Exam Details
Subject | ||
Paper | ||
Exam / Course | ||
Department | food and drugs administration | |
Organization | maharashtra public service commission | |
Position | food safety officer | |
Exam Date | 27, March, 2016 | |
City, State | maharashtra, |
Question Paper
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1. State Bank of India (SBIllaunched and inaugurated India's first start-up focussed bank branch called as
SBI Startup
SEI InCube
SEI Progressive
SEI Venture
2. For the first time since 1950, a foreign army contingent marched down the Rajpath during the Republic Day parade on 26th January, 2016. To which country did this army troop belong?
China
France
Germany
Denmark
3. Odisha Government announced a new scheme 'Anwesha'. According to this scheme
SC and ST women would be enrolled into various employment schemes of the State.
SC and ST elderly people would be given pension.
SC and ST children would annually be enrolled into Standard I in leading private schools in urban areas ofthe State.
SC and ST youth would annually be enrolled into leading private companies in urban areas ofthe State.
4. Consider the following statements regarding Shrikant Bahulkar
a.
He is the recipient ofthe Bhasha Samman Award ofSahitya Akademi.
b.
He is the Honorary Secretary and Scholar at Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute.
c.
He has made valuable contribution in the area ofDogri literature.
Which ofthe statements given above are correct?
aandb
band c
a and c
a, b andc 5. Consider the following statements regarding Serena Williams:
a.
She is an American professional tennis player who is ranked No. 01 in women's singles tennis.
b.
She became the world No. 01 for the first time on July 2002.
c.
She has won four Olympic gold medals.
d.
In December 2015, she was named Sportperson of the Year by the Sports Illustrated magazine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
aandb
band c
candd
andd
6. Consider the following statements:
a.
Three Urban Development Schemes, viz., AMRUT, Smart Cities Mission and Housing for All (Urban) have been launched.
b.
AMRUT Scheme aims to develop civic infrastructure in 500 cities and towns having population of one lakh and above.
c.
Smart Cities Mission has an aim to build 100 smart cities; each selected city would get Central assistance of 100 crore per year for five years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct
Only a
aandb
aandc
All the above
7. Which one ofthe following statements about BRAHMOS is not correct
It is a short range supersonic cruise missile.
It is a joint venture between India and France.
It can be launched from ships, aircraft or land.
It has a maximum range of290 km.
Ciillilttldl unirr I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
8. Recently, which of the following has been declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court ofIndia
National Judicial Appointments Commission
National Green Tribunal
NITI Aayog
Collegium System
9. Which one of the following statements is not correct
Vidya Devi Bhandari was elected as Nepal's first woman President by the Parliament.
54-year-old Bhandari secured 327 votes against 214 votes of her rival Kul Bahadur Gurung.
She was the President of CPN-UML (Co=unist Party of Nepal-Unified Marxist Leninist).
She succeeded incumbent Ram Baran Yadav who was elected as the country's first President in 2008.
10. Consider the following statements:
a.
The United Nations reached an agreement on a new 'Sustainable Development Agenda'.
b.
This agenda is for the next 25 years.
c.
The draft agreement outlines 17 goals with 169 specific targets.
d.
The agreement calls for eradicating poverty and hunger, achieving gender equality and taking urgent action to combat climate change.
Which ofthe statements given above is/are false?
a
b
candd
None of the above
7 6 5 4
L07 6 A
11. Select the minimum number of colours that are sufficient for colouring the areas of the accompanying image such that there would not be same colour on the two sides of any curve.
12. A statement is given and a and b are assumptions related to it. Select the option that is true with respect to the given statements.
The king has decided to levy tax on the amount payable for funding drought relief programmes.
a.
The king does not have sufficient money to fund drought reliefprogrammes.
b.
The amount collected by way of surcharge may be adequate to fund these drought reliefprogrammes.
Only a implies
Both a and b imply
Only b implies
Neither a nor b implies
13. Which letter replaces the question mark?
N 250 R
T 497 Y
Y 396 P
K 127 L
G 176
"IJ1TT /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
14. Which alphabet will replace the question mark?
Q
F
V
H
15. Which number does not belong to the group? W M n 38
46 83 73 38
16. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is
3:2 1:3
3:4 4:3
17. Which figure will replace the question mark?
None ofthese
18. How many single-coloured triangles are present in the accompanying diagram?
36
40
56
60
19. Select the option in which frame a is embedded.
20. Ani and Kuni decided to meet at a museum that is towards south of their housing society. Ani started at 12:00 noon at the speed of 60 kph. Kuni starts her journey after 15 minutes with the speed of 65 kph. Select the time at which they will meet.
3:00pm
3:10 pm
3:15 pm
3:20 pm
21. Which one of the following statements about 'Secular State' is not correct?
The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion.
The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code.
All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion.
All persons shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions oftheir choice.
U!PTT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
22. Match the following:
a. Right to Constitutional Remedies I. Article 24
b. Abolition of untouchability II. Article 21
c. Protection of life and personal liberty III. Article 17
d. Prohibition of employment of children in factories IV. Article 32
a b c d
I II III IV
II I III IV
III IV I II
IV III II I
23. Which ofthe following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a.
Prohibition oftraffic in human beings and forced labour.
b.
Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a only
b only
Both a and b
Neither a nor b
24. The President of India is elected by an Electoral College consisting of
Members of Parliament and State Legislature
Elected members of Parliament and elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies
Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
None of the above
25. What is correct about State Legislative Council
a. Its tenure is 6 years.
b. The tenure of its members is 6 years.
c. members are elected by local institutions.
d. members are elected by Legislative Assembly. 6
e. 12 members are nominated by the Governor.
c and d
d and e
a and b
b only
26. GIS stands for
Geographical Information System
Graphical Information System
Graphic Investigation System
Geographical Investigation System
27. In IPv6, the in the base header restricts the life time of a datagram.
verSIOn
next-header
hop limit
payload length
28. "Punarjani", one ofthe media lab Asia projects is alan
Ontology building and management tool
Web portal for empowering the disabled
Assessment tool for mentally retarded children
None ofthe above
A 11 L07
29. XML stands for
Extensible Markup Language Extra Markup Language Extensible Markup Link Extra Markup Link
30. According to IT Act, 2000, Clause 65, punishment for tampering with computer source documents under observation is
imprisonment up to 3 years, or a fine which may be extended up to 2 lakh rupees, or both.
Imprisonment up to 2 years, or a fine which may be extended up to 3 lakh rupees, or both.
imprisonment up to 1 year, or a fine which may be extended up to 2 lakh rupees, or both.
imprisonment up to 2 years, or a fine which may be extended up to one lakh rupees, or both.
31. What is not included in 'Information' under the RTI Act, 2005
Opinion
Data Material
File Noting
Contracts
32. Consider the following statements:
a.
State Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 7 years and shall be eligible for reappointment.
b.
State Chieflnformation Commissioner shall hold office till he attains the age of 70 (seventy) years.
Both a and b are correct
Both a and b are wrong
a is correct b is wrong
b is correct a is wrong
33. A complaint is liable to be received by the State/Central Information Commission from a person
a.
who has been refused the information that was requested.
b.
who has not submitted an information request to PIO.
c.
who thinks that the fees charged are unreasonable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
b only
a and b only
a and conly
band c
34. Where the Central or State Information Commission is of the opinion that the PIO has given incorrect, incomplete or misleading information knowingly, then it shall impose a penalty the total amount ofwhich shall not exceed
"30,000 (thirty thousand)
"50,000 (fifty thousand)
"2,50,000 lacs fifty thousand)
25,000 (twenty-five thousand)
35. From amongst the following which statement(s) is/are correct about the Right to Information Act
a.
This Act does not create any offence on the part of citizens.
b.
It rather created the wilful failure on the part of the Public Information Officer a punishable offence.
Only a
Only b
Both a and b
Neither a nor b
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A 13 L07
36. To whom does the State Human Rights Commission submit an annual report Governor of the State President ofJndia State Legislature State Government
37. Which ofthe following is not a political Right?
Right to vote Right to criticize the Government
Right to own property Right to file petition
38. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, the person can be punished for enforcing social disabilities on the ground of untouchability with regard to
a.
access to any shop, public restaurant, hotel or place of entertainment.
b.
the practising of any profession or carrying on of any occupation, trade or business or employment in any job.
c.
the use or access to any private conveyance.
d.
the use ofjewellery and finery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
Onlya andb
Only band d
Only band c
Only b
39. According to the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, a child is a person who has not completed
16 years of age 18 years of age
14 years of age 21 years of age
40. Which kind of property of certain persons can be ordered to be forfeited by special courts under S.C. and S.T. <Protection of Atrocities) Act, 1989
Any movable or immovable property belonging to that person.
Any movable or immovable property or both belonging to the family of that person.
Any movable or immovable property or both belonging to that person which has been used for the commission ofthat offence.
Any movable property belonging to that person which has been used for the commission of that offence.
L07 41. 14 The correct IUPAC name for the given structure is A
CHO
OH
3-hydroxy-2-methylpent-5-al-ene 3-hydroxy-4-methylpent-4-en-1-al 3-hydroxy-4-methylpent-1-al-4-ene 3-hydroxy-2-methylpent-1-en-5-al
42. Which of the following is the best method for preparation of common detergent sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate
0
C12H24 NaOH
(Al Oleum Anhy. AlCI3, HCI
@et
C12H26
Oleum NaOH
D
NaOH
Oleum)
CI
NOH C12H26
Oleum) Anhy. AlCI3, HCI
iWIT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
48. In the periodic table, to which period and group, does the non-metallic element which exists in liquid state at room temperature belong?
2nd period -1st group
4th period -17th group
2nd period -16th group
5th period group
44. The correct order ofincreasing stability ofcarboniwn ion is
tertiary> secondary> primary
primary> secondary> tertiary
secondary> tertiary> primary
primary> tertiary> secondary
45. Match the columns:
Group] Group II
a. Surfactants 1. Alkylaryl sulphonates
b. Dye intermediates II. Benzene
c. Lacquers ill. Cellulose acetate
d. Solvents IV. Ethyl acetate
V. Anthracene
a b c d
III V III,IV II, IV
I II,V III II, IV
I IV III,IV II, IV
III V III II, IV
"lIi'l'llllT VWIT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.
