Exam Details
Subject | civil engineering | |
Paper | ||
Exam / Course | combined competitive examination | |
Department | ||
Organization | Jammu Kashmir Public Service Commission | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | 2011 | |
City, State | jammu kashmir, |
Question Paper
1. The height of a water column equivalent to a pressure of 0.15MPa is:
(A)15.3 m
(B)25.3 m
(C)35.3 m
(D)45.3 m
2. The metacentric height is the distance between the:
(A)Centre of gravity of the floating body and the centre of buoyancy
(B)Centre of gravity of the floating body and the metacentre
(C)MetacentremIdcentreofbuoyancy
(D)Original centre of buoyancy and new centre of buoyancy
3. Venturimeter is used to:
(A)Measure the velocity of a flowing liquid
(B)Measure the pressure of a flowing liquid
(C)Measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe
(D)Measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line
4. An error of in measuring head over the crest of the notch (H)results in an error of discharge measurement over a triangular notch of
5. An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to
(A)Avoid interruption in the flow
(B)Increase discharge
(C)Increase velocity
Maintain pressure difference
6. The most economical section of a rectangular channel is one which has hydraulic radius equal to
(A)Half the depth
(B)Half the breadth
(C)Twice the depth
(D)Twice the breadth
7. The point of contraflexure is a point where
(A)Shear force changes sign
(B)Bending moment changes sign
(C)Shear force is maximum
Bending moment is maximum
8. One poise is equal to
0.1N-s/m2
1N-s/m2
10N-s/m2
100N-s/m2
9. Whenever a plate is held immersed at some angle with the direction of flow of the liquid, the plate is subjected to some force. Component of this force, in direction of flow of the liquid, is known as
lift
Drag
Stagnation pressure
Bulk modulus
10. Select the correct statement:
(A)Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to elastic force
(B)Weber's number is the ratio of gravity force to surface tension force
(C)Weber's number is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force
(D)Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to surface tension force
11. Which of the following is not a sustaining slope
(A)Mild slope
(B)Critical slope
(C)Steep slope
(D)Adverse slope
12. When the depth of water in an open channel is greater than the critical depth, the flow is
(A)Critical flow
(B)Turbulent flow
(C)Tranquil flow
(D)Torrential flow
13. Two reservoirs are connected by a pipe line consisting of two pipes A and B of identical friction factor and length, and connected in series. If the diameter of pipe A is 20010 larger than that ofB, the ratio of the head loss in A to that in B is:
0.833
0.600
0.529
0.402
14. The presence of hydrogen sulphide in water causes
(A)Softening
(B)Alkalinity
(C)Acidity
(D)Bad taste
15. Biological action is used in:
(A)Screens
(B)Sedimentation tanks
(C)Trickling filters
(D)Trash rack
16. The friction fin a laminar pipe flow was found to be 0.04. The Reynolds number of the flow was
(A)2000
(B)1000
(C)800
(D)1600
17. In turbulent pipe flow, inside the laminar boundary layer the velocity distribution is
(A)Parabolic
(B)Linear
(C)Logarithmic
(D)Exponential
18. To measure a horizontal angle as accurately as possible:
(A)Method of repetition is used
(B)Method of reiteration is used
(C)Method of deflection angles is used
Method of double observations is used
19. A fluid of viscosity 0.7 NS/m2 and specific gravity 1.3 is flowing through a circular pipe of diameter 100mm. The maximum shear stress at the pipe wall is given as 196.2 the pressure gradient is
(A)7849N/m2perm
(B)-7848N/m2perm
(C)7643 N/m2 per m
(D)0N/m2perm
20. A circular cylinder 1m long and 0.05m diameter is submerged in flowing water of velocity 0.5 m/sec. The coefficient of total drag is 2.15 and coefficient of shear drag is 0.15, then the pressure drag exerted on the cylinder will be
(A)25N
(B)125N
(C)12.5N
(D)250N
21. Suitable method for forecasting population for a young and a rapidly developing city is:
Arithmetic mean method
Geometric mean method
(C)Graphical method
(D)Logarithmic method
22. Imhoffcone is used to determine:
(A)Settleable solids
(B)Suspended solids
(C)Dissolved solids
Organic matter
23. The total count of bacteria per cubic centimeter for domestic purposes varies from:
to 100
(B)200 to 250
(C)450 to 500
500 to 750
24. is a simply supported beam of length I and carries a central point load W. Beam is loaded with a uniformly distributed load such that the total load on the beam is W. The ratio of maximum deflections in both cases is
