Exam Details
Subject | economics | |
Paper | ||
Exam / Course | combined competitive examination | |
Department | ||
Organization | Jammu Kashmir Public Service Commission | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | 2010 | |
City, State | jammu kashmir, |
Question Paper
BKU-14143-A 1 [Turn over
ROUGH WORK
1. A temporary leakage from the circular income flow could take the form of
wages depreciation reserves
distributed profits interest
2. Which one of the following is a transfer income
The salary of a member of parliament
Company dividends to shareholders
Rent from house property
Unemployment allowance
3. Which one of the following will directly increase the GNP
A rise in interest rate A surplus in budget
A fall in national debt An increase in investment
4. Consider the following types of income
1.
Personal income
2.
Private income
3.
Disposable income
4.
National income
The correct sequence in descending order of their magnitude is
3 1
1 3
5. Value added means value of
output at market prices
goods and services less depreciation
goods and services less cost of inputs
output at factor cost
6. NNP at market prices and NNP at factor costs will be equal when there is
no direct tax no indirect tax
no subsidy no indirect tax and no subsidy
7. The total income earned in any given year by resource suppliers is measured by
GNP GDP
Personal Income National Income
8. The difference between Net National Product and Net Domestic Product is
Net exports Net income from abroad
Net foreign aid Net borrowing from abroad
9. The GNP of an economy at market prices is Rs. 10,000, Net factor income from abroad is Rs. 1,000, indirect taxes Rs. 800, subsidies Rs. 500 and depreciation Rs. 1,000. What is the GDP at market prices
Rs. 9,000 Rs. 7,700
Rs. 11,000 Rs. 13,300
10. The total sales of all firms in an economy in a given year is
less than gross national product equal to that of national income
more than gross national product the same as gross national product
11. One purpose of advertisement for the goods produced is to
shift the demand curve for the good to the right
shift the demand curve for the good to the left
shift the supply curve for the good to the left
shift the supply curve for the good to the right
12. Expansion in demand is concerned with
movement along with demand curve
shift in the demand curve
upward shift in supply curve
none of the above
13. Which of the following is true in a perfectly competitive market
Total revenue rises continuously at a constant rate
Average revenue is constant at all levels of output
Marginal revenue is constant at all levels of output
All of the above
14. Which of the following is the factor responsible for price discrimination
Different price elasticities in different market
Control over supply
Possible segregate market
All of the above
15. AR and MR curve are equal and constant under
Monopoly Duopoly
Oligopoly Perfect competition
BKU-14143-A 4
16. As a household's average income rises, we usually expect
the proportion of its income allocated to food to increase, as food is a necessity
its expenditure habits to remain constant, as income changes have no effect on demand
its demand for goods to increase because the price of these goods will decline
its demand for luxuries to increase
17. Identify the truthfulness of the following statements
I. Ordinal utility gives us information about which basket the consumer prefers and the magnitude of the preference.
II. Cardinal utility gives us information about which basket the consumer prefers but not about the intensity of those preferences.
Both I and II are true Both I and II are false
I is true; II is false I is false; II is true
18. In a pure monopoly which of the following would be true
There would be no abnormal profits
There would be no barriers to entry
There would be no spending on advertising
The monopolist would be a price taker
19. Which of the following is NOT a necessary condition for perfect competition to exist
Everyone must have perfect information
The product must be homogeneous
There must be perfect mobility of the factors of production
There must be barrier to entry in the market
20. Evaluate the truthfulness of the following statements
I. The budget constraint is a function of consumer preferences.
II. The budget constraint defines the set of baskets that a consumer can purchase with a specific level of income.
Both I and II are true Both I and II are false
I is true; II is false I is false; II is true
21. The long run average cost curve slopes upwards because of
economies of scale
diseconomies of scale
barriers to entry
high demand for the product
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a monopolistically competitive market
Free entry and exit Long-run economic profits
Differentiated products Many sellers
23. An Engel curve for good x describes
how the consumption of good x varies as the consumer's income changes
how the consumption of good x varies as the price of good x changes
how the consumption of good x varies as the consumption of good y changes
how the consumption of good x varies as price-consumption curve changes
24. Consumer surplus is defined as
the difference between the discounted amount and the original amount
the difference between the maximum amounts a consumer is willing to pay for a good and the amount he or she must actually pay when purchasing
the difference between the actual cost of the good and the negotiated price
both and
25. The production set represents
the set of all technically feasible combinations of inputs and outputs
the technically efficient combinations of inputs and outputs
the maximum output the firm can produce from a given level of inputs
the minimum amounts of inputs necessary to produce a given level of output
26. The rate at which one input can be exchanged for another input without altering the level of output is called the
Marginal product curve
Average product curve
Marginal rate of technical substitution
Law of diminishing marginal productivity
27. When a firm uses inputs in a fixed proportion, the cost minimizing combination of capital and labor
occurs when the firm uses either all workers or all machines
occurs when the firm uses equal amounts of workers and machines
occurs where the ratio of marginal productivities equals the ratio of the input prices