46. A compound C7HSO is insoluble in water, dil HCI and aqueous NaHC03 but dissolves in dil NaOH. When X is treated with bromine water, it is converted rapidly into a compound offormula C7H50Br3' The structure ofX is
OH OH
"I
cO OCH3
CH3
OH
6H
3
" CH3
47. Three flasks Band C respectively contain 0·1 m and 0·1 N aqueous HCI solutions, prepared at 40°C. Considering the density of water 1 g1cm3 at which ofthe following statements is/are correct?
a.
Concentration of all three solutions is exactly the same.
b.
Concentration of HCL in flask A and flask C is exactly the same.
c.
Concentration of HCL in flask B is lesser than concentration of HCL in flasks A andC.
d.
No two flasks have HCI of exactly the same concentration.
a only
Both b and c
conly
d only
iIFTT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 17 L07
48. What is the major product in the following reaction?
CH3 -CH2 CH2 Br2CH3 130°C hv
CH3 CH2 CH -CH2Br I Br
CH3 CH2 CH -Br I CH3
CH3 I CH3 -Br I CH3
49. The correct IUPAC name for the following compound is
Fy--y0H
2-chloro-5-fluoro-1-hydroxybenzene
1-hYdroxy-2-chloro-5-fluorobenzene
1-fluoro-3-hydroxy-4-chlorobenzene
2-chloro-5-fluorophenol
50. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their UV absorption maxima:
a.
Ethylene b. Naphthalene
c.
Anthracene d. 3-Butadiene
Choose the correct order.
51. The most susceptible to oxidation in a protein molecule are the SH groups of which amino acid?
Cysteine Valine
Threonine Glycine
52. The most susceptible mineral lost during cooking of food on the basis of presence as free ions is
Calcium Iron
Potassium None of the above
53. The most common adulterant used in coffee is
Chicory Tamarind
Date seed powder All ofthe above
54. Parabens, as a group of microbial preservatives, are ineffective especially against one of the following microorganisms:
Gram-negative bacteria Gram-positive bacteria
Molds Yeasts
55. Which of the prepackaging treatments is recommended for potatoes, sweet potatoes, onions and garlic prior to storage or marketing?
Precooling Curing
Waxing Degreening
56. A food product process condition coined by contamination, mixing and processing under uncontrolled conditions, and rendering it unfit for consumption is referred as
Fortification Adulteration
Enrichment None of the above
57. An article offood shall be deemed to be non-adulterated if
any natural constituent is removed therefrom.
any artificial colour is added thereto more than pennissible limits.
it contains any prohibited preservative.
two or more articles offood (primary) are mixed together.
Vi1'TT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 19 L07
58. V,'hich of the following are not conjugated proteins? Glycoproteins Scleroproteins Phosphoproteins Haemoglobins
59. Among the biological hazards, which of the bacteria in food causes infection and not intoxication?
Escherichia coli Clostridium botulinum
Staphylococcus aureus Clostridium perfringens
60. Which one of the following acids is used to detect vanaspati adulteration in pure ghee?
Concentrated sulphuric acid
Dilute sulphuric acid
Concentrated hydrochloric acid
Dilute hydrochloric acid
61. Fruits and vegetables based soups and sauces are categorized as
low acid foods medium acid foods
acid foods high acid foods
62, The post harvest transportation and storage of banana for distant marketing with minimum chilling injury is carried out at what temperatures?
11-13'C 14-17'C
63. The difference in UHT pasteurized milk and extended shelf life treated pasteurized milk is of
Temperature ofheating Holding time
Microbial filtration None ofthe above
64. Which one of the following is not a physical hurdle used in preservation of foods?
Electromagnetic energy Modified atmospheric storage
Ultrasonication Smoking
65. The critical electric field strength in Pulsed Electric Field processing for cell wall rupture ofE. coli should be
1-2kVlcm 10-14 kV/cm
15 -20 kVlcm .24-28 kV/cm
66. In the risk analysis of food additives, the JECFA secretariat should normally give first priority to compounds
that have been assigned a temporary ADI or equivalent.
food additives or groups of additives that have previously beeen evaluated and for which an ADI Or equivalent has been assigned.
food additives that have not been previously evaluated.
None of the above.
67. India has been a member of the Codex A1imentarius Commission since the year
1964 1974 1984 1994
68. The core function of the National Codex Committee ofIndia is
maximizing the opportunities for development of industry and expansion of international trade.
co-operation with joint FAOIWHO food standard programme.
to study codex documents.
to co-operate with other local/regional or foreign organizations dealing with activities relating to food standardization.