25. The percentage of domestic use of water amounts to of the total water requirement per capita per day:
26. Which of the following is used to express turbidity of water
silica scale
decibels
pH value
platinUmcobaitscale
27. The maximum permissible fluorine content in water for domestic supplies is
(A)0.015 ppm
(B)1.5 ppm
ppm
(D)1.50 ppb
28. Copper sulphate is used for controlling:
(A)BOD
(B)algae
(C)COD
29. In the process of screening, the angle of placing screens is:
to 12°
to 27°
to 60°
30. Time of detention in a plain sedimentation tank is
hours
hours
to 8 hours
minutes
31. The time of contact for chlorination should be at least
hours
minutes
hour
hours
32. To remove temporary hardness due to calcium bicarbonates used.
(A)boiling
(B)hot lime process
(C)lime-soda process
process
33. The other name of reflux valve is:
(A)Bib cock
valve
(C)Air lock valve
Check valve
34. The minimum size of fire hydrant is
(A)50cm
(B)100cm
(C)15cm
(D)200cm
35. Usually adopted pipe joint in pumping stations is
(A)in-out joint
(B)flanged joint
(C)lap joint
spigot joint
36. When the length of chain used in measuring distance is longer than the standard length, the error in measured distance will be
(A)Positive error
(B)Negative error
(C)Compensating error
Cumulative error
37. A line joining some fixed points on the main survey lines, is called a
(A)Check line
(B)tie line
(C)Base line
Shrada
38. Compensating errors that occur in chain survey are proportional to
(B)root L
root L
where L =Length of the chain
39. The geographical meridians through the various stations
(A)Are parallel
(B)Converge to the poles
(C)Converge from north pole to south pole
(D)Converge from equator to north pole
40. At the equator, the amount of dip is
deg
deg
deg
deg
41. When the magnetic bearing of the sun at noon is 185" the magnetic declination will be
east
west
north
south
42. pH value is a symbol for concentration.
(A)Hydride
(B)Hydrogen
(C)Hydroxil
(D)Sodium
43. The dose of coagulant in dry feeding, is controlled by:
(A)Scrapers
(B)Worm wheel
(C)Paddles
Aerator
44. The super-elevation in the case of pavements is
(A)Directly proportional to the square of velocity of vehicles
(B)Inversely proportional to the square of velocity of vehicles
(C)Directly proportional to the width of pavement
(D)Inversely proportional to the width of pavement
45. Contour lines cross ridge or valley lines at:
46. In route surveys, the most suitable method of contouring is
squares
radial1ines
cross-sections
By tacheometer
47. The method of plane tabling commonly used for establishing the instrument stations only, is
(A)Method of radiation
(B)Method of intersection
(C)Method of traversing
(D)Method of resection
48. A reverse curve consists of:
single curve of a circle connecting two straights
(B)Two arcs of different radii bending in the same direction
(C)Two arcs of equal radii bending in the same direction
(D)Two arcs of equal or different radii bending in the opposite direction
49. A simple circular curve is designated by the
(A)Radius of the curve
(B)Curvature of the curve
(C)Angle subtended at the centre by a chord of any length
(D)Angle subtended at the centre by a chord of particular length
50. A deflection angle is
(A)Less than 90°
(B)More than 90° but less than 180°
(C)Equal to the difference between the angle of intersection and 180°
(D)Equal to the difference between the angle of intersection and 360°
51. The shift of a curve is equal to:
L2/24R
where L=length of transition curve, Radius of the circular curve
52. The multiplying constant for the tacheometer is,
Focal length of the objective
i=Interval between the stadia lines or hairs, and
Horizontal distance from the optical centre to the vertical axis of the tacheometer
53. Of the following__is used for cleaning of rapid sand filters.
(A)Scraping the top layer of filter media
Backwashing
(C)Providing new sand layers
Vacuum cleaning
54. Bitumen grade 80/100 indicates that under the standard test condition, penetration value of bitumen would vary from:
(A)0.8mm to 1mm
(B)8mm to 10mm
(C)8cm to 10cm
(0)0.08mm to 0.1mm
55. The brightness of the imagc__the magnifying power.
directly proportional to
inversely proportional to
(C)Varies directly as the square of
(D)Varies inversely as the square of
56. The shape of STOP Sign according to IRC:67-2001 is:
(A)Circular
(B)Triangular
(C)Octogonal
(D)Rectangular
57. Bleaching powder is:
(A)Slaked lime
(B)Chloride of lime
(C)Hypo-chloride of lime
(D)Hypo-chlorite of lime
58. Reflection cracking is observed in
(A)Flexible pavement
(B)Rigid pavement
(C)Bituminous overlay over cement concrete suffice
(D)Rigid overlay over flexible pavement
59. Assuming the safe stopping sight distance to be 80m on a flat highway section and with a set back distance of 10m, the radius of negotiable horizontal curve is
(A)80m
(B)70m
(C)160m
(D)800m
60. the Indian Roads Congress was set up in:
(A)1930
(B)1934
(C)1948
(D)1956
61. If a body is subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses, of equal intensity,the ratio of direct stress to the corresponding volumetric strain is known as
(A)Young's modulus
(B)Modulus of rigidity
(C)Bulk modulus
(D)Poisson's ratio
62. Find the incorrect statement of the following:
force acting in the opposite direction to the motion of the body is called force of friction
(B)The ratio of the limiting friction to the normal reaction is called coefficient of friction
machine whose efficiency is 100% is known as an ideal machine
(D)The velocity ratio of a machine is the ratio of load lifted to the effort applied
63. When a rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2m and if there is no surrounding friction,on rebounding the ball will rise to a height of:
64. Discharge is maximum in a broad-crested weir,if the head of water on the downstream side of weir is ........ the head of water on the upstream side of weir:
(A)Equal to
(B)One-third
(C)Two-third
(D)Three-fourth
65. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of:
(A)Stress,strain and pressure
Stress,force and modulus of rigidity
(C)Strain,force and pressure
Stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity
66. The strain energy stored in a spring, when subjected to maximum load, without allowing permanent distortion is
(A)Impact energy
(8)Proof resilience
(C)Proof stress
Modulus of resilience
67. When a load on the tTcc end of a cantilever beam is increased, failure will occur
the free end
the fixed end
the middle of the beam
At a distance 2/3 of the span from free end
68. If the assembly in which a rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and is tightened by rigid washers is subjected to a compressive load, then:
(A)Rod is under compression
(B)Tube is under compression
(C)Both rod and tube are under compression
(D)Tube is under tension and rod is under compression
69. The Young's modulus a material is 125GPa and Poissons ratio is 0.25. The modulus of rigidity of the material is:
(A)30GPa
(B)50GPa
(C)80GPa
(D)100GPa
70. Two pipes are said to be equivalent, if:
(A)Length of both the pipes is same
(B)Diameter of both the pipes is same
(C)Loss of head and discharge of both the pipes are same
(D)Loss of head and velocity of flow in both the pipes are same
71. Shape of bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam loaded in its centre is
right angled triangle
isoscles triangle
trapezium
A rectangle
72. It is found that a body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of600MPa on a plane at right angles to the former and shear stress of 400 MPa on these planes, The maximum normal stress will be
(A)400 MPa
(B)500 MPa
(C)900 MPa
(D)1400 MPa
73. If a load on the free end of a cantilever beam is increased,failure occurs:
the free end
the fixed end
the middle of the beam
At a distance 2/3 of span from free end
74. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at
(A)Smaller end
(B)Larger end
(C)Middle
(D)Anywhere
75. When a circular shaft is subjected to torsion, the shear stress at the centre is:
(A)Zero
(B)Minimum
(C)Maximum
(D)Infinity
76. and are two closely coiled helical springs and are equal in all respects but the diameter of wireofspring'M' is double that of spring The stiffness of spring will be that of spring'M'.
