at all levels below the downstream level
at the foundation level only
A 16 Y01
69. In planning surveys for highways, which of the following studies is concerned with collection of details about the trend of population growth
Engineering !ltudies Economic studies
Financial studies Traffic studies
70. Which of the following statements gives the most suitable meaning of highway alignment?
Fixing the direction of highway
Deciding the radius of horizontal and vertical curves
Determining the gradient of volley and summit curves
Layout of the centre line of the highway on ground
71. Which of the following values is recommended by IRC as longitudinal friction coefficient for calculation of the stopping sight distance
0·05 to 0·10 0·15 to 0·20
0·25 to 0·30 0·35 to 0·40
72. Which of the following terms represents cross slope provided to the road surface to drain off the rainwater
Shoulder Camber
Kerb Drain
73. Width of the carriageway for single lane as standardised by IRC is
2·44 m 2·50 m
3·50 m 3·75 m
74. The mechanical widening of pavement required on horizontal curve along a two traffic lane road is given by which of the following equations
W =t2/2R W
m m
W 2l2/R
m m
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75. It is not desirable to provide transition curve on which of the following types of curves?
Summit curves Valley curves
Sharp curves Steep curves
76. In traffic engineering, which of the following information is collected by road side interview method
Origin and destination data Traffic capacity data
Traffic volume data Parking studies
77. CBR test is developed to evaluate which of the following
Shearing resistance of soil Modulus of subgrade reaction
Stability of soil subgrade Stress -strain relationship of soil
78. To study weathering action on road aggregate, which of the following tests is carried out?
Abrasion test Crushing test
Impact test Soundness test
79. Guidelines of design of flexible pavement are recommended in which of the following IRC codes?
IRC 29 IRC 37
IRC 58 IRC 86
SO. As per IRC recommendations for design of concrete pavements, the'flexural strength of cement concrete used in the' pavement should not be less than
6 kg/cm2 24 kg/cm2
30 kg/cm2 40 kg/cm2
A vo,
81. A small bridged passage for the conveyance of water, under the road, from one side of the roadway to the other side is known as
Underground drain Channel
Aqueduct Culvert
82. If aftlux is more, scour depth
will be less will be more
will have no effect on it None of the above
. 83. IRC recommendations for minimum width of footpath on bridge is
1·0m 1·5m 2·0 m 2·5 m
84. IRC standard loading for bridge designs are
Class Class Class AB and Class 70-R
Class Class Class AB and Class 9O-R
Class Class Class BB and Class 70-R
Class Class Class AA and Clas's 70-R
85. The type of bearing uslld on a bridge, depends on
Amount of movement of the bridge ends
Temperature variations
Load carried
All of the above
86. Abutment piers are provided in multiple span
Arch bridges Submersible bridges
Temporary bridges Suspension bridges
87. The difference between the designed H.F.L. allowing for amm, if any, and the level of crown of road at its lower point, whether on the bridges or its approaches, is known as
Head room Free room
Highest water level Free board
88. Culvetts are provided 'for linear waterway upto maximum of
6 m 9 m 12 m 15 m
89. A thin wall used as a shield or protection against scouring action of stem is called
Baftle wall Dwarf wall
Curtain wall Any of the above
90. Floats are used to measure
Discharge of stream Velocity of stream
Flood discharge Aftlux
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'91. Which air pollutant is not included in National Ambient Air Quality Standards 2009
Ozone B.enzene
Mercury Arsenic
92. The fire demand IS 9668 1990 is for a population of 1·5 lakh as per the recommendation of
1800 litre/min 3600 litre/min
5400 litre/min 7200 litre/min
93. The following characteristics pertain to the sand filters in water treatment The effective size of fllter medium is 0·25 mm to 0·35 mm.
b. Backwashing is carried out by air scouring followed by water washing.
c. The suspended solids are removed at the surface on biofilm mat. Which of these are related to slow sand filters
, .
a and b . band c
a and c band c
94. What are the Ambient Air Quality Standards in respect of noise in daytime for industrial and commercial areas respectively
75, 65 Leq. 75, 70 Leq.
75, 55 Leq. 65,55 Leq.
95. The following data pertain to a 'sewage sample at 20°C Initial dissolved oxygen 6 mglL Final dissolved oxygen after 5 days 3·5 mglL Dilution ratio The BOD5 of the above sample at 20°C is
500 mgIL 125 mgIL 175 mgIL 12·5 mgIL
YO,
A
N. Which of the following is attached growth process used for waste water treatment
Rotating Biological Contactor Activated Sludge Procesa
Aerated Lagoon Waste Stabilization Pond
97. Which of the following pairs Ware correctly matched
a.
Tricking filter -Attached growth anaerobic treatment system
b.
Activated sludge process -Suspended growth aerobic treatment system
c.
Oxidation pond -Suspended growth aerobic treatment system
d.
Oxidation ditch -Modified activated sludge process
a,bandc b,c andd
bandd andd
98. Factors that influence sedimentation process are
size, viscosity, density and temperature of water
surface overflow rate, detentioD time
inlet and outlet characteristics, depth of settling
All the above
19. Which of the following statements are correct .
a.
The burning of gasoline fuel emits carbon monoxide.
b.
Sulphur dioxide is formed from coal buru:iJll.
c.
The burning of tyres results in hydrocarbons.
aandb aandc
bandc a,bandc
100. What is the IS: 10500 standard for E. coli as per Drinking Water Quality Stand.rds
101100 mL 51100 mL
01100 mL or absent 11100 mL
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