69. What is the function of Shadow Committee of NCC-India
To advise the NCCPINCC on the implications of various food standardization, food quality and safety issues
To follow the codex agenda of the relevant subsidiary body and provide inputs to the government to assist in ensuring quality and safety of food to the consumer
Both and
None of the above
lIiWllT c6Jill'l1ldl U!l1IT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 21 L07
70. CAC standards notified safe moisture content of quality grape raisins is
13% 15%
18% 20%
71. The genetically modified food crops available in the international market are designed to have the
Resistance to insect damage
Resistance to viral damage
Tolerance to certain herbicides
All ofthe above
72. Organic fruit ripening is authenticated by the stimulatory action of one of the following gaseous hormones:
Ethylene Nitrogen
Acetylene None of the above
73. The US Food and Drug Administration though insists that GM foods are safe, but studies have shown that these are linked with
Increased food allergens
Increased gastrointestinal problems
Both and
None of the above
74. The Ministry of Consumer Affairs made it mandatory to label packaged food from one of the following cut-off date as
1 January, 2013
26 January, 2013
1 February, 2013
15 February, 2013 'ffi'ITT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO
l07 22 A
75.· The irradiation dose recommended for sprout inhibition in bulbs and tubers is Less than 1 kGy 1-10 kGy More than 10 kGy None of the above
76. Which one of the following processes records uniform heating to stabilize texture of food products? Contact freeze drying Accelerated freeze drying Radiant freeze drying All ofthe above
77. Which one is the poorest method of food freezing? Freezing in cold air blast
Freezing with liquid air, N2 or CO2
Freezing in still air
Freezing by direct immersion offood in a cooling medium
78. Which one of the following functional ingredients improves gastrointestinal health and also calcium absorption
Fructo-oligosaccharides
Daidzein
Sterols
PUFA
79. Which one of the following foods is not the functional food?
Dietary fiber
Probiotics
Omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids
Pills or capsules or sachets of foods as a part of everyday diet
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A 23 L07
80. Which one of the following nanotechnology applications justifies potential in food corporate sector? Nanoencapsulation Nanocomposites and food packaging Nanosensors and nanosieves All ofthe above the bubbling
81. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India shall consist of a chairperson and expert members up to
15
20
22
24
82. Which one of the following Sections of FSSA is empowered to issue prohibition order?
32
33
34
35
83. Which one is not the function of Commissioner of Food Safety of the State?
To ensure an efficient and uniform implementation of standards of food safety
To sanction prosecution for offences punishable with imprisonment
To prohibit sale of any article of food for one year
To appoint Food Safety Officer
84. Which one of the following ex-officio members is designated as Chairman of Central Committee for Food Standards?
The Director General, Health Services, Ministry of Health
The Director General, ICAR, New Delhi
The Director, Central Food Laboratory
None of the above
85. The penalty for possessing an adulterant which is injurious to health ofconsumers is
n Lakh
2 Lakh
5 Lakh
no Lakh
86. The microbial hazard caused by Listeria monocytogenes is categorized as
Severe hazard
Moderate hazard
Low hazard
None of the above
87. A step at which control can be applied and is essential to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level is called as
Control measure
Corrective action
Critical Control Point
Critical limit
88. Which one of the following is not a constituent part ofthe cleaning programme?
Specifying areas, items of equipments and utensils to be cleaned
Specifying method and frequency of cleaning
Specifying monitoring arrangements
Removing gross debris from equipments
89. Which one is not the food safety HACCP based principle standard operating procedure developed by National Food Service Management Institute in conjunction with USDA and FDA?
Cleaning and sanitizing of food contact surfaces
Controlling of time and temperature during food preparation
Maintenance of personal hygiene
Keeping of record
I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 25 L07
90. Which one of the International Organization for systems is adopted by BIS as such? Standardization driven
ISIISO 22000 2005
BISIISO 22000 2005
ISIIISO 22000 2005
None of the above
91. Which clause of ISO 9001 2000 covers the requirements of the organization to actually set up a quality management system, and broadly sets out the activities associated with this?
Clause 4.1
Clause 4.2
Clause 5.1
Clause 5.2
92. Which one of the effective record keeping documentation systems compensates with HACCP?
Records of hazards and their control methods
Records of monitoring of safety requirements
Records of action taken to correct potential problems
All of the above
93. What does ISO 22000 bring to the HACCP method?
Prerequisite programmes and Operational prerequisite programmes
Critical Control Points
Validation
All ofthe above
94. Which one of the following processes reduces contaminating bacterial load to human health safety level?
Cleaning
Disinfection
Sterilization
Sanitization
95. The prerequisite programmes in the food industry include
Good Manufacturing Practices
Good Hygienic Practices
Both and
None of the above
96. The State Consumer Protection Councils established as per the Consumer Protection Act shall meet as and when necessary but not less than meetings shall be held every year.
1
2
3
4
97. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted during the year
1976
1986
1996
2006
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98. Match the following:
a. Food Additives Sectional Committee I. FAD-15
b. c. d. Fish and Fisheries Products Sectional Committee Food Hygiene, Safety Management and other Systems Sectional Committee Slaughter House and Meat Industry Sectional Committee II. III. IV. FAD -18 FAD-8 FAD -12
a b c d
IV I II III
III IV I II
II I I II III IV IV III
99. The Central Government has powers under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 to control
Production of food
Supply offood
Distribution offood
All ofthe above
100. The Section 3 of ECA, 1955 empowers the Government to
Control production, supply, distribution, trade and commerce of essential commodities.