(A)One-sixteenth
(B)One-eighth
(C)One-fourth
One-half
77. Find the correct statement:
(A)The size of hole drilled in riveting plates is less than the actual size of rivet
(B)The centre to centre distance between two consecutive rivetS in a row is called margin
(C)Rivets are generally specified by its shank diameter
(D)Tearing of plates can be avoided by taking the pitch of rivets equal to 1.5 times the diameter of rivet hole
78. Strain energy is defined as the
(A)Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
(B)Energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of a specimen
(C)Maximum energy which can be stored in a body
(D)Proof resilience per unit volume of a material
79. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column with one end fixed and the other end hinged is(with usual notation)
<img src='./qimages/4537-79.jpg'>
80. For a column with maximum equivalent length,it has:
(A)Both ends hinged
(B)Both ends fixed
(C)One end fixed and the other end hinged
One end fixed and the other end free
81. The modular ratio is the ratio of:
(A)Young's modulus of steel to the Young's modulus of concrete
(B)Young's modulus of concrete to the Young's modulus of steel
(C)Load carried by mild steel to the load carried by tor steel
(D)Load carried by concrete to the load carried by steel
82. In a beam section,if the steel reinforcement is of such a magnitude that the permissible stresses in concrete and steel are developed simultaneously, the section is known as
(A)balanced section
(B)concrete balanced section
(C)steel balanced section
optimal section
83. For a singly over reinforced rectangular concrete section:
(A)The lever arm will be less than that for a balanced section
(B)The maximum stress developed by steel will be equal to the allowable stress in steel
(C)The maximum stress developed by concrete will be equal to allowable stress in concrete
(D)The minimum stress developed by concrete will be equal to allowable stress in concrete
84. The effective depth of a singly reinforced rectangular beam is 300mm. The section is over reinforced and the neutral axis is 120mm below the top. If the maximum stress attained by concrete is 5N/mm2 and the modular ratio is 18, then the stress developed in the steel will be:
(A)130N/mm2
(B)135 N/mm2
(C)160N/mm2
(D)180N/mm2
85. When there is a sudden increase or decrease in shear force diagram between any two points, it indicates that there is a
(A)Point load at the two points
loading between the two points
(C)Uniformly distributed load between the two points
(D)Uniformly varying load between the two points .