occurs at the corner point on the isoquant
28. Identify the truthfulness of the following statements
I. Marginal cost can be measured as the slope of the total cost curve.
II. Average cost can be measured as the slope of the ray from the origin to the total cost curve.
I is true; II is false Both I and II are false
Both I and II are true I is false; II is true
29. A long-run total cost curve
must be equal to zero when the level of output is zero
may be greater than or equal to zero when the level of output is zero
must be decreasing when the level of output is zero
will be equal to fixed cost, which is greater than zero, when the level of output is zero
30. Suppose a firm's production technology exhibits constant returns to scale. The firm's longrun average cost curve will
be U-shaped exhibit economies of scale
exhibit diseconomies of scale be a horizontal straight line
31. The competitive firm maximizes profit when it produces output up to the point where
marginal cost equals total revenue marginal revenue equals average revenue
price equals average variable cost marginal cost equals marginal revenue
32. Which of the following statements regarding a monopolist's profit maximizing condition is false
The monopolist's profit maximizing price will be greater than marginal cost for the last unit supplied
A monopolist can earn positive economic profit
Because monopoly price is above marginal cost and a monopoly earns positive Economic profit, there are no benefits to consumers in the monopoly market
Price equal to average revenue at the profit maximizing quantity of output
33. With first-degree price discrimination, the marginal revenue curve
is the same as the demand curve
is below the demand curve, with slope equal to twice the slope of demand
is above the demand curve
is below the demand curve, with slope equal to one-half the slope of demand
34. What is the difference between uniform pricing and price discrimination
Uniform pricing and price discrimination are the same thing
With uniform pricing firms charge the same price for each unit of output and with price discrimination firms charge different prices for each unit
With uniform pricing firms charge different prices for each unit of output and with price discrimination firms charge the same price for each unit
The uniform price is always higher than the discriminatory price
35. An individual demand curve slopes downward to the right because of
income effect of fall in prices substitution effect of decrease in price
diminishing marginal utility conditions and hold
36. One of the major reasons why people move from money into bonds is their belief that
the price of bond is about to fall the rate of interest is about to fall
the rate of interest is about to rise the price of mortgages is about to increase
37. When the commercial banks create credit they are, in effect, increasing
the real national income the national debt
the supply of money the real wealth of the country
38. Keynes termed as "active balances" the money held for
the transactions motive only
the precautionary motive only
the transactions and precautionary motives
the speculative motive only
39. "Fiat money" is that which is
backed by gold or silver decreed as money by the government
accepted by overseas banks only accepted temporarily in lieu of gold
40. A large speculative demand for money is likely to exist when
people wish to borrow money in order to speculate on the stock exchange
the current rate of interest is extremely high
the current rate of interest is extremely low
the current rate of interest is moderate
41. Which one of the following is NOT an asset of the commercial banks, but in fact a liability
Cash in hand Money at call
Paid up capital Investment
42. Other things being same, when income increases, the liquidity preference curve
shifts to the left does not shift at all
shifts to the right changes its slope
43. When the intrinsic value of money and its face value are equal, it is called
token money full-bodied money
quasi-money fiat money
44. Portfolio theory of the demand for money assumes that the individual
disregards risk is risk neutral
is risk lover is risk averse
BKU-14143-A 8
45. "The quantity theory of money is a theory of demand for money and not a theory of fluctuations of income and/or prices." The statement is associated with
Robertson Fisher
Keynes Friedman
46. Devaluation results in a
1.
rise in the domestic price of import
2.
rise in the domestic price of exports
3.
fall in domestic price of imports
4.
fall in the foreign price of exports
Which of the above statements are correct
1 and 2 2 and 3
3 and 4 1 and 4
47. Hot money refers to the
short-term capital movements from one country to another seeking either a higher rate of interest or safety of capital irrespective of the rate of interest
long-term capital movements from one country to another seeking higher rate of interest
medium-term capital movements from one country to another
currency which is very much in demand in the foreign exchange market
48. Which one of the following is the major characteristic of foreign direct investment
Capital flows resulting in physical investment
It is portfolio investment in stock market
It is that investment which involves debt servicing
It is investment made by foreign institutional investors in government securities
49. Assertion The Ricardian theory of trade is based on the labour theory of value.
Reason Labour theory of value holds well in domestic trade, but breaks down when applied to international trade.
Both and A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
50. Consider the following items
1.
Merchandise exports
2.
Foreign tourist's expenditure in home country
3.
Foreign short-term investment in home country
4.
Banking, insurance and transport services
5.
Income received on investments abroad
Of the above, current account includes
1 alone 3 and 4
4 and 5 3 and 4
51. A 'Hard Currency' is one which is
freely convertible into gold or other currencies
not in demand in Europe or the U.S.A.
