1 Sensation of touch is carried by:

a. Anterior and Lateral Spinothalamic tracts only

b. Posterior column tracts only

c. Anterior spinothalamic posterior column tracts

d. Lateral spinothalamic and posterior column tract

2 The nerve supplying parietal layer of serous pericardium is:

a. Intercostal nerve

b. Phrenic nerve

c. Vagus nerve

d.. Sympathetic parasympathetic

3 Longest cranial nerve with extensive distribution is:

a. Glossopharyngeal nerve

b. Trigeminal nerve

c. Vagus nerve

d. Facial nerve


4 Blood supply of primary motor cortex IS:

a. Anterior cerebral artery only

b. Middle cerebral artery only

c. Both. middle anterior cerebral artenes

d. Circle of Willis.



5 Prostatic venous plexuses lies:

a. Outside false capsule

b. Between true false capsule·

c. Deep to true capsule

d. None of the above

6 All are true about Deep corneal vascularization, except:

a. Corneal vessels can be traced over the limbus in to the conjunctiva

b. Deep vessels run parallel to each other in a radial fashion

c. Deep vessels do not disturb the corneal surface

d. Vessels are· ill defined and cause only a diffuse reddish blush

7 Which of the following is/are risk factor for Retinopathy of Prematurity

a. Low gestation age

b. Low birth weight

c. Supplemental oxygen therapy

d. All of the above

8 Travoprost lowers the lOP (Intra Ocular Pressure) by:

a. Reducing the aqueous secretion

b. Increasing the uveosc1eral out flow of aqueous

c. Increasing aqueous outflow by stimulating alpha receptors

d. Contracting longitudinal muscle of ciliary body and opening spaces in trabecular meshwork

9 Enlargement of blind spot is seen in all, except:

a. Papilloedema

b. Medullated nerve fibres

c. Retinitis pigmentosa

d. Drusen of optic nerve

10 Marcus Gunn pupil is seen in:

a. Optic neuritis

b. Central retinal vein occlusion

c. Retinal detachment

d.all of the above

11 Schwartz sign is seen in:

a. CSOM

b. Otosclerosis .

c.Acoustic Neuroma

d. Meniere's Disease

12 High tracheostomy should be done in:

a. Laryngeal papillomatosis

b. Laryngeal carcinoma'

c. Laryngomalacia

d. Vocal cordpalsy

13 HAller cell is:

a. Pneumatized floor of orbit

b. Pneumatized nasalseptum

c. Pneumatized uncinate process

d. Pneumatized superior turbinate

14 The internal tensor muscle of vocal cord is:

a. Posterior crico-arytenoid

b. Thyro-arytenoid

c. Lateral crico-arytenoid

D. Crico-thyroid

15 Reactionary haemorrhage after tonsillectomy occurs:

a. During fIrst 24 hours

b. During fIrst 48 hours

c. After 5 days 121

d. After 10 days

16 Screening is a means of:

a. Primary prevention

b. Secondary prevention

c. Tertiary prevention

d. Primordial prevention

17 Attributable risk means:

a. Communicability of a disease

b. Disease risk ratio between exposed and non-exposed groups

c.Difference in incidence of disease between exposed and non­exposed groups

d. None of the above

18 Serial interval denotes:

a. Interval between PRIMARY and secondary case

b. Interval between fIrst and the last case

c. Interval between incubation and gestation period

d. Period of isolation

19 Human Development Index includes all of the following, except:

a. Life expectancy at birth

b.Life expectancy at age one

c. Adult literacy rate and mean years of schooling

d. Real GDP per capita In purchasing power parity

20 Which of the following health related MDGs talks of child mortality reduction? GI

a.Goal4

b. Goal 5

c. Goal 6

d. Goal 7

21 Which of the following disinfectants is not effective in killing spores?

a.Alcohol

b. Aldehyde

c. Halogen

d. Phenol

22 Sensitivity denotes the ability to detect:

a. True negatives

b.CD True positives

c. False negatives

d. False positives

23 Lead Time' refers to the time between:

a. Disease onset and final critical diagnosis

b. Disease onset and first possible point of detection

c. First possible point of detection and final critical diagnosis

d. First possible point of detection and usual time of diagnosis

24 Chi-square test is used to measure the degree of:

a. Casual relationship between exposure and effect

b. Agreement between two observations

c.Association between two variables

d. Correlation between two variables

25 value indicates the: ;J.