86. The maximum permissible shear stress given in IS:456-1978 is based on:
(A)Diagonal tension failure
(B)Diagonal compression failure
(C)Flexural tension failure
Uniaxial compression
87. In a reinforced concrete beam, the shear stress distribution above the neutral axis follows
(A)Straight line
(B)Circular curve
(C)Parabolic curve
(D)Logarithmic
88. The measurement of anchorage lengths of inclined bars,used to act as shear reinforcement is taken in
(A)Tension zone from the end of the sloping portion of the bar
(B)Compression zone from bottom of the beam
(C)Tension zone from the mid-depth of the beam
(D)Compression zone from the end of the sloping Portion of the bar
89. Of the following, which represents a proper sequence?
(A)Proportional limit, elastic limit, yielding, failure
(B)Elastic limit, proportional limit, yielding, failure
(C)Yielding,proportional limit,elastic limit,failure
(D)Elastic limit, yielding, proportional limit, failure
90. The effective depth ofaT-beam is the distance between the:
Centre of the flange and the top of the tensile reinforcement
Top of the flange and the centre of the tensile reinforcement
Bottom of the flange and the centre of the tensile reinforcement
Centre of the flange and the bottom of the tensile reinforcement
91. In designing reinforced concrete piles as a column, it is considered as
(A)Fixed at both ends
(B)Hinged at both ends
(C)Fixed at one end and hinged at the other end
(D)Force at both ends
92. If the load,warping and frictional stresses in a cement concrete slab are 210N/mm2,290N/mm2, and 10N/mm2 respectively, the critical combination of stresses during summer midday is
(A)290N/mm2
(B)390N/mm2
(C)490N/mm2
(D)590N/mm2
93. Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete is
(A)M15
(B)M20
(C)M10
(D)M25
94. When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by
(A)Increasing the depth
(B)Using high strength steel
(C)Providing shear reinforcement
Using larger number of thin bars
95. Plastic section modulus for a solid circular section of diameter is:
96. Bentonite clay contains predominantly the clay mineral:
(A)Montmorillonite
(B)Kaolinite
(C)HalIoysite
(D)illite
97. Match list I with II and select the correct answer:
List-I (Type of soil) List-II (Mode of transpiration and deposition)
A. Lacustrine soils 1. Transportation by wind
B. Alluvial soils 2. Transportation by running water
C. Aeolian soils 3. Deposited at the bottom of lakes
D. Marine soils 4. Deposited in sea water
Answer A B C D
1 2 3 4
3 2 1 4
3 2 4 1
1 3 2 4
98. A sample of saturated sand has a dry unit weight of 18kN/cum and a specific gravity of 2.7. if unit weight of water is 10kN/cum, the void ratio of the soil sample will be
(A)0.5
(B)0.6
(C)0.4
(0)0.9
99. Consider the following statements
A well-graded sand should have
1. Uniformity coefficient greater than6
2. Coefficient of curvature between 1 and 3
3. Effective size greater than 1mm Of these statements
2 and 3 are correct
and 2 are correct
and 3 are correct
(D)1and 3 are correct
100. The moisture content of a clayey soil is gradually decreased from a large value.The correct sequence of the occurrence of the following limits is
1. Shrinkage limit
2. Plastic limit
3. Liquid limit
Select the correct answer:
101. A soil has a liquid limit of40% and plasticity index of 20%. the plastic limit of the soil will be
60%
102. A flow net is drawn for a weir.The total head loss is 6m,number of potential drops is 10 and the length of the flow path for the last square is 1m.the exit gradient is
(A)0.6
(B)0.7
(C)1.0
(D)1.6
103. A sand deposit has a porosity of 0.375 and a specific gravity of 2.6. The critical hydraulic gradient for the sand deposit is
(A)2.975
(B)2.225
(D)0.75
104. A clay layer 5m thick in field takes 300 days to attain 50% consolidation with condition of double drainage. If the same clay layer is underlaying by hard rock,then the time taken to attain 50% consolidation will be
(A)300days
(B)600days
(C)900days
(D)1200 days
105. The bearing capacity of a rectangular footing of plan dimensions 1.5mx3m resting on the surface of a sand deposit was estimated as 600 kN/m2 when the water table is far below the base of the footing. The bearing capacities in kN/m2 when the water level rises to depths of 3m, 1.5m and 0.5m below the footing are
600, 400
(B)600,450,350
500, 250
400, 250
106. A clay deposit suffers a total settlement of 5cm with one way drainage.With two-way drainage, the total settlement will be
(A)10cm
(B)2.5cm
(C)20cm
(D)5cm
107. Varved clay is of:
(A)Glacial origin
(B)Acolin origin
(C)Biological origin
(D)Pillurial origin
108. Density index is used in relation to
(A)Fine grained soils only
(B)Coarse grained soils only
(C)Any soil
(D)Organic soils only
109. The permeability of partially saturated soil in laboratory can be determined using:
(A)Falling head test
(B)Constant head test
(C)Packer's test
(D)Horizontal capillary test
110. Critical hydraulic gradient is given by:
(A)Sp.gr only
(B)Unit weight only
(C)Porosity, Sp.gr and Unit weight
(D)Sine of angle of repose
Ill. A liquid flow is said to be uniform when:
(A)The liquid particles at all sections have the same velocities
(B)The liquid particles at different sections have different velocities
(C)The quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant
(D)Each liquid particle has a definite path
112. A soil is compacted at a moisture content of 12% with 10% air voids. The dry unit weight of soil, (taking G as 2.65 and unit weight of water as 10 kN/cum) is:
(A)20.11 kN/m3
(B)19.58 kN/m3
(C)18.10kN/m3 4
(D)17.60kN/m3
113. A 8m thick clay layer is underlain by coarse sand containing artesian water under a Piezometer head of 10m. The maximum depth of excavation that can be made in the deposit without bottom being subjected to flow out, taking unit weight of clay=20kN/m3 is:
0m
3m
(C) 18m
13m
114. The net ultimate bearing capacity of a purely cohesive soil:
Depends on width of footing and is independent of depth of footing
Depends on depth of footing and is independent of width of footing
Depends on both width and depth of footing
Independent of both width and depth of footing
115. Contact pressure beneath a rigid footing resting on a cohesive soil is:
Less at edges compared to middle
More at edges compared to middle
(C)Uniform throughout
Cannot be interpreted
116. When a retaining wall moves away from the backfill, the pressure exerted on the wall is termed as
(A)Passive earth pressure
(B)Swelling pressure
(C)Pore pressure
(D)Active earth pressure
117. Neutral axis of the cross-section of a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is:
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinity
118. Critical gradient of the seeping water through a permeable soil is
(A)directly proportional to square of void ratio
(B)increases with decrease in void ratio
(C)inversely proportional to shape of the soil particles
(D)decreases with increase in specific gravity of soil
119. Expulsion rate of pore fluid from the soil is directly dependent on the the soil:
(A)structure
(B)texture
(C)permeability
(D)porosity
120. A beam of uniform strength has
(A)Same cross-section throughout the beam
(B)Same bending stress at every section
(C)Same bending moment at every section
(D)Same shear stress at every section
(A)15.3 m
(B)25.3 m
(C)35.3 m
(D)45.3 m
2. The metacentric height is the distance between the:
(A)Centre of gravity of the floating body and the centre of buoyancy
(B)Centre of gravity of the floating body and the metacentre
(C)MetacentremIdcentreofbuoyancy
(D)Original centre of buoyancy and new centre of buoyancy
3. Venturimeter is used to:
(A)Measure the velocity of a flowing liquid
(B)Measure the pressure of a flowing liquid
(C)Measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe
(D)Measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line
4. An error of in measuring head over the crest of the notch (H)results in an error of discharge measurement over a triangular notch of
5. An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to
(A)Avoid interruption in the flow
(B)Increase discharge
(C)Increase velocity
Maintain pressure difference
6. The most economical section of a rectangular channel is one which has hydraulic radius equal to
(A)Half the depth
(B)Half the breadth
(C)Twice the depth
(D)Twice the breadth
7. The point of contraflexure is a point where
(A)Shear force changes sign
(B)Bending moment changes sign
(C)Shear force is maximum
Bending moment is maximum
8. One poise is equal to
0.1N-s/m2
1N-s/m2
10N-s/m2
100N-s/m2
9. Whenever a plate is held immersed at some angle with the direction of flow of the liquid, the plate is subjected to some force. Component of this force, in direction of flow of the liquid, is known as
lift
Drag
Stagnation pressure
Bulk modulus
10. Select the correct statement:
(A)Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to elastic force
(B)Weber's number is the ratio of gravity force to surface tension force
(C)Weber's number is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force
(D)Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to surface tension force
11. Which of the following is not a sustaining slope
(A)Mild slope
(B)Critical slope
(C)Steep slope
(D)Adverse slope
12. When the depth of water in an open channel is greater than the critical depth, the flow is
(A)Critical flow
(B)Turbulent flow
(C)Tranquil flow
(D)Torrential flow
13. Two reservoirs are connected by a pipe line consisting of two pipes A and B of identical friction factor and length, and connected in series. If the diameter of pipe A is 20010 larger than that ofB, the ratio of the head loss in A to that in B is:
0.833
0.600
0.529
0.402
14. The presence of hydrogen sulphide in water causes
(A)Softening
(B)Alkalinity
(C)Acidity
(D)Bad taste
15. Biological action is used in:
(A)Screens
(B)Sedimentation tanks
(C)Trickling filters
(D)Trash rack
16. The friction fin a laminar pipe flow was found to be 0.04. The Reynolds number of the flow was
(A)2000
(B)1000
(C)800
(D)1600
17. In turbulent pipe flow, inside the laminar boundary layer the velocity distribution is
(A)Parabolic
(B)Linear
(C)Logarithmic
(D)Exponential
18. To measure a horizontal angle as accurately as possible:
(A)Method of repetition is used
(B)Method of reiteration is used
(C)Method of deflection angles is used
Method of double observations is used
19. A fluid of viscosity 0.7 NS/m2 and specific gravity 1.3 is flowing through a circular pipe of diameter 100mm. The maximum shear stress at the pipe wall is given as 196.2 the pressure gradient is
(A)7849N/m2perm
(B)-7848N/m2perm
(C)7643 N/m2 per m
(D)0N/m2perm
20. A circular cylinder 1m long and 0.05m diameter is submerged in flowing water of velocity 0.5 m/sec. The coefficient of total drag is 2.15 and coefficient of shear drag is 0.15, then the pressure drag exerted on the cylinder will be
(A)25N
(B)125N
(C)12.5N
(D)250N
21. Suitable method for forecasting population for a young and a rapidly developing city is:
Arithmetic mean method
Geometric mean method
(C)Graphical method
(D)Logarithmic method
22. Imhoffcone is used to determine:
(A)Settleable solids
(B)Suspended solids
(C)Dissolved solids
Organic matter
23. The total count of bacteria per cubic centimeter for domestic purposes varies from:
to 100
(B)200 to 250
(C)450 to 500
500 to 750
24. is a simply supported beam of length I and carries a central point load W. Beam is loaded with a uniformly distributed load such that the total load on the beam is W. The ratio of maximum deflections in both cases is