regulated by a number of strict exchange controls
in circulation during a period of hyperinflation
52. Denoting the price of capital and labour by PK and PL respectively and countries by A and if
KLA KLB
Country B is relatively labour abundant
Country A is relatively labour abundant
Country A is relatively capital abundant
Relative factor abundance is indeterminate
53. The Singer-Prebisch theory maintains that
less developed countries suffer a welfare loss from the secular decline in terms of trade due to primary product exports
less developed countries suffer a welfare loss due to low value of their currencies
dependence upon trade for development is not harmful to less developed countries
economic aid, rather than trade, is required for developing countries
54. Free trade leads to redistribution of income by
raising the income of poor
lowering the income of rich
raising the income of rich and lowering the income of poor
lowering the price of scarce factor and raising the price of the abundant factor
55. The balance of payments of a country is in equilibrium when
the total receipts is equal to total payments
the demand for domestic currency is equal to its supply
the demand for domestic currency is highest
the total receipts is equal to total payments in an accounting year
56. Income elasticity of demand for the exports of underdeveloped countries is usually
equal to one more than one
zero less than one
57. According to the elasticity approach, for a devaluation to have a positive effect on the trade balance, the sum of the elasticities of demand for exports and imports of the devaluing country has to be equal to
unity less than unity
zero greater than unity
58. Which one of the following transactions represents a credit entry in the current account of a country's balance of payments
Merchandise imports
Transportation services rendered by foreign companies
Expenditure of foreign tourists in a country
Payments to foreign contractors and engineers
59. The scope of international trade and division of labour is limited by
availability of technology size of the international market
availability of capital surplus production of capital exports
60. In Heckscher-Ohlin theory of international trade, the most important source of difference in relative commodity prices between nations is a difference in
factor endowments technology
tastes demand conditions
61. Assertion Devaluation leads to expenditure switching. Reason Devaluation makes imports relatively costlier than domestic goods.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
62. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched
Depreciation .................................. Market mechanism
Devaluation ................................... Policy action of the government
Incomplete specialization .............. Comparative cost advantage theory
Exchange control .......................... Foreign exchange rationing
63. The word 'Balance' in the balance of payments refers to
a situation of comfortable equilibrium
no accommodating transaction
an accounting balance
automatic real balance
64. A deficit in a country's balance of payments refers to the difference between
autonomous receipts and autonomous payments
accommodating receipts and autonomous payments
accommodating receipts and accommodating payments
autonomous receipts and accommodating payments
65. The size of foreign trade multiplier depends on
marginal propensity to consume marginal propensity to import
repercussion all of the above
66. Structural changes in GDP are mainly associated with
growth of per capita income development with trickle-down benefit
development of primary sector economic development
67. Which one of the following is NOT related with economic growth
Distribution of GDP in an economy
Efficiency of raising output
Technological changes in production
Human resource development
68. With economic development the share of service sector in the national economy normally
declines increases
remains constant becomes unstable
69. Which one of the following does NOT measure 'income inequalities'
Lorenz curve Gini coefficient
Per capita income Relative poverty
70. "Poor countries are trapped in a vicious circle of poverty." The statement is associated with
Arthur Lewis R.F. Harrod
E. Domar Ragner Nurkse
71. Which one of the following was NOT considered in the Physical Quality of Life Index
Per capita income Literacy percentage
Infant mortality Life expectancy
72. Human Development Index is prepared regularly by
The World Bank United Nations Development Programme
United Nation Organization Asian Development Bank
73. Which one of the following is a feature of only an underdeveloped country
Inflation and unemployment Import of consumers' goods
Underutilization of resources Economic fluctuations
74. The concept of 'stationary state' was given for the first time by
David Ricardo Adam Smith
J.S. Mill J.B. Say
75. J. Schumpeter assigned the role of innovation to
scientists inventing new things
organizers mobilising factors of production
entrepreneurs taking risk in production
producers
76. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of modern economic growth as identified by Simon Kuznets
Capital accumulation National product and its components
Population and labour force Sustained increase in the supply of goods
77. Sustainable development is best defined as
sustained growth of GDP for a longer period
meeting the needs of the present generation without compromising the needs of future
generation
having low poverty ratio and high standard of living for a long period
high savings and capital formation resulting in high rate of growth
78. Which one of the following is NOT an obstacle to economic growth
Market imperfections Vicious circle of poverty
Backwash effect Backward and forward linkages
BKU-14143-A 13 [Turn over
79. Consider the following
1.
Increase in population
2.
Improvement in health, education and housing
3.
Migration of workers to more productive areas
4.
Capital accumulation
Of the above, human capital formation includes
3 and 4
2 and 3
2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
80. List I includes some concepts and List II their authors. Matching the two lists select the
correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List I List II
a.
Division of labour 1. R. Rodan
b.
Demonstration effect 2. Karl Marx
c.
Big push 3. Adam Smith
d.
Surplus value 4. J.S. Duesenberry
Codes
abcd
3412
3142
2431
3421
81. In which one of the following areas the policies of the British rulers in India did not help in the economic development of the country
Cottage and small scale industries Jute industry
Plantation Transport and communication
82. The extent of poverty in India was revealed for the first time by
Govind Ranadey K.T. Shah
Dadabhai Naoroji None of the above
83. Which one of the following was NOT true about Indian economy at the time of independence
Predominance of agriculture Large service sector
Disguised unemployment Lack of entrepreneurs
84. Which one of the following is correct about birth and death rates in India at present
Both birth and death rates are high
Since 1951 both have declined in the same ratio
While death rate has declined there is little change in the birth rate
Birth rate has declined slower while death rate decreased fast
BKU-14143-A 14
85. Which one of the following is NOT a target of the National Population Policy 2000
Reduce maternity mortality ratio to 50 per lakh live births
Lower down total fertility rate to the replacement level by 2010
To achieve stable population by 2045
Reduce infant mortality rate to below 30 per one thousand live births.
86. Which one of the following has been ignored in the family planning programme in India
Better rural health services Availability of contraceptives
Family planning insurance schemes Changing social environment
87. Consider some of the facts about hydel power in India
1.
These resources are evenly distributed in the country
2.
15-20 percent of the total electricity generation comes from this source
3.