a. Probability of achieving a correct result

b. Probability of achieving an incorrect result

c. Probability of concluding that a difference does not exist while in reality such a difference does exist

d.Probability of concluding that a difference exists while in reality such a difference does not exist

26 The best method to depict trends of events with passage of time is:

a. Bar diagram

b. Histogram

c. Line diagram

d. Pie chart

27 Which of the following vaccines is administered intradermally?

a. BCG

b. Measles

c. Hepatitis B

d. All of the above three

28 Measles vaccine, once re-constituted, should be used within:

a. 1 hour

b. 3 hours

c. 6 hours

d. 12 hours

29 India started the two dose 39· immunization strategy for measles Ill:

a. 2008

B. K 2009

b.2010

d. 2011

30 As per IMNCI, fast breathing in a 5 months infant means:

a. 30 breaths/minute

b. 40 breaths/minute

1 50 breaths/minute

d. 60 breaths/minute

31 The funCtion of glucose in ORS is:

a. To increase sodium absorption

b. To impart taste to ORS

c. To increase the osmolality of ORS

d.To enhance sodium-potassium pump activity

32 Cell culture vaccine doses required for pre-exposure prophylaxis against rabies:

a. 1

b.3

c. 5

d. 7

33 Most important vector for Japanese Encephalitis in South India is:

a. C. tritaeniorhynchus

b. C. fatigans

c. C. gelidus

d. C. vishnui

34 The main vector of dengue fever IS:

a. Aedes albopictus

b. Aedes aegypti

c. Aedes vittatus

d. Aedes scutellaris

35 To achieve neonatal tetanus elimination, the incidence ofneonatal tetanus should be reduced to less than:

a. 0.1 per 1000 live births

b. 0.2 per 1000 live births

c. 0.5 per 1000 live births

d. 1.0 per 1000 live births


36 Which the following exposures carries the highest risk of HIV transmission?

a. Needle stick injury

b. Sexual intercourse

c. Blood transfusion

d. Trans-placental


37 Which of the following is considered the best predictor of CHD?

a. Apo lipoprotein

b. High density lipoprotein

c. Very low density lipoprotein

d. Total lipoprotein

38 Which of the following indices IS independent of height

a. Brocca index

b. Corpulence index

c. Ponderal index

d. Quetelet's index

39 'Orthotoludine-Arsenite Test' of water determines the amount of:

a. Free chlorine

b. Combined cWorine

c. Residual chlorine

d. Nitrates

40 Beer consumption is associated with carcinoma of:

a. Cervix

b. Colon

c. Liver

d.Rectum

41 Which of the following IS not an essential amino acid?

a. Lucine

b. Methionine

c. Histidine

d.Arginine

42 Daily need ofiron is maximum during

a. Menstruation

b. FirsthalfofpregnancyQ

c. Second half of pregnancy

d. Lactation

43 Which of the following items should be avoided in peptic ulcer patients?

a. Milk

b. Rice

c. Noodles

d.Vegetables with seeds

44 The IQ range for normal level of intelligence is:

a. 70-79

b. 80-89

c. 90-109

d. 110-119

45 Sexual relations with one's own close blood relatives is known as:

a. Incest

b. Fetishism

c. Voyeurism

d. Masochism

46 Anthracosis is associated with?

a. Cotton fibre dust

b. Sugar cane dust

c. Wool fibre/dust

d. Coal dust

47 The incubation period in Staphy­lococcal food pOlsomng ranges between:

a. 1to 6 hours

b. 6to24hours

c. 12 to 24 hours

d. 12 to 36 hours

48 Which of the following is meant for disposal of human anatomical waste?

a. Yellow plastic bags

b. Red plastic bags

c. Blue plastic bags

d. Black plastic bags

49 The 'Year ofBig Divide' with reference to the population trends in India was:


a. 1901


b. 1921

c. 1941

d. 1961

50 Denominator for calculation of general fertility rate is:

a. Midyear population

b. Population in the age group of 15 to 49 years

c. Midyear IS :male population in the age group of 15 to 49 years

d. Midyear married female population in the age group of 15 to 49 years

51 Bilateral clamping of carotid arteries proximal to the carotid sinus causes:

a. Increase in blood pressure and decrease in heart rate

b. Decrease in blood pressure and decrease in heart rate

c. Decrease in blood pressure and increase in heart rate

d. Increase in blood pressure and increase in heart rate

52 When a segment of nerve gets depolarized:

a. The Na+ ATPase channel extrudes two Na+ in exchange of 3 ions

b. Voltage gated K channel permeability decreases

c. Voltage gated Na channel permeability increases

d. H+ channel activity increases

53 Which of the following is not a basal ganglia nucleus:

a. Putamen

b. Subthalamic nuclei

c. Substantianigra

d. Preoptic nucleus

54 Regarding vasopressin which is false:

a. Alcohol increases its secretion

b. Decreases plasma osmolarity

c. Increases the blood pressure

d. Stress increases its secretion

55 Vagal escape is not because of:

a. Exhaustion of neurotransmitter Ach

b. Sympathetic stimulation

c. Idioventricular rhythm

d. Sympathetic suppression

56 Drug of choice in alcohol withdrawal syndrome is:

a. Chlordiazepoxide

b. Diazepam

c. Disulfram

d. Acamprosate

57 Operant conditioning for increasing behaviour is done by all, except:

a. Positive reinforcement

b. Negative reinforcement

c. Modeling

d. Timeout

58 Elements of communicating Bad News -The P-SPIKES Approach does not consist of:

a. Preparation

b. Knowledge of the condition

c. Empathy and Exploration

d.Follow up meeting

59 Heavy alcoholism and poor oral' intake, the risk of deficiency of all of the following vitamins is likely, except:

a. Folate

b. Thiamine

c. VitaminC

d. VitaminE


60 Coin shaped lesion of skin is used to describe:

a. Herpetiform

b. Lichenoid

c.Nummular

d. Morbilliform

61 Following therapies are used III treatment of psoriasis, except:

a. Cyclosporine

b. Infliximab

c. Methotrexate

d. Prednisone

62 In a HIV positive patient, development of red/purple nodular painless lesion suggest manifestation of:

a. Kaposi Sarcoma

b. Psoriasis

c. Molluscum contagiosum

d. Herpes Zoster

63 Effective therapy for Scabies is:

a.Permethrin

b. Metronidazole

c. Ivermectin

d. Azithromycin

64 Drug used for preventing future stroke

a.in a patient of aortic valve disease with left sided Cerebrovascular accident is: G Antiplatelet only

b. OralAnticogulant only

c. Both antiplatelet and oral anticoagulant

d. Heparin therapy

65 All help in the initial management ofJ5' Anaphylactic shock, except:

a. Crystalloid infusion

b.Steroid

c. Early Respiratory Support and Oxygenation

d. Adrenaline


66 Treatment of .choice in female of childbearing age for Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy is?

a. Valproate

b. Levetiracetam

c. Carbamazepine

d. Lamotrigene

67 Adjunctive treatment of seizures associated with Lennox Gastaut's syndrome is:

A. Rufmamide

b. Lacosamide

c. Vigabatrin

d. Zonisamide

68 udden onset of headache, vomiting and neck rigidity without focal neurological deficit are features of:

a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

b. Ischaemic stroke

c. Subdural hematoma

d. Brain abscess

69 Which of the following is not a feature of Idiopathic Pulmonary Arterial hypertension:

a. Loud second heart sound

b. Tricuspid regurgigation is nearly always present

c.Associated with parenchymal disease

d. Little variation with respiration in splitting of second heart sound

70 (Pericardial tamponade may be present with, except:

a. Kussmaul's sign

b. Pulsusparadoxus

c. RapidYdescent

d. Opening snap

71 In a patient with heart failure due· to Ischaemic Cardiomyopathy in atrial fibrillation, presence of following physical finding is least likely: o Fourth Heart Sound