25. The percentage of domestic use of water amounts to of the total water requirement per capita per day:
26. Which of the following is used to express turbidity of water
silica scale
decibels
pH value
platinUmcobaitscale
27. The maximum permissible fluorine content in water for domestic supplies is
(A)0.015 ppm
(B)1.5 ppm
ppm
(D)1.50 ppb
28. Copper sulphate is used for controlling:
(A)BOD
(B)algae
(C)COD
29. In the process of screening, the angle of placing screens is:
to 12°
to 27°
to 60°
30. Time of detention in a plain sedimentation tank is
hours
hours
to 8 hours
minutes
31. The time of contact for chlorination should be at least
hours
minutes
hour
hours
32. To remove temporary hardness due to calcium bicarbonates used.
(A)boiling
(B)hot lime process
(C)lime-soda process
process
33. The other name of reflux valve is:
(A)Bib cock
valve
(C)Air lock valve
Check valve
34. The minimum size of fire hydrant is
(A)50cm
(B)100cm
(C)15cm
(D)200cm
35. Usually adopted pipe joint in pumping stations is
(A)in-out joint
(B)flanged joint
(C)lap joint
spigot joint
36. When the length of chain used in measuring distance is longer than the standard length, the error in measured distance will be
(A)Positive error
(B)Negative error
(C)Compensating error
Cumulative error
37. A line joining some fixed points on the main survey lines, is called a
(A)Check line
(B)tie line
(C)Base line
Shrada
38. Compensating errors that occur in chain survey are proportional to
(B)root L
root L
where L =Length of the chain
39. The geographical meridians through the various stations
(A)Are parallel
(B)Converge to the poles
(C)Converge from north pole to south pole
(D)Converge from equator to north pole
40. At the equator, the amount of dip is
deg
deg
deg
deg
41. When the magnetic bearing of the sun at noon is 185" the magnetic declination will be
east
west
north
south
42. pH value is a symbol for concentration.
(A)Hydride
(B)Hydrogen
(C)Hydroxil
(D)Sodium
43. The dose of coagulant in dry feeding, is controlled by:
(A)Scrapers
(B)Worm wheel
(C)Paddles
Aerator
44. The super-elevation in the case of pavements is
(A)Directly proportional to the square of velocity of vehicles
(B)Inversely proportional to the square of velocity of vehicles
(C)Directly proportional to the width of pavement
(D)Inversely proportional to the width of pavement
45. Contour lines cross ridge or valley lines at:
46. In route surveys, the most suitable method of contouring is
squares
radial1ines
cross-sections
By tacheometer
47. The method of plane tabling commonly used for establishing the instrument stations only, is
(A)Method of radiation
(B)Method of intersection
(C)Method of traversing
(D)Method of resection
48. A reverse curve consists of:
single curve of a circle connecting two straights
(B)Two arcs of different radii bending in the same direction
(C)Two arcs of equal radii bending in the same direction
(D)Two arcs of equal or different radii bending in the opposite direction
49. A simple circular curve is designated by the
(A)Radius of the curve
(B)Curvature of the curve
(C)Angle subtended at the centre by a chord of any length
(D)Angle subtended at the centre by a chord of particular length
50. A deflection angle is
(A)Less than 90°
(B)More than 90° but less than 180°
(C)Equal to the difference between the angle of intersection and 180°
(D)Equal to the difference between the angle of intersection and 360°
51. The shift of a curve is equal to:
L2/24R
where L=length of transition curve, Radius of the circular curve
52. The multiplying constant for the tacheometer is,
Focal length of the objective
i=Interval between the stadia lines or hairs, and
Horizontal distance from the optical centre to the vertical axis of the tacheometer
53. Of the following__is used for cleaning of rapid sand filters.
(A)Scraping the top layer of filter media
Backwashing
(C)Providing new sand layers
Vacuum cleaning
54. Bitumen grade 80/100 indicates that under the standard test condition, penetration value of bitumen would vary from:
(A)0.8mm to 1mm
(B)8mm to 10mm
(C)8cm to 10cm
(0)0.08mm to 0.1mm
55. The brightness of the imagc__the magnifying power.
directly proportional to
inversely proportional to
(C)Varies directly as the square of
(D)Varies inversely as the square of
56. The shape of STOP Sign according to IRC:67-2001 is:
(A)Circular
(B)Triangular
(C)Octogonal
(D)Rectangular
57. Bleaching powder is:
(A)Slaked lime
(B)Chloride of lime
(C)Hypo-chloride of lime
(D)Hypo-chlorite of lime
58. Reflection cracking is observed in
(A)Flexible pavement
(B)Rigid pavement
(C)Bituminous overlay over cement concrete suffice
(D)Rigid overlay over flexible pavement
59. Assuming the safe stopping sight distance to be 80m on a flat highway section and with a set back distance of 10m, the radius of negotiable horizontal curve is
(A)80m
(B)70m
(C)160m
(D)800m
60. the Indian Roads Congress was set up in:
(A)1930
(B)1934
(C)1948
(D)1956
61. If a body is subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses, of equal intensity,the ratio of direct stress to the corresponding volumetric strain is known as
(A)Young's modulus
(B)Modulus of rigidity
(C)Bulk modulus
(D)Poisson's ratio
62. Find the incorrect statement of the following:
force acting in the opposite direction to the motion of the body is called force of friction
(B)The ratio of the limiting friction to the normal reaction is called coefficient of friction
machine whose efficiency is 100% is known as an ideal machine
(D)The velocity ratio of a machine is the ratio of load lifted to the effort applied
63. When a rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2m and if there is no surrounding friction,on rebounding the ball will rise to a height of:
64. Discharge is maximum in a broad-crested weir,if the head of water on the downstream side of weir is ........ the head of water on the upstream side of weir:
(A)Equal to
(B)One-third
(C)Two-third
(D)Three-fourth
65. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of:
(A)Stress,strain and pressure
Stress,force and modulus of rigidity
(C)Strain,force and pressure
Stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity
66. The strain energy stored in a spring, when subjected to maximum load, without allowing permanent distortion is
(A)Impact energy
(8)Proof resilience
(C)Proof stress
Modulus of resilience
67. When a load on the tTcc end of a cantilever beam is increased, failure will occur
the free end
the fixed end
the middle of the beam
At a distance 2/3 of the span from free end
68. If the assembly in which a rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and is tightened by rigid washers is subjected to a compressive load, then:
(A)Rod is under compression
(B)Tube is under compression
(C)Both rod and tube are under compression
(D)Tube is under tension and rod is under compression
69. The Young's modulus a material is 125GPa and Poissons ratio is 0.25. The modulus of rigidity of the material is:
(A)30GPa
(B)50GPa
(C)80GPa
(D)100GPa
70. Two pipes are said to be equivalent, if:
(A)Length of both the pipes is same
(B)Diameter of both the pipes is same
(C)Loss of head and discharge of both the pipes are same
(D)Loss of head and velocity of flow in both the pipes are same
71. Shape of bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam loaded in its centre is
right angled triangle
isoscles triangle
trapezium
A rectangle
72. It is found that a body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of600MPa on a plane at right angles to the former and shear stress of 400 MPa on these planes, The maximum normal stress will be
(A)400 MPa
(B)500 MPa
(C)900 MPa
(D)1400 MPa
73. If a load on the free end of a cantilever beam is increased,failure occurs:
the free end
the fixed end
the middle of the beam
At a distance 2/3 of span from free end
74. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at
(A)Smaller end
(B)Larger end
(C)Middle
(D)Anywhere
75. When a circular shaft is subjected to torsion, the shear stress at the centre is:
(A)Zero
(B)Minimum
(C)Maximum
(D)Infinity
76. and are two closely coiled helical springs and are equal in all respects but the diameter of wireofspring'M' is double that of spring The stiffness of spring will be that of spring'M'.