Since independence share of this source of energy is declining
Of the above
Only 1 and 3 are correct Only 2 and 3 are correct
Only 1 and 2 are correct All are correct
88. Which one of the following does NOT help in maintaining ecological balance
Afforestation Prohibition of hunting animals
Deforestation Rainwater harvesting
89. In which State of India sex ratio exceeds 1000
Tamil Nadu Andhra Pradesh
Orissa Kerala
90. In 2004-05 incidence of poverty on all India basis was estimated to be
27.5 percent
21.8 percent
Both and by using two different methods
None of the above
91. From the point of growth of GDP in Indian economy, the break-even year may be
1971 1981
1991 2001
92. Base year for estimating New series of national product at constant prices is
2005-2006 2003-2004
2001-2002 1999-2000
93. The largest source of gross capital formation in India is in
Private sector Corporate sector
Household sector Public sector
BKU-14143-A 15 [Turn over
94. India's ranking in Human Development Index in recent years (mention year) out of 177 countries remains between
116 and 121 121 and 125
125 and 130 130 and 135
95. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of economic planning in India
Totalitarian planning Democratic planning
Perspective planning Financial planning
96. In the early phase of economic planning in India, out of the following, the main strategy was
export promotion import substitute industrialization
consumerism price control and rationing
97. The strategy of the Eleventh Five-year Plan is
the first priority to agricultural development
more production of foodgrains
rapid industrialization
faster and more inclusive growth
98. The base year of the All India Index of Industrial Production at present is
1993-94 1998-99
2003-04 2007-08
99. In India, industries are classified as
cottage, small and large cottage, micro and large
micro, small, medium and large micro, small and large
100. In the year 2008-09 the largest amount of foreign direct investment was received in
telecommunication housing and real estate
computers and accessories automobiles
101. Which one of the following was NOT an objective of land reforms in India
Institutional changes in agriculture
Eliminating all forms exploitation of farmers
Security of tillers of agricultural land
Technological changes to improve productivity of land
BKU-14143-A 16
102. List I includes some aspects of economic development in India and List II items related to
them
List-I List-II
a.
Decentralized planning 1. Green revolution
b.
Community Development Projects 2. New Agricultural Strategy
c.
Intensive Area Development Programme 3. Panchayat Raj
d.
High yielding varieties 4. Block Development Matching items of List-I with those of List-II, select correct answer from the codes given below
Codes
abcd
3421
4231
3412
4321
103. Consider some of the facts about National Food Security Mission
1.
It is Centrally sponsored scheme
2.
Better food grain management is the main objective of the scheme
3.
It aims at increasing production of rice, wheat and pulses
4.
Area expansion, productivity enhancement and improved technology are the main
tools of the programme.
Of the above
Only 3 and 4 are correct
Only 1 and 3 are correct
3 and 4 are correct
3 and 4 are correct
104. Which one of the following is NOT correct about minimum support prices of agricultural products
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices fixes these prices
Prices are announced only for wheat, rice and sugarcane
Government procures foodgrains on these prices
Demand-supply gap and price situation in the country are taken into account in determining these prices.
105. Which one of the following is NOT true about procurement of foodgrains
It is done in crops like wheat, rice and coarse grains
Foodgrains are purchased on minimum support prices
Larger part of foodgrains is distributed through Public Distribution System
Food Corporation of India is the only agency for procuring foodgrains
106. The 'Golden Quadrilateral' is a programme related to
National highways Power transmission lines
State roads Railway network
107. For financing infrastructure projects during the Eleventh Plan emphasis has been given on
larger investment in public sector larger investment in private sector
public-private partnership external financial resources
108. The nature of unemployment in India is
Cyclical Structural
Seasonal Frictional
109. Employment in organized sector in India at present is between
11 and 15 percent 9 and 11 percent
7 and 11 percent 4 and 7 percent
110. Consider some of the facts about National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
1.
The scheme was started in February 2006
2.
National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was merged into the scheme
3.
The basic framework of the scheme was provided by the Maharashtra Employment Guarantee Act
4.
The scheme now covers all the districts of the country
Of the above
only 1 and 4 are correct only 2 and 4 are correct
3 and 4 are correct 3 and 4 are correct
111. Which one of the following is NOT recommended by a Finance Commission
Plan grant to States
Non-plan grants to States
Share of the Central taxes to States
Grant for funding natural calamities in States
112. Target of fiscal deficit in ease of the Union budget for 2008-09 could not be achieved due to
no check on non-essential expenditure
slow growth in tax revenue
larger plan expenditure
larger capital expenditure
113. The largest item of public expenditure in the Union budgets in recent years is
defence expenditure oil-pool deficit
major subsidies interest payments
BKU-14143-A 18
114. In the Union budgets the largest growth in tax revenue during the last 15 years took place in
Personal income tax Corporation tax
Service tax Union excise duties
115. The most important fiscal wrong in the government finances since 1951 has been
large dependence on debt finance large dependence on external assistance
large non-plan expenditure weak tax administration
116. Which of the following is irrelevant in the group
NSE SIDBI
BSE SEBI
117. Which one of the following is NOT correct about Right to Education Act 2009
It provides compulsory and free education for children of the age group 6-14 years
The Act implements the provision of education as a Fundamental Right
For primary education government will provide at least one school in the radius of 1 km
The Act came into force from December 2009.