b. Irregular Heart Rate

c. Pulsus alternans

d. Third Heart Sound

72 Abnormal Ankle -brachial Index cut off value is?

a. Less than 0.3

b. Less than 0.6

c. Less than 0.9

d. More than 1.2

73 Complete Left Bundle Branch is not associated with:

a. Coronary Heart Disease

b. Hypertensive Heart Disease

c. Aortic Valve Disease

d.Congenial Heart Disease

74 Osborne waves is a feature of severe:

a.Hypothermia

b. Hypokalemia

c. Digoxintoxicity

d. Hypocalcaemia

75 Standard Measure for determining the global burden of disease on a population is:

a.Disability adjusted life years

b. Life Expectancy

c. Infant Mortality

d. Standardized mortality ratio

76 Independent risk factor for coronary heart disease in women but not men is?

a. ElevatedTotal triglyceride level

b. Elevated total cholesterol

c. Hypertension

d. Low high density lipoprotein cholesterol

77 Cardiovascular condition contraindi­cated to pregnancy is?

a. Idiopathic pulmonary Arterial Hypertension

b. Mitral Regurgitation

c. Aortic stenosis

d. Atrial septal defect without Eisenmengar syndrome

78 Most common type of preventable adverse events in hospitalized patients is:

a. Adverse Drug Events

b. Diagnostic Failures

c. Wound Infections

d. Falls

79 Blood streaked sputum with normal chest radiograph, most likely the cause IS:

a. Acute Bronchitis

b. Lung abscess

c. Medication

d. Tuberculosis

80 Disorder affecting lower motor neuron has all features except:

a. Decreased muscle tone

b. Fasciculation

c. Severe muscle

d. atrophy Hyperactive tendon reflexes

81 Most common cause of gait disorder in elderly is:

a. Cerebeller degeneration

b. Cervical myelopathy

c. Parkinson's disease

d. Sensory deficits

82 Following is the most common finding iIi aphasic patient:

a. Alexia

b. Anomia

c. Comprehension

d. Fluency

83 All are options for treatment of Restless legs syndrome, except:

a. Iron supplementation

b. 116 Pramipexole

c. Gabapentin

d. Hormone replacement therapy

84 Anion gap Metabolic Acidosis is seen with:

a. Diarrhoea

b. Diabetic Ketoacidosis

c. MethylAlcohol poisoning

d. Acute renal Failure

85 Channelopathy is the mechanistic abnormality in following Neurological disorders, except:

a. Epilepsy

b. Migraine

c. Parkinson's disease

d. Lambert Eaton syndrome

86 Following medications have been shown to have potential efficacy in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease, except:

a. Donepezil

b. Memantine

c. Rivastigmine

d.Oxybutynin

87 Which of the following IS true for trigeminal Neuralgia:

a. GFirst line of therapy is carbamazepine

b. Deep seated, steady facial pain

c. Objective signs of sensory loss on physical examination

d. Elevated Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

88 All the following cause primarily a sensory Neuropathy, except:

a. Hypothyroidism

b. Critical Illness

c. HIV Infection

d. Vitamin B12 deficiency

89 All the following are ·true regarding the development of acute mountain sickness, except:

a. Acetazolamide starting one day before ascent is effective in decreasing the risk

b. Gradual ascent is protective

c. History of prior high illness is a risk factor

c.attitude Improved physical conditioning

d. before the trip decreases the risk

90 Absolute contraindication to hyperbaric oxygen therapy is:

a. Carbon monoxide poisoning

b. History of COPD

c. Radiation proctitis

d. Untreated pneumothorax

91 Tumor Lysis syndrome leads to metabolic syndrome of the following, except:

a. Hyperuricemia

b. Hyperkalemia

c. Hypocalcemia

d. Hypophosphatemia

92 All of the following syndromes are associated with obesity, except:

a. Acromegaly

b. Cushing's syndrome

c. Hypothyroidism

d. Prader-Willi Syndrome

93 Risk factor for developing peripartum cardiomyopathy are, except:

a. Advanced age

b. Use of tocolytic therapy

c. Twin pregnancy

d. Primi parity

94 Commonest presentation In twin gestation is:

a. Both vertex

b. First vertex second breech

c. First breech second vertex

d. Both breech

95 Twin peak sign is best seen at what gestation?

a. 4-6 weeks

b. 10-12weeks

c. 16-20 weeks

d. 24-28 weeks

96 Discordant twins are diagnosed by which ultrasound parameter:

a. Abdominal circumference

b. Femur length

c. Estimated birth weight

d. Head circumference



97 Which of the following is ,.Dot a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma:

a. Diabetes

b. Hypertension

c. Obesity

d. Ovulation induction drugs

98 type of endometrial carcmoma IS:

a. Adenocarcinoma

b. Squamous cell carcinoma

c. Clear cell carcinoma

d. Sarcoma

99 What is the most common cause of foetal death in breech delivery?

a. Intracranial hemorrhage

b. Aspiration

c. Atlanto axial dislocation

d. Asphyxia

100 Couvelaire uterus occurs in:

a. Vasa previa

b. Abruptio placenta

c. Placenta previa

d. Placenta percreta

101 At 28 weeks gestation, amniocentesis reveals a ilOD 450 of 0.20 which is at the top ofthird zone ofliley curve. The most appropriate management is:

a. Immediate delivery

b. Intrauterine transfusion

c. Repeat week amniocentesis after

d. Plasmapheresis

102 Nonimmune hydrops fetalis is seen in all of the following conditions, except:

a. Thalassemia

b. parvovirus -19

c. Rh-incompatibility

d. Chromosomal anomaly

103 BY which of the following tests the fetal blood can be differentiated from maternal blood?

a. Kleihauer test

b. Apt test

c. Bubble test

d. Lilly's test

104 In diamniotic dizygotic twins division of embryo takes place at which stage:

a. Morula stage

b. Inner cell mass

c. After formation of embryonic disc

d. After formation of amniotic cavity

105 Which of the following procedures has the highest sensitivity for diagnosing endo metrial carcinoma?

a. hysteroscopy guided endo metrial biopsy

b. dilatation and curettage

c. endometrial biopsy

d. endometrial aspiration biopsy

106 Corpus cancer syndrome includes all of the following, except:

a. Diabetes

b. Hypertension

c. Obesity

d. PCOS lor:

107 Caput present on arietal bone after delivery is suggestive of which position of fetus?

a. Right occipito transverse

b. Direct occipito posterior

c. Left occipito posterior

d. Left occipito anterior

108 Anterior fontanel occifies at what age?

a. 6 months

b. 12 months

c. 18 months

d. 2 year

109 Assessment of progress of labour in best assessed by

a. station of head

b. rupture of membrane

c. uterine contractions

d. partogram

110 The following are the cause for the onset of labour, ex.

c.ept

a. Oxytocin

b. Oestrogen-progesterone

c. Adrenal gland

d. HCG

111 Separation of placenta occur in the:

a. spongiosa layer of deciduas vera

b. compact layer of deciduas basalis

c. spongiosa layer of deciduas basalis

d. compact layer of deciduas capsularis

112 puring pregnancy HIV transmission occur mainly during:

a. 151 trimester

b. 2Dd trimester

c. 3rd trimester

d. Labour

113 Which contraception is effective in preventing transmission of HIV VIruS:

a. Oral contraceptives

b. Barrier method

c. Intrauterine devices

d. Sterilization

114 Which of the following is the best marker for neural tube defect?

a. Acetyl glucosanidase

b. Acetylcholinesterase

c. Alpha fetoprotein

d. Choronic gonadotrophin

115 Active line in modified WHO partogram starts at?

a. 2cm

b. 3cm

C. 4cm/

d. 5cm

116 Current recommendation for exclusive Breast Feeding is:

a. 3 months

b. 6 months

c. 9 months

d. 12 months

117 Anti D immunoglobin must be administered within:

a. 24 hrs of delivery

b. 48 hrs of delivery

c. 72 hrs of delivery

d. 96 hrs of delivery

118 A hypertensive pregnant woman reports at 4weeks with history of pain in abdomen, bleeding per vaginum and losS offetal movements. On examination, the uterus is tense . with increased uterine tone. Fetal heart sounds are absent. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Placenta praevia

b. Rupture uterus

c. Vasa previa

d. Abruptio placenta

119 25 year para last delivery 2 months back, comes to emergency with history of irregular bleeding peL vaginum since last delivery and hemoptysis for one week. After examination and investigations, she is diagnosed to be a case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia with lung metastasis. She should be staged as:

a. Stage I

b. Stage II

c. Stage III

d. Stage IV

120 A pregnant woman develops acute pain in abdomen with low grade at 28 weeks of gestation. us a shows a normal fetus, placenta is fundal. A 8x8 em fibroid is seen in the anterior wall of the uterus. Laboratory investigations are Hb-llgm dl, mild leucocytosis, urine 1-2 pus cells/high power fiel

d. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Colitis

b. Abruptio placentae

c. UTI

d. Red degeneration of fibroid

121 A31 year old female with three living children and a tubal ligation has a Pap smear reported as highgrade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL). There are no macroscopic lesions. Management should be:

a. Repeat Pap smear after 3 months

b. HPV testing

c. Colposcopically directed cervical/ biopsy

d. Total abdominal hysterectomy

122 A young woman presents with infertility, hysterosalpingogram shows beaded fallopian tubes with clubbing of ampullary en

d. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Gonococcal infection

b. Chlamydial infection

c. Tubercular infection

d. Gp B Streptococcal infection

123 Best marker for Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is?

a. Serum Transaminases

b. Bilirubin

c. Bileacids

d. ALP

124 . MRI findings of placenta accrete include all, except:

a. Invasion of bladder

b. Placental lakes

c. Loss of nitabuch's layer

d. Loss of interface between deciduas and myometrium

125 Most important parameter for detection of IUGR is:

a. HCIAC RATIO

b. Abdominal Circumference

c. Ponderal index

d. Transcerebellar diameter

126 Abdominal circumference of fetus is measured at level of:

a. Hepatic veins

b.Junction of right and left portal veins

c. Gall bladder

d. Inferior vena cava

127 lemon sign on ultrasonography IS seen is

a. Fetus with renal agenesis

b. Fetus with spina bifida

c. Diaphragmatic hernia

d. Fetus with anal atresia

128 Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly:

a. Coarctation of aorta

b. Ebstein's anomaly

c. Fallots's tetrology

d. Transposition of great arteries

129 In cell injury and cell death reactiv oxygen species cause oxidation

a. Fatty acid

b. Proteins

c. Polysaccarides

d. DNA

130 Melaslalic calcification is seen with

a. Tuberculosis

b. Atherosclerosis

c. Calcific valvular diseases

d. Hyperparathyoidism VI.

131 White infarcs occur in:

a. Ovary

b. Lung

c. Spleen

d. Small intestine

132 B cell associated antigel CALLA is?

a. CdlO

b. Cd19

c. Cd20

d. Cd21

133 Asbestos related diseases include:

a. Mesothelioma

b. Lung carcinoma

c. Parenchymal interstitial fibrosis

d. All of the above

134 The earliest detected serum marker in Hepatitis B infection is:

a. HBsAg

b. HBV DNA

c. DNA polymerase

d. None of the above

135 lea-bitten kidney is seen in:

a. Amyloidosis

b. Malingnantnephrosclerosis

c. Multiple myeloma

d. Urate nephropathy

136 In myocardial infarctions gross morphological changes are appreciated as early as in:

a. 1-4hours 4-12hours

c. 12-24 hours

d. 1-3 days

137 All of the following agents act by intracellular receptors, except:

a. Thyroid hormones

b. VitaminD

c. Insulin

d. Steroid

138 Which of the following antiplatelet drug is a prodrug?

a. Clopidogrel

b. Tirofibam

c. Aspirin

d. Dipyridamole

139 rug used to perform stress ECHO IS:

a. Thallium

b. Dobutamine

c. Adrenaline

d. Adenosine

140 Entacapone is an antiparkinsonism drug which acts by:

a. Agonism at dopamine receptors

b. Antogonism at dopamine receptors

c. Monoamine oxidase inhibition

d. Catechol-o-methyl transferase inhibition

141 which of the following drugs can cause Torsades de pointes?

a. CV Quinidine

b. Lignocaine

c. Esmolol

d. Flecainide

142 rug of choice for central diabetes insipidus is:

a. Desmopressin"

b. Leuprolide

c. Thiazide diuretics

d. Insulin

143 All of the following drugs are commonly used against enteric fever, except:

a. CD Amikacin

b. Ciprofloxacin

c. Ceftriaxone

d. Azithromycin

144 Antimicrobials effective against anaerobic bacteria include all of the following, except:

a. Tobramycin

b. Clindamycin

c. Chloramphenicol

d. Metronidazole

145 which of the following is the drug of choice for neurocysticercosis?

a. Praziquantel

b. Albendazole

c. Levamisole

d. Piperazine

146 Which of the following Immune suppressant is not used for the treatment of cancers?

a. Cyclophosphamide

b. Cyclosporine

c. C. Methotrexate

d. 6-Mercaptopurine

147 24 day old neonate presents with projectile vomitings and failure to gain weight. He is most likely suffering from:

a. Duodenal Artesia

b. Intracranial tumor

c. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

d. Necrotizing enterocolitis.

148 A mother is worried about her 5 year old male child's bedwetting. The treatment prescribed for him should be:

a. No treatment

b. Imipramine

c. Oxybutynin

d. Desmopressin.