(A)One-sixteenth
(B)One-eighth
(C)One-fourth
One-half
77. Find the correct statement:
(A)The size of hole drilled in riveting plates is less than the actual size of rivet
(B)The centre to centre distance between two consecutive rivetS in a row is called margin
(C)Rivets are generally specified by its shank diameter
(D)Tearing of plates can be avoided by taking the pitch of rivets equal to 1.5 times the diameter of rivet hole
78. Strain energy is defined as the
(A)Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
(B)Energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of a specimen
(C)Maximum energy which can be stored in a body
(D)Proof resilience per unit volume of a material
79. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column with one end fixed and the other end hinged is(with usual notation)
<img src='./qimages/4537-79.jpg'>
80. For a column with maximum equivalent length,it has:
(A)Both ends hinged
(B)Both ends fixed
(C)One end fixed and the other end hinged
One end fixed and the other end free
81. The modular ratio is the ratio of:
(A)Young's modulus of steel to the Young's modulus of concrete
(B)Young's modulus of concrete to the Young's modulus of steel
(C)Load carried by mild steel to the load carried by tor steel
(D)Load carried by concrete to the load carried by steel
82. In a beam section,if the steel reinforcement is of such a magnitude that the permissible stresses in concrete and steel are developed simultaneously, the section is known as
(A)balanced section
(B)concrete balanced section
(C)steel balanced section
optimal section
83. For a singly over reinforced rectangular concrete section:
(A)The lever arm will be less than that for a balanced section
(B)The maximum stress developed by steel will be equal to the allowable stress in steel
(C)The maximum stress developed by concrete will be equal to allowable stress in concrete
(D)The minimum stress developed by concrete will be equal to allowable stress in concrete
84. The effective depth of a singly reinforced rectangular beam is 300mm. The section is over reinforced and the neutral axis is 120mm below the top. If the maximum stress attained by concrete is 5N/mm2 and the modular ratio is 18, then the stress developed in the steel will be:
(A)130N/mm2
(B)135 N/mm2
(C)160N/mm2
(D)180N/mm2
85. When there is a sudden increase or decrease in shear force diagram between any two points, it indicates that there is a
(A)Point load at the two points
loading between the two points
(C)Uniformly distributed load between the two points
(D)Uniformly varying load between the two points .