118. As per the population census 2001, out of the following states the highest literacy rate was recorded in
Bihar Jharkhand
Jammu Kashmir Arunachal Pradesh
119. Which one of the following is the largest item of non-development expenditure in the state budgets of Jammu and Kashmir
Interest payments Police
Miscellaneous general services Pension
120. Which one of the following was the largest source of tax revenue in the state budget of Jammu and Kashmir for the budget 2008-09
State excise Taxes on goods and passenger
Stamp and registration Land revenue
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
1. A temporary leakage from the circular income flow could take the form of
wages depreciation reserves
distributed profits interest
2. Which one of the following is a transfer income
The salary of a member of parliament
Company dividends to shareholders
Rent from house property
Unemployment allowance
3. Which one of the following will directly increase the GNP
A rise in interest rate A surplus in budget
A fall in national debt An increase in investment
4. Consider the following types of income
1.
Personal income
2.
Private income
3.
Disposable income
4.
National income
The correct sequence in descending order of their magnitude is
3 1
1 3
5. Value added means value of
output at market prices
goods and services less depreciation
goods and services less cost of inputs
output at factor cost
6. NNP at market prices and NNP at factor costs will be equal when there is
no direct tax no indirect tax
no subsidy no indirect tax and no subsidy
7. The total income earned in any given year by resource suppliers is measured by
GNP GDP
Personal Income National Income
8. The difference between Net National Product and Net Domestic Product is
Net exports Net income from abroad
Net foreign aid Net borrowing from abroad
9. The GNP of an economy at market prices is Rs. 10,000, Net factor income from abroad is Rs. 1,000, indirect taxes Rs. 800, subsidies Rs. 500 and depreciation Rs. 1,000. What is the GDP at market prices
Rs. 9,000 Rs. 7,700
Rs. 11,000 Rs. 13,300
10. The total sales of all firms in an economy in a given year is
less than gross national product equal to that of national income
more than gross national product the same as gross national product
11. One purpose of advertisement for the goods produced is to
shift the demand curve for the good to the right
shift the demand curve for the good to the left
shift the supply curve for the good to the left
shift the supply curve for the good to the right
12. Expansion in demand is concerned with
movement along with demand curve
shift in the demand curve
upward shift in supply curve
none of the above
13. Which of the following is true in a perfectly competitive market
Total revenue rises continuously at a constant rate
Average revenue is constant at all levels of output
Marginal revenue is constant at all levels of output
All of the above
14. Which of the following is the factor responsible for price discrimination
Different price elasticities in different market
Control over supply
Possible segregate market
All of the above
15. AR and MR curve are equal and constant under
Monopoly Duopoly
Oligopoly Perfect competition
BKU-14143-A 4
16. As a household's average income rises, we usually expect
the proportion of its income allocated to food to increase, as food is a necessity
its expenditure habits to remain constant, as income changes have no effect on demand
its demand for goods to increase because the price of these goods will decline
its demand for luxuries to increase
17. Identify the truthfulness of the following statements
I. Ordinal utility gives us information about which basket the consumer prefers and the magnitude of the preference.
II. Cardinal utility gives us information about which basket the consumer prefers but not about the intensity of those preferences.
Both I and II are true Both I and II are false
I is true; II is false I is false; II is true
18. In a pure monopoly which of the following would be true
There would be no abnormal profits
There would be no barriers to entry
There would be no spending on advertising
The monopolist would be a price taker
19. Which of the following is NOT a necessary condition for perfect competition to exist
Everyone must have perfect information
The product must be homogeneous
There must be perfect mobility of the factors of production
There must be barrier to entry in the market
20. Evaluate the truthfulness of the following statements
I. The budget constraint is a function of consumer preferences.
II. The budget constraint defines the set of baskets that a consumer can purchase with a specific level of income.
Both I and II are true Both I and II are false
I is true; II is false I is false; II is true
21. The long run average cost curve slopes upwards because of
economies of scale
diseconomies of scale
barriers to entry
high demand for the product
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a monopolistically competitive market
Free entry and exit Long-run economic profits
Differentiated products Many sellers
23. An Engel curve for good x describes
how the consumption of good x varies as the consumer's income changes
how the consumption of good x varies as the price of good x changes
how the consumption of good x varies as the consumption of good y changes
how the consumption of good x varies as price-consumption curve changes
24. Consumer surplus is defined as
the difference between the discounted amount and the original amount
the difference between the maximum amounts a consumer is willing to pay for a good and the amount he or she must actually pay when purchasing
the difference between the actual cost of the good and the negotiated price
both and
25. The production set represents
the set of all technically feasible combinations of inputs and outputs
the technically efficient combinations of inputs and outputs
the maximum output the firm can produce from a given level of inputs
the minimum amounts of inputs necessary to produce a given level of output
26. The rate at which one input can be exchanged for another input without altering the level of output is called the
Marginal product curve
Average product curve
Marginal rate of technical substitution
Law of diminishing marginal productivity
27. When a firm uses inputs in a fixed proportion, the cost minimizing combination of capital and labor
occurs when the firm uses either all workers or all machines
occurs when the firm uses equal amounts of workers and machines
occurs where the ratio of marginal productivities equals the ratio of the input prices