149 3 week old neonate passes 12-15 loose motions a day for the last 6 days but is breast feeding well. He was born 3 kg and now weighs 3.5 kg. Ideal management option should be:

a. Stop breast feeds and change to soya milk.

b. Antibiotic

c. Probiotics and ORS

d. No treatment

150 The blood pressure of a 10 year old boy in right arm is 95/70 in lower extremity is 70/40. The most likely diagnosis is: IS

a. Atrial septal defect

b. Coarctation of Aorta

c. Truncus arteriosus

d. Patent ductus arteriosus

151 WhiCh of the following is an important extrame dullary site of relapse in a 6 year old child suffering from Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia?

a. Testes

b. Lungs

c. Liver

d. Lymph node.

152 A 32 week premature baby who was ventilated is at higher risk to have which type of Cerebral Palsy:

a. Spastic diplegia

b. Spastic quadriplegia

c. Hemiplegic Cerebral Palsy

d. Dyskinetic Cerebral Palsy.

153 A female child who presented with features of pseudohermaphroditism is most likely suffering from:

a. Turner syndrome

b. Pituitary tumor

c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

d. Mullerian duct failure

154 12 yrs old boy presented with gross hematuria with 80% dysmorphic RBC's two days after an attack of upper respiratory tract infection. Diagnosis is?

a. Membranous Nephropathy

b. IgA Nephropathy

c. Poststreptococcal glomerulnephritis

d. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

155 A newborn is vomiting blood. The test used to differentiate between swallo'wed maternal blood and neonatal gastro-intestinal bleed is:

a. Shake test

b. Apttest

c. Shick test

d. Casoni's test.

156 One parent is homozygous other IV. is heterozygous for an Autosomal Recessive gene. What will be the outcome?

a. 75% children affected

b. 50% children affected, 50% earners

c. No child affected, all carriers

d. 25% children affected, rest carriers

157 Which of the following IS a non absorbable suture?

a. Polypropylene

b. Vicryl

c. Catgut

d. Polydioxanone

158 Which of the following is used to define penetrating neck injury?

a. 2cm depth of wound

b. Injury to vital structures

c. Breach of platysma

d. Though and through wound

159 Which of the following is not a histological variant of thyroid neoplasm?

a. Follicular

b. Merkel cell

c. Insular

d. Anaplastic

160 Best prognostic factor for head injury is?

a. Glasgow coma scale

b. Age

c. Mode of injury

d. CT

161 Primary closure of incised wound must be done within:

a. 2hrs

b. 4hrs

c. 6hrs

d. 16hrs

162 The commonest cause of metabolic alkalosis is:

a. Carcinoma Stomach

b. Pyloric stenosis

c. Small bowel obstruction

d. Diuretics

163 Blood platelets in stored blood do not remain functional after

a. 24

b. 48

c. 72

d. 96

164 ALL of the following are features of hypovolemic shock, except:

a. Oliguria

b. Bradycardia

c. Low B.P

d. Acidosis

165 Cock's peculiar tumour is?

a. Papilloma

b. Infected sebaceous cyst

c. Cylindroma

d. Squamous cell carcinoma

166 Marjolin's ulcer is?

a. Squamous celi carcinoma from scar

b. Adenomaofscar

c. Tuberculous ulcer

d. Amoebic ulcer

167 Which of the following characterise a dermoid cyst?

a. Cheesy material

b. Presence of columnar epithelium

c. Tooth

d. None of the above

168 us in burns forms in?