86. The maximum permissible shear stress given in IS:456-1978 is based on:
(A)Diagonal tension failure
(B)Diagonal compression failure
(C)Flexural tension failure
Uniaxial compression
87. In a reinforced concrete beam, the shear stress distribution above the neutral axis follows
(A)Straight line
(B)Circular curve
(C)Parabolic curve
(D)Logarithmic
88. The measurement of anchorage lengths of inclined bars,used to act as shear reinforcement is taken in
(A)Tension zone from the end of the sloping portion of the bar
(B)Compression zone from bottom of the beam
(C)Tension zone from the mid-depth of the beam
(D)Compression zone from the end of the sloping Portion of the bar
89. Of the following, which represents a proper sequence?
(A)Proportional limit, elastic limit, yielding, failure
(B)Elastic limit, proportional limit, yielding, failure
(C)Yielding,proportional limit,elastic limit,failure
(D)Elastic limit, yielding, proportional limit, failure
90. The effective depth ofaT-beam is the distance between the:
Centre of the flange and the top of the tensile reinforcement
Top of the flange and the centre of the tensile reinforcement
Bottom of the flange and the centre of the tensile reinforcement
Centre of the flange and the bottom of the tensile reinforcement
91. In designing reinforced concrete piles as a column, it is considered as
(A)Fixed at both ends
(B)Hinged at both ends
(C)Fixed at one end and hinged at the other end
(D)Force at both ends
92. If the load,warping and frictional stresses in a cement concrete slab are 210N/mm2,290N/mm2, and 10N/mm2 respectively, the critical combination of stresses during summer midday is
(A)290N/mm2
(B)390N/mm2
(C)490N/mm2
(D)590N/mm2
93. Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete is
(A)M15
(B)M20
(C)M10
(D)M25
94. When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by
(A)Increasing the depth
(B)Using high strength steel
(C)Providing shear reinforcement
Using larger number of thin bars
95. Plastic section modulus for a solid circular section of diameter is:
96. Bentonite clay contains predominantly the clay mineral:
(A)Montmorillonite
(B)Kaolinite
(C)HalIoysite
(D)illite
97. Match list I with II and select the correct answer:
List-I (Type of soil) List-II (Mode of transpiration and deposition)
A. Lacustrine soils 1. Transportation by wind
B. Alluvial soils 2. Transportation by running water
C. Aeolian soils 3. Deposited at the bottom of lakes
D. Marine soils 4. Deposited in sea water
Answer A B C D
1 2 3 4
3 2 1 4
3 2 4 1
1 3 2 4
98. A sample of saturated sand has a dry unit weight of 18kN/cum and a specific gravity of 2.7. if unit weight of water is 10kN/cum, the void ratio of the soil sample will be
(A)0.5
(B)0.6
(C)0.4
(0)0.9
99. Consider the following statements
A well-graded sand should have
1. Uniformity coefficient greater than6
2. Coefficient of curvature between 1 and 3
3. Effective size greater than 1mm Of these statements
2 and 3 are correct
and 2 are correct
and 3 are correct
(D)1and 3 are correct
100. The moisture content of a clayey soil is gradually decreased from a large value.The correct sequence of the occurrence of the following limits is
1. Shrinkage limit
2. Plastic limit
3. Liquid limit
Select the correct answer:
101. A soil has a liquid limit of40% and plasticity index of 20%. the plastic limit of the soil will be
60%
102. A flow net is drawn for a weir.The total head loss is 6m,number of potential drops is 10 and the length of the flow path for the last square is 1m.the exit gradient is
(A)0.6
(B)0.7
(C)1.0
(D)1.6
103. A sand deposit has a porosity of 0.375 and a specific gravity of 2.6. The critical hydraulic gradient for the sand deposit is
(A)2.975
(B)2.225
(D)0.75
104. A clay layer 5m thick in field takes 300 days to attain 50% consolidation with condition of double drainage. If the same clay layer is underlaying by hard rock,then the time taken to attain 50% consolidation will be
(A)300days
(B)600days
(C)900days
(D)1200 days
105. The bearing capacity of a rectangular footing of plan dimensions 1.5mx3m resting on the surface of a sand deposit was estimated as 600 kN/m2 when the water table is far below the base of the footing. The bearing capacities in kN/m2 when the water level rises to depths of 3m, 1.5m and 0.5m below the footing are
600, 400
(B)600,450,350
500, 250
400, 250
106. A clay deposit suffers a total settlement of 5cm with one way drainage.With two-way drainage, the total settlement will be
(A)10cm
(B)2.5cm
(C)20cm
(D)5cm
107. Varved clay is of:
(A)Glacial origin
(B)Acolin origin
(C)Biological origin
(D)Pillurial origin
108. Density index is used in relation to
(A)Fine grained soils only
(B)Coarse grained soils only
(C)Any soil
(D)Organic soils only
109. The permeability of partially saturated soil in laboratory can be determined using:
(A)Falling head test
(B)Constant head test
(C)Packer's test
(D)Horizontal capillary test
110. Critical hydraulic gradient is given by:
(A)Sp.gr only
(B)Unit weight only
(C)Porosity, Sp.gr and Unit weight
(D)Sine of angle of repose
Ill. A liquid flow is said to be uniform when:
(A)The liquid particles at all sections have the same velocities
(B)The liquid particles at different sections have different velocities
(C)The quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant
(D)Each liquid particle has a definite path
112. A soil is compacted at a moisture content of 12% with 10% air voids. The dry unit weight of soil, (taking G as 2.65 and unit weight of water as 10 kN/cum) is:
(A)20.11 kN/m3
(B)19.58 kN/m3
(C)18.10kN/m3 4
(D)17.60kN/m3
113. A 8m thick clay layer is underlain by coarse sand containing artesian water under a Piezometer head of 10m. The maximum depth of excavation that can be made in the deposit without bottom being subjected to flow out, taking unit weight of clay=20kN/m3 is:
0m
3m
(C) 18m
13m
114. The net ultimate bearing capacity of a purely cohesive soil:
Depends on width of footing and is independent of depth of footing
Depends on depth of footing and is independent of width of footing
Depends on both width and depth of footing
Independent of both width and depth of footing
115. Contact pressure beneath a rigid footing resting on a cohesive soil is:
Less at edges compared to middle
More at edges compared to middle
(C)Uniform throughout
Cannot be interpreted
116. When a retaining wall moves away from the backfill, the pressure exerted on the wall is termed as
(A)Passive earth pressure
(B)Swelling pressure
(C)Pore pressure
(D)Active earth pressure
117. Neutral axis of the cross-section of a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is:
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinity
118. Critical gradient of the seeping water through a permeable soil is
(A)directly proportional to square of void ratio
(B)increases with decrease in void ratio
(C)inversely proportional to shape of the soil particles
(D)decreases with increase in specific gravity of soil
119. Expulsion rate of pore fluid from the soil is directly dependent on the the soil:
(A)structure
(B)texture
(C)permeability
(D)porosity
120. A beam of uniform strength has
(A)Same cross-section throughout the beam
(B)Same bending stress at every section
(C)Same bending moment at every section
(D)Same shear stress at every section
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