Control distribution, trade and commerce of essential food commodities only.
Control production and supply of non-food essential commodities.
None ofthe above
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1. State Bank of India (SBIllaunched and inaugurated India's first start-up focussed bank branch called as
SBI Startup
SEI InCube
SEI Progressive
SEI Venture
2. For the first time since 1950, a foreign army contingent marched down the Rajpath during the Republic Day parade on 26th January, 2016. To which country did this army troop belong?
China
France
Germany
Denmark
3. Odisha Government announced a new scheme 'Anwesha'. According to this scheme
SC and ST women would be enrolled into various employment schemes of the State.
SC and ST elderly people would be given pension.
SC and ST children would annually be enrolled into Standard I in leading private schools in urban areas ofthe State.
SC and ST youth would annually be enrolled into leading private companies in urban areas ofthe State.
4. Consider the following statements regarding Shrikant Bahulkar
a.
He is the recipient ofthe Bhasha Samman Award ofSahitya Akademi.
b.
He is the Honorary Secretary and Scholar at Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute.
c.
He has made valuable contribution in the area ofDogri literature.
Which ofthe statements given above are correct?
aandb
band c
a and c
a, b andc 5. Consider the following statements regarding Serena Williams:
a.
She is an American professional tennis player who is ranked No. 01 in women's singles tennis.
b.
She became the world No. 01 for the first time on July 2002.
c.
She has won four Olympic gold medals.
d.
In December 2015, she was named Sportperson of the Year by the Sports Illustrated magazine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
aandb
band c
candd
andd
6. Consider the following statements:
a.
Three Urban Development Schemes, viz., AMRUT, Smart Cities Mission and Housing for All (Urban) have been launched.
b.
AMRUT Scheme aims to develop civic infrastructure in 500 cities and towns having population of one lakh and above.
c.
Smart Cities Mission has an aim to build 100 smart cities; each selected city would get Central assistance of 100 crore per year for five years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct
Only a
aandb
aandc
All the above
7. Which one ofthe following statements about BRAHMOS is not correct
It is a short range supersonic cruise missile.
It is a joint venture between India and France.
It can be launched from ships, aircraft or land.
It has a maximum range of290 km.
Ciillilttldl unirr I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
8. Recently, which of the following has been declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court ofIndia
National Judicial Appointments Commission
National Green Tribunal
NITI Aayog
Collegium System
9. Which one of the following statements is not correct
Vidya Devi Bhandari was elected as Nepal's first woman President by the Parliament.
54-year-old Bhandari secured 327 votes against 214 votes of her rival Kul Bahadur Gurung.
She was the President of CPN-UML (Co=unist Party of Nepal-Unified Marxist Leninist).
She succeeded incumbent Ram Baran Yadav who was elected as the country's first President in 2008.
10. Consider the following statements:
a.
The United Nations reached an agreement on a new 'Sustainable Development Agenda'.
b.
This agenda is for the next 25 years.
c.
The draft agreement outlines 17 goals with 169 specific targets.
d.
The agreement calls for eradicating poverty and hunger, achieving gender equality and taking urgent action to combat climate change.
Which ofthe statements given above is/are false?
a
b
candd
None of the above
7 6 5 4
L07 6 A
11. Select the minimum number of colours that are sufficient for colouring the areas of the accompanying image such that there would not be same colour on the two sides of any curve.
12. A statement is given and a and b are assumptions related to it. Select the option that is true with respect to the given statements.
The king has decided to levy tax on the amount payable for funding drought relief programmes.
a.
The king does not have sufficient money to fund drought reliefprogrammes.
b.
The amount collected by way of surcharge may be adequate to fund these drought reliefprogrammes.
Only a implies
Both a and b imply
Only b implies
Neither a nor b implies
13. Which letter replaces the question mark?
N 250 R
T 497 Y
Y 396 P
K 127 L
G 176
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14. Which alphabet will replace the question mark?
Q
F
V
H
15. Which number does not belong to the group? W M n 38
46 83 73 38
16. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is
3:2 1:3
3:4 4:3
17. Which figure will replace the question mark?
None ofthese
18. How many single-coloured triangles are present in the accompanying diagram?
36
40
56
60
19. Select the option in which frame a is embedded.
20. Ani and Kuni decided to meet at a museum that is towards south of their housing society. Ani started at 12:00 noon at the speed of 60 kph. Kuni starts her journey after 15 minutes with the speed of 65 kph. Select the time at which they will meet.
3:00pm
3:10 pm
3:15 pm
3:20 pm
21. Which one of the following statements about 'Secular State' is not correct?
The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion.
The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code.
All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion.
All persons shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions oftheir choice.
U!PTT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
22. Match the following:
a. Right to Constitutional Remedies I. Article 24
b. Abolition of untouchability II. Article 21
c. Protection of life and personal liberty III. Article 17
d. Prohibition of employment of children in factories IV. Article 32
a b c d
I II III IV
II I III IV
III IV I II
IV III II I
23. Which ofthe following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a.
Prohibition oftraffic in human beings and forced labour.
b.
Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a only
b only
Both a and b
Neither a nor b
24. The President of India is elected by an Electoral College consisting of
Members of Parliament and State Legislature
Elected members of Parliament and elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies
Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
None of the above
25. What is correct about State Legislative Council
a. Its tenure is 6 years.
b. The tenure of its members is 6 years.
c. members are elected by local institutions.
d. members are elected by Legislative Assembly. 6
e. 12 members are nominated by the Governor.
c and d
d and e
a and b
b only
26. GIS stands for
Geographical Information System
Graphical Information System
Graphic Investigation System
Geographical Investigation System
27. In IPv6, the in the base header restricts the life time of a datagram.
verSIOn
next-header
hop limit
payload length
28. "Punarjani", one ofthe media lab Asia projects is alan
Ontology building and management tool
Web portal for empowering the disabled
Assessment tool for mentally retarded children
None ofthe above
A 11 L07
29. XML stands for
Extensible Markup Language Extra Markup Language Extensible Markup Link Extra Markup Link
30. According to IT Act, 2000, Clause 65, punishment for tampering with computer source documents under observation is
imprisonment up to 3 years, or a fine which may be extended up to 2 lakh rupees, or both.
Imprisonment up to 2 years, or a fine which may be extended up to 3 lakh rupees, or both.
imprisonment up to 1 year, or a fine which may be extended up to 2 lakh rupees, or both.
imprisonment up to 2 years, or a fine which may be extended up to one lakh rupees, or both.
31. What is not included in 'Information' under the RTI Act, 2005
Opinion
Data Material
File Noting
Contracts
32. Consider the following statements:
a.
State Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 7 years and shall be eligible for reappointment.
b.
State Chieflnformation Commissioner shall hold office till he attains the age of 70 (seventy) years.
Both a and b are correct
Both a and b are wrong
a is correct b is wrong
b is correct a is wrong
33. A complaint is liable to be received by the State/Central Information Commission from a person
a.
who has been refused the information that was requested.
b.
who has not submitted an information request to PIO.
c.
who thinks that the fees charged are unreasonable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
b only
a and b only
a and conly
band c
34. Where the Central or State Information Commission is of the opinion that the PIO has given incorrect, incomplete or misleading information knowingly, then it shall impose a penalty the total amount ofwhich shall not exceed
"30,000 (thirty thousand)
"50,000 (fifty thousand)
"2,50,000 lacs fifty thousand)
25,000 (twenty-five thousand)
35. From amongst the following which statement(s) is/are correct about the Right to Information Act
a.
This Act does not create any offence on the part of citizens.
b.
It rather created the wilful failure on the part of the Public Information Officer a punishable offence.
Only a
Only b
Both a and b
Neither a nor b
itil'll'fllcfl JI1lTT J SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 13 L07
36. To whom does the State Human Rights Commission submit an annual report Governor of the State President ofJndia State Legislature State Government
37. Which ofthe following is not a political Right?
Right to vote Right to criticize the Government
Right to own property Right to file petition
38. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, the person can be punished for enforcing social disabilities on the ground of untouchability with regard to
a.
access to any shop, public restaurant, hotel or place of entertainment.
b.
the practising of any profession or carrying on of any occupation, trade or business or employment in any job.
c.
the use or access to any private conveyance.
d.
the use ofjewellery and finery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
Onlya andb
Only band d
Only band c
Only b
39. According to the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, a child is a person who has not completed
16 years of age 18 years of age
14 years of age 21 years of age
40. Which kind of property of certain persons can be ordered to be forfeited by special courts under S.C. and S.T. <Protection of Atrocities) Act, 1989
Any movable or immovable property belonging to that person.
Any movable or immovable property or both belonging to the family of that person.
Any movable or immovable property or both belonging to that person which has been used for the commission ofthat offence.
Any movable property belonging to that person which has been used for the commission of that offence.
L07 41. 14 The correct IUPAC name for the given structure is A
CHO
OH
3-hydroxy-2-methylpent-5-al-ene 3-hydroxy-4-methylpent-4-en-1-al 3-hydroxy-4-methylpent-1-al-4-ene 3-hydroxy-2-methylpent-1-en-5-al
42. Which of the following is the best method for preparation of common detergent sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate
0
C12H24 NaOH
(Al Oleum Anhy. AlCI3, HCI
@et
C12H26
Oleum NaOH
D
NaOH
Oleum)
CI
NOH C12H26
Oleum) Anhy. AlCI3, HCI
iWIT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
48. In the periodic table, to which period and group, does the non-metallic element which exists in liquid state at room temperature belong?
2nd period -1st group
4th period -17th group
2nd period -16th group
5th period group
44. The correct order ofincreasing stability ofcarboniwn ion is
tertiary> secondary> primary
primary> secondary> tertiary
secondary> tertiary> primary
primary> tertiary> secondary
45. Match the columns:
Group] Group II
a. Surfactants 1. Alkylaryl sulphonates
b. Dye intermediates II. Benzene
c. Lacquers ill. Cellulose acetate
d. Solvents IV. Ethyl acetate
V. Anthracene
a b c d
III V III,IV II, IV
I II,V III II, IV
I IV III,IV II, IV
III V III II, IV
"lIi'l'llllT VWIT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.