occurs at the corner point on the isoquant
28. Identify the truthfulness of the following statements
I. Marginal cost can be measured as the slope of the total cost curve.
II. Average cost can be measured as the slope of the ray from the origin to the total cost curve.
I is true; II is false Both I and II are false
Both I and II are true I is false; II is true
29. A long-run total cost curve
must be equal to zero when the level of output is zero
may be greater than or equal to zero when the level of output is zero
must be decreasing when the level of output is zero
will be equal to fixed cost, which is greater than zero, when the level of output is zero
30. Suppose a firm's production technology exhibits constant returns to scale. The firm's longrun average cost curve will
be U-shaped exhibit economies of scale
exhibit diseconomies of scale be a horizontal straight line
31. The competitive firm maximizes profit when it produces output up to the point where
marginal cost equals total revenue marginal revenue equals average revenue
price equals average variable cost marginal cost equals marginal revenue
32. Which of the following statements regarding a monopolist's profit maximizing condition is false
The monopolist's profit maximizing price will be greater than marginal cost for the last unit supplied
A monopolist can earn positive economic profit
Because monopoly price is above marginal cost and a monopoly earns positive Economic profit, there are no benefits to consumers in the monopoly market
Price equal to average revenue at the profit maximizing quantity of output
33. With first-degree price discrimination, the marginal revenue curve
is the same as the demand curve
is below the demand curve, with slope equal to twice the slope of demand
is above the demand curve
is below the demand curve, with slope equal to one-half the slope of demand
34. What is the difference between uniform pricing and price discrimination
Uniform pricing and price discrimination are the same thing
With uniform pricing firms charge the same price for each unit of output and with price discrimination firms charge different prices for each unit
With uniform pricing firms charge different prices for each unit of output and with price discrimination firms charge the same price for each unit
The uniform price is always higher than the discriminatory price
35. An individual demand curve slopes downward to the right because of
income effect of fall in prices substitution effect of decrease in price
diminishing marginal utility conditions and hold
36. One of the major reasons why people move from money into bonds is their belief that
the price of bond is about to fall the rate of interest is about to fall
the rate of interest is about to rise the price of mortgages is about to increase
37. When the commercial banks create credit they are, in effect, increasing
the real national income the national debt
the supply of money the real wealth of the country
38. Keynes termed as "active balances" the money held for
the transactions motive only
the precautionary motive only
the transactions and precautionary motives
the speculative motive only
39. "Fiat money" is that which is
backed by gold or silver decreed as money by the government
accepted by overseas banks only accepted temporarily in lieu of gold
40. A large speculative demand for money is likely to exist when
people wish to borrow money in order to speculate on the stock exchange
the current rate of interest is extremely high
the current rate of interest is extremely low
the current rate of interest is moderate
41. Which one of the following is NOT an asset of the commercial banks, but in fact a liability
Cash in hand Money at call
Paid up capital Investment
42. Other things being same, when income increases, the liquidity preference curve
shifts to the left does not shift at all
shifts to the right changes its slope
43. When the intrinsic value of money and its face value are equal, it is called
token money full-bodied money
quasi-money fiat money
44. Portfolio theory of the demand for money assumes that the individual
disregards risk is risk neutral
is risk lover is risk averse
BKU-14143-A 8
45. "The quantity theory of money is a theory of demand for money and not a theory of fluctuations of income and/or prices." The statement is associated with
Robertson Fisher
Keynes Friedman
46. Devaluation results in a
1.
rise in the domestic price of import
2.
rise in the domestic price of exports
3.
fall in domestic price of imports
4.
fall in the foreign price of exports
Which of the above statements are correct
1 and 2 2 and 3
3 and 4 1 and 4
47. Hot money refers to the
short-term capital movements from one country to another seeking either a higher rate of interest or safety of capital irrespective of the rate of interest
long-term capital movements from one country to another seeking higher rate of interest
medium-term capital movements from one country to another
currency which is very much in demand in the foreign exchange market
48. Which one of the following is the major characteristic of foreign direct investment
Capital flows resulting in physical investment
It is portfolio investment in stock market
It is that investment which involves debt servicing
It is investment made by foreign institutional investors in government securities
49. Assertion The Ricardian theory of trade is based on the labour theory of value.
Reason Labour theory of value holds well in domestic trade, but breaks down when applied to international trade.
Both and A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
50. Consider the following items
1.
Merchandise exports
2.
Foreign tourist's expenditure in home country
3.
Foreign short-term investment in home country
4.
Banking, insurance and transport services
5.
Income received on investments abroad
Of the above, current account includes
1 alone 3 and 4
4 and 5 3 and 4
51. A 'Hard Currency' is one which is
freely convertible into gold or other currencies
not in demand in Europe or the U.S.A.