a. 2-3days

b. 3-5 days

c. 2-3 weeks

d. 4weeks

169 All of the following are true about burger's disease, except:

a. Only in males

b. Age less than 40

c. Smoker

d. Age more than 50

170 Ear1iest sign of deep vein thrombosis is?

a. B Calf tenderness

b. Rise in temperature

c. Swelling of calf muscles

d. Homan's sign

171 Malignant cell in Hodgkin's lymphoma is?

a. Histiocytes

b. Reticulum celis

c. 8 Reed Sternberg cell

d. Lymphocytes

172 Seat belt may cause injury to:

a. Duodenum

b. Head due to wind screen

c. Thorax

d. All

173 Fat embolism is seen in:

a. Prolonged labour

b. Fractured femur

c. Sickle cell anaemia

d. CVC liver

174 All of the following are signs of cerebral compression, except:

a. Bradycardia

b. Hypotension

c. Papilloedema

d. Vomiting

175 Commonest site of meningocele is?

a. Lumbosacral

b. Occipital

c. Frontal

d. Thoracic

176 Commonest type of cleft lip is?

a. Bilateral

b. Midline

c. Unilateral

d.Combined with cleft palate

177 Mandible is commonly fractured:

a. At the neck of the condyle

b. Through the angle

c. Through the canine fossa

d. At the middle

178 Commonest site of carcinoma tongue is?

a. Apical

b. Lateral borders

c. Dorsum

d. Posterior

179 Parotid duct is known as:

a. Wharton's duct

b. Stenson's duct

c. Duct of Sartirini

d. Duct of Wirsung

180 ALL are true about cystic hygroma, except:

a. Pulsatile

b. May cause respiratory obstruction

c. Common in neck

d. Present at birth

181 commonest thyroid malignancy

a. Medullary carcinoma

b. Follicular carcinoma

c. Anapalstic carcinoma

d. Papillary carcinoma


182 When do you think the NGT tube be removed?

a. When patient requests for it

b. Abdomen is soft

c. and patient asks for water

8 Abdomen is soft and flatus has been expelled

d. band conly

183 If after surgery the patient's abdomen becomes distended and no bowel sounds are appreciated, what would be the most. suspected complication?

a. Intussusception

b. 19 Paralytic Ileus

c. Hemorrhage

d. Ruptured colon

184 Peritonitis • may occur in ruptured appendix and may cause serious problems which are:

1. Hypovolemia, electrolyte imbalance
2. Elevated temperature, weakness and diaphoresis
3. Nausea and vomiting, rigidity of the abdominal wall
4. Pallor and eventually shock

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 1,2and 3

d. All of the above

185 COmmon anaesthesia for appendectomy is:

a. Spinal

b. General

c. Caudal

d. Hypnosis

186 One of the complications of prolonged bed rest is decubitus ulcer. Which of the following can best prevent its occurrence?

a. Massage reddened areas with lotion or oils

b. Turn frequently every 2 hours

c. Use special water mattress

d. Keep skin clean and dry

187 What should the doctor tell clients when they are advised Probanthine?

a. Avoid hot weathers to prevent heat strokes

b. Never swim in a chlorinated pool

c. Make sure you limit your fluid intake to lL a day

d. Avoid cold weathers to prevent hypothermia

188 The patient was prescribed with levodopa What is the action of this drug? Increase dopamine availability

a. Activates dopaminergic

b. receptors in the basal ganglia

c. Decrease acetylcholine availability

d. Release dopamine and other catecholamine from neurological storage sites

189 WhiCh of the following IS a characteristic of a patient with advanced Parkinson's disease?

a. Disturbed vision

b. Forgetfulness

c. Mask like facial expression

d. Muscle atrophy

190 AproXimatelY how much fluid is lost in acute weight loss of .5kg?

a. 50ml

b. 750ml

c. 500ml

d. 75ml

191 After mastoidectomy, doctor should 7· aware that the cranial nerve that usually gets damaged after this procedure is?

a. CNI

b. CNII

c. CNVII

d. CNVI

192 IN Takayama Test, which of the following is seen under the microscope? .

a. Yellowish to brownish rhomboid crystals

b. Yellow needle shaped crystals

c. Pink feathery crystals

d. Spherical granules

193 Lucid interval may be seen in?

a. Intra-cerebral haemorrhage

b. Sub-dural haemorrhage

c. Insanity

d. Alcohol intake

194 FOllOWing are the features of Chronic Lead Poisoning, except:

a. Encephalopathy

b. Burtonian Line

c. Cutaneous blisters

d. Constipation

195 Perjury falls under:

a. Section 190 ofIndian Penal code

b. Section 84 ofIndian Penal code

c. Section 182 ofIndian Penal code

d. Section 193 ofIndian Penal code

196 The following conditions of defence are available to a doctor against allegations of negligence, except:

a. Medical mal-occurance

b. No fees for treatment charged

c. Therapeutic misadventure

d. Res Judicata

197 About female's pelvis, which of the following is incorrect?

a. Sub-pelvic angle >90 degree

b. Well markedpre-auricular sulcus

c. Oval obturator foramen

d. Greater schiatic notch wide and shallow

198 POst-mortem caloricity is seen in?

a. Stryichnine poisoning

b. Organophosphorus poisoning

c. Dhatura (Atropa beladona) pOIsomng

d. Ergot poisoning

199 ardiac polyp is a term used in post 7 for:

a. Fibrinous clot in heart

b. Aneurysm

c. Infracts in heart

d. Pale patches in heart

200 KeYhOle bullet injury is a feature of:

a. Tandem bullet

b. Dumdum bullet

d. Fragmentation of bullet

c. Richochet bullet