46. A compound C7HSO is insoluble in water, dil HCI and aqueous NaHC03 but dissolves in dil NaOH. When X is treated with bromine water, it is converted rapidly into a compound offormula C7H50Br3' The structure ofX is
OH OH
"I
cO OCH3
CH3
OH
6H
3
" CH3
47. Three flasks Band C respectively contain 0·1 m and 0·1 N aqueous HCI solutions, prepared at 40°C. Considering the density of water 1 g1cm3 at which ofthe following statements is/are correct?
a.
Concentration of all three solutions is exactly the same.
b.
Concentration of HCL in flask A and flask C is exactly the same.
c.
Concentration of HCL in flask B is lesser than concentration of HCL in flasks A andC.
d.
No two flasks have HCI of exactly the same concentration.
a only
Both b and c
conly
d only
iIFTT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 17 L07
48. What is the major product in the following reaction?
CH3 -CH2 CH2 Br2CH3 130°C hv
CH3 CH2 CH -CH2Br I Br
CH3 CH2 CH -Br I CH3
CH3 I CH3 -Br I CH3
49. The correct IUPAC name for the following compound is
Fy--y0H
2-chloro-5-fluoro-1-hydroxybenzene
1-hYdroxy-2-chloro-5-fluorobenzene
1-fluoro-3-hydroxy-4-chlorobenzene
2-chloro-5-fluorophenol
50. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their UV absorption maxima:
a.
Ethylene b. Naphthalene
c.
Anthracene d. 3-Butadiene
Choose the correct order.
51. The most susceptible to oxidation in a protein molecule are the SH groups of which amino acid?
Cysteine Valine
Threonine Glycine
52. The most susceptible mineral lost during cooking of food on the basis of presence as free ions is
Calcium Iron
Potassium None of the above
53. The most common adulterant used in coffee is
Chicory Tamarind
Date seed powder All ofthe above
54. Parabens, as a group of microbial preservatives, are ineffective especially against one of the following microorganisms:
Gram-negative bacteria Gram-positive bacteria
Molds Yeasts
55. Which of the prepackaging treatments is recommended for potatoes, sweet potatoes, onions and garlic prior to storage or marketing?
Precooling Curing
Waxing Degreening
56. A food product process condition coined by contamination, mixing and processing under uncontrolled conditions, and rendering it unfit for consumption is referred as
Fortification Adulteration
Enrichment None of the above
57. An article offood shall be deemed to be non-adulterated if
any natural constituent is removed therefrom.
any artificial colour is added thereto more than pennissible limits.
it contains any prohibited preservative.
two or more articles offood (primary) are mixed together.
Vi1'TT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 19 L07
58. V,'hich of the following are not conjugated proteins? Glycoproteins Scleroproteins Phosphoproteins Haemoglobins
59. Among the biological hazards, which of the bacteria in food causes infection and not intoxication?
Escherichia coli Clostridium botulinum
Staphylococcus aureus Clostridium perfringens
60. Which one of the following acids is used to detect vanaspati adulteration in pure ghee?
Concentrated sulphuric acid
Dilute sulphuric acid
Concentrated hydrochloric acid
Dilute hydrochloric acid
61. Fruits and vegetables based soups and sauces are categorized as
low acid foods medium acid foods
acid foods high acid foods
62, The post harvest transportation and storage of banana for distant marketing with minimum chilling injury is carried out at what temperatures?
11-13'C 14-17'C
63. The difference in UHT pasteurized milk and extended shelf life treated pasteurized milk is of
Temperature ofheating Holding time
Microbial filtration None ofthe above
64. Which one of the following is not a physical hurdle used in preservation of foods?
Electromagnetic energy Modified atmospheric storage
Ultrasonication Smoking
65. The critical electric field strength in Pulsed Electric Field processing for cell wall rupture ofE. coli should be
1-2kVlcm 10-14 kV/cm
15 -20 kVlcm .24-28 kV/cm
66. In the risk analysis of food additives, the JECFA secretariat should normally give first priority to compounds
that have been assigned a temporary ADI or equivalent.
food additives or groups of additives that have previously beeen evaluated and for which an ADI Or equivalent has been assigned.
food additives that have not been previously evaluated.
None of the above.
67. India has been a member of the Codex A1imentarius Commission since the year
1964 1974 1984 1994
68. The core function of the National Codex Committee ofIndia is
maximizing the opportunities for development of industry and expansion of international trade.
co-operation with joint FAOIWHO food standard programme.
to study codex documents.
to co-operate with other local/regional or foreign organizations dealing with activities relating to food standardization.