regulated by a number of strict exchange controls
in circulation during a period of hyperinflation
52. Denoting the price of capital and labour by PK and PL respectively and countries by A and if
KLA KLB
Country B is relatively labour abundant
Country A is relatively labour abundant
Country A is relatively capital abundant
Relative factor abundance is indeterminate
53. The Singer-Prebisch theory maintains that
less developed countries suffer a welfare loss from the secular decline in terms of trade due to primary product exports
less developed countries suffer a welfare loss due to low value of their currencies
dependence upon trade for development is not harmful to less developed countries
economic aid, rather than trade, is required for developing countries
54. Free trade leads to redistribution of income by
raising the income of poor
lowering the income of rich
raising the income of rich and lowering the income of poor
lowering the price of scarce factor and raising the price of the abundant factor
55. The balance of payments of a country is in equilibrium when
the total receipts is equal to total payments
the demand for domestic currency is equal to its supply
the demand for domestic currency is highest
the total receipts is equal to total payments in an accounting year
56. Income elasticity of demand for the exports of underdeveloped countries is usually
equal to one more than one
zero less than one
57. According to the elasticity approach, for a devaluation to have a positive effect on the trade balance, the sum of the elasticities of demand for exports and imports of the devaluing country has to be equal to
unity less than unity
zero greater than unity
58. Which one of the following transactions represents a credit entry in the current account of a country's balance of payments
Merchandise imports
Transportation services rendered by foreign companies
Expenditure of foreign tourists in a country
Payments to foreign contractors and engineers
59. The scope of international trade and division of labour is limited by
availability of technology size of the international market
availability of capital surplus production of capital exports
60. In Heckscher-Ohlin theory of international trade, the most important source of difference in relative commodity prices between nations is a difference in
factor endowments technology
tastes demand conditions
61. Assertion Devaluation leads to expenditure switching. Reason Devaluation makes imports relatively costlier than domestic goods.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
62. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched
Depreciation .................................. Market mechanism
Devaluation ................................... Policy action of the government
Incomplete specialization .............. Comparative cost advantage theory
Exchange control .......................... Foreign exchange rationing
63. The word 'Balance' in the balance of payments refers to
a situation of comfortable equilibrium
no accommodating transaction
an accounting balance
automatic real balance
64. A deficit in a country's balance of payments refers to the difference between
autonomous receipts and autonomous payments
accommodating receipts and autonomous payments
accommodating receipts and accommodating payments
autonomous receipts and accommodating payments
65. The size of foreign trade multiplier depends on
marginal propensity to consume marginal propensity to import
repercussion all of the above
66. Structural changes in GDP are mainly associated with
growth of per capita income development with trickle-down benefit
development of primary sector economic development
67. Which one of the following is NOT related with economic growth
Distribution of GDP in an economy
Efficiency of raising output
Technological changes in production
Human resource development
68. With economic development the share of service sector in the national economy normally
declines increases
remains constant becomes unstable
69. Which one of the following does NOT measure 'income inequalities'
Lorenz curve Gini coefficient
Per capita income Relative poverty
70. "Poor countries are trapped in a vicious circle of poverty." The statement is associated with
Arthur Lewis R.F. Harrod
E. Domar Ragner Nurkse
71. Which one of the following was NOT considered in the Physical Quality of Life Index
Per capita income Literacy percentage
Infant mortality Life expectancy
72. Human Development Index is prepared regularly by
The World Bank United Nations Development Programme
United Nation Organization Asian Development Bank
73. Which one of the following is a feature of only an underdeveloped country
Inflation and unemployment Import of consumers' goods
Underutilization of resources Economic fluctuations
74. The concept of 'stationary state' was given for the first time by
David Ricardo Adam Smith
J.S. Mill J.B. Say
75. J. Schumpeter assigned the role of innovation to
scientists inventing new things
organizers mobilising factors of production
entrepreneurs taking risk in production
producers
76. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of modern economic growth as identified by Simon Kuznets
Capital accumulation National product and its components
Population and labour force Sustained increase in the supply of goods
77. Sustainable development is best defined as
sustained growth of GDP for a longer period
meeting the needs of the present generation without compromising the needs of future
generation
having low poverty ratio and high standard of living for a long period
high savings and capital formation resulting in high rate of growth
78. Which one of the following is NOT an obstacle to economic growth
Market imperfections Vicious circle of poverty
Backwash effect Backward and forward linkages
BKU-14143-A 13 [Turn over
79. Consider the following
1.
Increase in population
2.
Improvement in health, education and housing
3.
Migration of workers to more productive areas
4.
Capital accumulation
Of the above, human capital formation includes
3 and 4
2 and 3
2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
80. List I includes some concepts and List II their authors. Matching the two lists select the
correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List I List II
a.
Division of labour 1. R. Rodan
b.
Demonstration effect 2. Karl Marx
c.
Big push 3. Adam Smith
d.
Surplus value 4. J.S. Duesenberry
Codes
abcd
3412
3142
2431
3421
81. In which one of the following areas the policies of the British rulers in India did not help in the economic development of the country
Cottage and small scale industries Jute industry
Plantation Transport and communication
82. The extent of poverty in India was revealed for the first time by
Govind Ranadey K.T. Shah
Dadabhai Naoroji None of the above
83. Which one of the following was NOT true about Indian economy at the time of independence
Predominance of agriculture Large service sector
Disguised unemployment Lack of entrepreneurs
84. Which one of the following is correct about birth and death rates in India at present
Both birth and death rates are high
Since 1951 both have declined in the same ratio
While death rate has declined there is little change in the birth rate
Birth rate has declined slower while death rate decreased fast
BKU-14143-A 14
85. Which one of the following is NOT a target of the National Population Policy 2000
Reduce maternity mortality ratio to 50 per lakh live births
Lower down total fertility rate to the replacement level by 2010
To achieve stable population by 2045
Reduce infant mortality rate to below 30 per one thousand live births.
86. Which one of the following has been ignored in the family planning programme in India
Better rural health services Availability of contraceptives
Family planning insurance schemes Changing social environment
87. Consider some of the facts about hydel power in India
1.
These resources are evenly distributed in the country
2.
15-20 percent of the total electricity generation comes from this source
3.