69. What is the function of Shadow Committee of NCC-India
To advise the NCCPINCC on the implications of various food standardization, food quality and safety issues
To follow the codex agenda of the relevant subsidiary body and provide inputs to the government to assist in ensuring quality and safety of food to the consumer
Both and
None of the above
lIiWllT c6Jill'l1ldl U!l1IT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 21 L07
70. CAC standards notified safe moisture content of quality grape raisins is
13% 15%
18% 20%
71. The genetically modified food crops available in the international market are designed to have the
Resistance to insect damage
Resistance to viral damage
Tolerance to certain herbicides
All ofthe above
72. Organic fruit ripening is authenticated by the stimulatory action of one of the following gaseous hormones:
Ethylene Nitrogen
Acetylene None of the above
73. The US Food and Drug Administration though insists that GM foods are safe, but studies have shown that these are linked with
Increased food allergens
Increased gastrointestinal problems
Both and
None of the above
74. The Ministry of Consumer Affairs made it mandatory to label packaged food from one of the following cut-off date as
1 January, 2013
26 January, 2013
1 February, 2013
15 February, 2013 'ffi'ITT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO
l07 22 A
75.· The irradiation dose recommended for sprout inhibition in bulbs and tubers is Less than 1 kGy 1-10 kGy More than 10 kGy None of the above
76. Which one of the following processes records uniform heating to stabilize texture of food products? Contact freeze drying Accelerated freeze drying Radiant freeze drying All ofthe above
77. Which one is the poorest method of food freezing? Freezing in cold air blast
Freezing with liquid air, N2 or CO2
Freezing in still air
Freezing by direct immersion offood in a cooling medium
78. Which one of the following functional ingredients improves gastrointestinal health and also calcium absorption
Fructo-oligosaccharides
Daidzein
Sterols
PUFA
79. Which one of the following foods is not the functional food?
Dietary fiber
Probiotics
Omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids
Pills or capsules or sachets of foods as a part of everyday diet
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A 23 L07
80. Which one of the following nanotechnology applications justifies potential in food corporate sector? Nanoencapsulation Nanocomposites and food packaging Nanosensors and nanosieves All ofthe above the bubbling
81. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India shall consist of a chairperson and expert members up to
15
20
22
24
82. Which one of the following Sections of FSSA is empowered to issue prohibition order?
32
33
34
35
83. Which one is not the function of Commissioner of Food Safety of the State?
To ensure an efficient and uniform implementation of standards of food safety
To sanction prosecution for offences punishable with imprisonment
To prohibit sale of any article of food for one year
To appoint Food Safety Officer
84. Which one of the following ex-officio members is designated as Chairman of Central Committee for Food Standards?
The Director General, Health Services, Ministry of Health
The Director General, ICAR, New Delhi
The Director, Central Food Laboratory
None of the above
85. The penalty for possessing an adulterant which is injurious to health ofconsumers is
n Lakh
2 Lakh
5 Lakh
no Lakh
86. The microbial hazard caused by Listeria monocytogenes is categorized as
Severe hazard
Moderate hazard
Low hazard
None of the above
87. A step at which control can be applied and is essential to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level is called as
Control measure
Corrective action
Critical Control Point
Critical limit
88. Which one of the following is not a constituent part ofthe cleaning programme?
Specifying areas, items of equipments and utensils to be cleaned
Specifying method and frequency of cleaning
Specifying monitoring arrangements
Removing gross debris from equipments
89. Which one is not the food safety HACCP based principle standard operating procedure developed by National Food Service Management Institute in conjunction with USDA and FDA?
Cleaning and sanitizing of food contact surfaces
Controlling of time and temperature during food preparation
Maintenance of personal hygiene
Keeping of record
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A 25 L07
90. Which one of the International Organization for systems is adopted by BIS as such? Standardization driven
ISIISO 22000 2005
BISIISO 22000 2005
ISIIISO 22000 2005
None of the above
91. Which clause of ISO 9001 2000 covers the requirements of the organization to actually set up a quality management system, and broadly sets out the activities associated with this?
Clause 4.1
Clause 4.2
Clause 5.1
Clause 5.2
92. Which one of the effective record keeping documentation systems compensates with HACCP?
Records of hazards and their control methods
Records of monitoring of safety requirements
Records of action taken to correct potential problems
All of the above
93. What does ISO 22000 bring to the HACCP method?
Prerequisite programmes and Operational prerequisite programmes
Critical Control Points
Validation
All ofthe above
94. Which one of the following processes reduces contaminating bacterial load to human health safety level?
Cleaning
Disinfection
Sterilization
Sanitization
95. The prerequisite programmes in the food industry include
Good Manufacturing Practices
Good Hygienic Practices
Both and
None of the above
96. The State Consumer Protection Councils established as per the Consumer Protection Act shall meet as and when necessary but not less than meetings shall be held every year.
1
2
3
4
97. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted during the year
1976
1986
1996
2006
lI>fiUlT 1'l1 1&1 UIT'IT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
98. Match the following:
a. Food Additives Sectional Committee I. FAD-15
b. c. d. Fish and Fisheries Products Sectional Committee Food Hygiene, Safety Management and other Systems Sectional Committee Slaughter House and Meat Industry Sectional Committee II. III. IV. FAD -18 FAD-8 FAD -12
a b c d
IV I II III
III IV I II
II I I II III IV IV III
99. The Central Government has powers under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 to control
Production of food
Supply offood
Distribution offood
All ofthe above
100. The Section 3 of ECA, 1955 empowers the Government to
Control production, supply, distribution, trade and commerce of essential commodities.
Control distribution, trade and commerce of essential food commodities only.
Control production and supply of non-food essential commodities.
None ofthe above
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