Since independence share of this source of energy is declining
Of the above
Only 1 and 3 are correct Only 2 and 3 are correct
Only 1 and 2 are correct All are correct
88. Which one of the following does NOT help in maintaining ecological balance
Afforestation Prohibition of hunting animals
Deforestation Rainwater harvesting
89. In which State of India sex ratio exceeds 1000
Tamil Nadu Andhra Pradesh
Orissa Kerala
90. In 2004-05 incidence of poverty on all India basis was estimated to be
27.5 percent
21.8 percent
Both and by using two different methods
None of the above
91. From the point of growth of GDP in Indian economy, the break-even year may be
1971 1981
1991 2001
92. Base year for estimating New series of national product at constant prices is
2005-2006 2003-2004
2001-2002 1999-2000
93. The largest source of gross capital formation in India is in
Private sector Corporate sector
Household sector Public sector
BKU-14143-A 15 [Turn over
94. India's ranking in Human Development Index in recent years (mention year) out of 177 countries remains between
116 and 121 121 and 125
125 and 130 130 and 135
95. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of economic planning in India
Totalitarian planning Democratic planning
Perspective planning Financial planning
96. In the early phase of economic planning in India, out of the following, the main strategy was
export promotion import substitute industrialization
consumerism price control and rationing
97. The strategy of the Eleventh Five-year Plan is
the first priority to agricultural development
more production of foodgrains
rapid industrialization
faster and more inclusive growth
98. The base year of the All India Index of Industrial Production at present is
1993-94 1998-99
2003-04 2007-08
99. In India, industries are classified as
cottage, small and large cottage, micro and large
micro, small, medium and large micro, small and large
100. In the year 2008-09 the largest amount of foreign direct investment was received in
telecommunication housing and real estate
computers and accessories automobiles
101. Which one of the following was NOT an objective of land reforms in India
Institutional changes in agriculture
Eliminating all forms exploitation of farmers
Security of tillers of agricultural land
Technological changes to improve productivity of land
BKU-14143-A 16
102. List I includes some aspects of economic development in India and List II items related to
them
List-I List-II
a.
Decentralized planning 1. Green revolution
b.
Community Development Projects 2. New Agricultural Strategy
c.
Intensive Area Development Programme 3. Panchayat Raj
d.
High yielding varieties 4. Block Development Matching items of List-I with those of List-II, select correct answer from the codes given below
Codes
abcd
3421
4231
3412
4321
103. Consider some of the facts about National Food Security Mission
1.
It is Centrally sponsored scheme
2.
Better food grain management is the main objective of the scheme
3.
It aims at increasing production of rice, wheat and pulses
4.
Area expansion, productivity enhancement and improved technology are the main
tools of the programme.
Of the above
Only 3 and 4 are correct
Only 1 and 3 are correct
3 and 4 are correct
3 and 4 are correct
104. Which one of the following is NOT correct about minimum support prices of agricultural products
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices fixes these prices
Prices are announced only for wheat, rice and sugarcane
Government procures foodgrains on these prices
Demand-supply gap and price situation in the country are taken into account in determining these prices.
105. Which one of the following is NOT true about procurement of foodgrains
It is done in crops like wheat, rice and coarse grains
Foodgrains are purchased on minimum support prices
Larger part of foodgrains is distributed through Public Distribution System
Food Corporation of India is the only agency for procuring foodgrains
106. The 'Golden Quadrilateral' is a programme related to
National highways Power transmission lines
State roads Railway network
107. For financing infrastructure projects during the Eleventh Plan emphasis has been given on
larger investment in public sector larger investment in private sector
public-private partnership external financial resources
108. The nature of unemployment in India is
Cyclical Structural
Seasonal Frictional
109. Employment in organized sector in India at present is between
11 and 15 percent 9 and 11 percent
7 and 11 percent 4 and 7 percent
110. Consider some of the facts about National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
1.
The scheme was started in February 2006
2.
National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was merged into the scheme
3.
The basic framework of the scheme was provided by the Maharashtra Employment Guarantee Act
4.
The scheme now covers all the districts of the country
Of the above
only 1 and 4 are correct only 2 and 4 are correct
3 and 4 are correct 3 and 4 are correct
111. Which one of the following is NOT recommended by a Finance Commission
Plan grant to States
Non-plan grants to States
Share of the Central taxes to States
Grant for funding natural calamities in States
112. Target of fiscal deficit in ease of the Union budget for 2008-09 could not be achieved due to
no check on non-essential expenditure
slow growth in tax revenue
larger plan expenditure
larger capital expenditure
113. The largest item of public expenditure in the Union budgets in recent years is
defence expenditure oil-pool deficit
major subsidies interest payments
BKU-14143-A 18
114. In the Union budgets the largest growth in tax revenue during the last 15 years took place in
Personal income tax Corporation tax
Service tax Union excise duties
115. The most important fiscal wrong in the government finances since 1951 has been
large dependence on debt finance large dependence on external assistance
large non-plan expenditure weak tax administration
116. Which of the following is irrelevant in the group
NSE SIDBI
BSE SEBI
117. Which one of the following is NOT correct about Right to Education Act 2009
It provides compulsory and free education for children of the age group 6-14 years
The Act implements the provision of education as a Fundamental Right
For primary education government will provide at least one school in the radius of 1 km
The Act came into force from December 2009.
118. As per the population census 2001, out of the following states the highest literacy rate was recorded in
Bihar Jharkhand
Jammu Kashmir Arunachal Pradesh
119. Which one of the following is the largest item of non-development expenditure in the state budgets of Jammu and Kashmir
Interest payments Police
Miscellaneous general services Pension
120. Which one of the following was the largest source of tax revenue in the state budget of Jammu and Kashmir for the budget 2008-09
State excise Taxes on goods and passenger
Stamp and registration Land revenue
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