1. Cori's cycle transfers:

a. Glucose from muscles to liver

b. Lactate from muscles to liver

c. Lactate from liver to muscles

d. Pyruvate from liver to muscles

2. The enzymes of urea synthesis are found in:

a. Mitochondria only

b. Cytosol only

c. Both mitochondria and cytosol

d. Nucleus

3. The presence of bilirubin in the urine without urobilinogen suggests:

a. Obstructive jaundice

b. Hemolytic jaundice

c. Pernicious anemia

d. Damage to the hepatic parenchyma

4. Ketone bodies are synthesized in:

a. Adipose tissue

b. Liver

c. Muscles

d. Brain

5. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in a deficiency of:

a. Vitamin B6

b. Folic acid

c. Thiamin

d. Vitamin B12

6. To calculate the proper power of the intraocular lens, which measurement is most essential?

a. Preoperative refraction

b. Corneal thickness

c. Horizontal 'white-to-white' corneal measurement

d. Axial length

7. Giant papillary conjunctivitis is seen in:

a. Soft contact lens wearers

b. Ocular prosthesis

c. Hard contact lens wearers

d. All of the above

8. A 45-year old welder comes to the emergency directly from work and complains of bilateral pain and photophobi

a. The most likely cause is:

a. Infrared burn to the eyes

b. Acute photic keratitis

c. Ultraviolet absorption by lens

d. Retinal toxicity

9. Elevated intraocular pressure may be associated with uveitis because of:

a. Trabeculitis

b. Iris stromal edema

c. Keratic precipitates

d. All of the above

10. Which of the following is the most common presentation of retinoblastoma?

a. Pseudohypopyon

b. A red eye

c. Leukokoria

d. Neovascular glaucoma

11. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur in following sites except:

a. Oesophageal opening

b. Bochdalek triangle

c. Foramen of Morgagni

d. Inferior vena cava opening

12. Locking of knee joint is caused by:

a. Quadriceps femoris

b. Gastrocnemius

c. Popliteus

d. Rectus femoris

13. Common peroneal nerve can be rolled against the:

a. Neck of fibula

b. Neck of tibia

c. Lower end of fibula

d. Lower end of tibia

14. All of the following nerves contribute to sensory supply of face except:

a. Facial

b. Maxillary

c. Mandibular

d. Ophthalmic

15. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is caused by compression of which nerve:

a. Ulnar

b. Radial

c. Median

d. Musculocutaneous

16. Anti-LKM antibodies are found in:

a. Inflammmatory Myopathies

b. Behcet' Syndrome

c. HCV Infection

d. Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

17. Fragile X syndrome is:

a. autosomal dominant

b. autosomal recessive

c. X linked dominant

d. X linked recessive

18. Which of the follwing is not an action of bradykinin?

a. Bronchodilation

b. Vasodilation

c. Pain

d. Increase in vascular permeability

19. Marker for langerhan's cell histiocytosis is:

a. CD5

b. CD1a

c. CD22

d. CD30

20. A person who is heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia has increased resistance for:

a. Malaria

b. Filariasis

c. Dengue haemorrhagic fever

d. Thalassemia

21. A 26 years old woman has history of 4 first trimester abortions. Hysterosalpingography shows a thin uterine septum. Which of the following is the right management for her?

a. No active intervention

b. Hysteroscopic resection

c. Strassmann operation

d. Tompkins operation

22. Which of the following is the most common acquired heart disease lesion found in pregnancy

a. Mitral stenosis

b. Mitral regurgitation

c. Aortic stenosis

d. Aortic regurgitation

23. Which of the following Tocolytic agent causes maternal respiratory depression?

a. Calcium channel blockers

b. Prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors (indomethacin)

c. Magnesium sulphate

d. Isoxsuprine

24. The most common cause of post partum hemorrhage is:

a. Traumatic

b. Atonic uterus

c. Coagulopathy

d. Retained placenta

25. Which of the following is the most common type of anemia in Indian pregnant women

a. Megaloblastic anemia

b. Iron deficiency anemia

c. Sickle cell anemia

d. Hemolytic anemia

26. During a menstrual cycle, when does Ovulation occur?

a. Immediately after LH surge

b. 12 hours after LH surge

c. 24 hours after LH surge

d. 36 hours after LH surge

27. Insulin requirements of pregnant diabetic women are greatest during: st

a. The 1 half of pregnancy

b. The 2nd half of pregnancy

c. During lactation

d. The immediate postpartum period

28. Which of the following is the Karyotype of complete mole?

a. 46, XX

b. 46, XY

c. 47, XXY

d. 47, XYY

29. Which of the following is the Obstetric cause of DIC?

a. Diabetes mellitus

b. Abruptio placentae

c. Anemia

d. Epilepsy

30. Which of the following is characteristically associated with Oligohydroamnios

a. Rh isoimmunization

b. Renal agenesis

c. Diabetes mellitus

d. Hypothyroidism

31. A 24 years old primipara suddenly develops dyspnoea, chest pain, cyanosis associated with a fall in blood pressure, rapid pulse and restlessness on 2nd postoperative day of caesarean section. The most probable diagnosis is:

a. Acute pulmonary atelectasis

b. Pulmonary embolism

c. Pneumonitis

d. Myocardial infarction

32. A 35 years old infertile woman undergoes laparoscopic evaluation. At laparascopy, the uterus and tubes are normal. The peritoneum of the pelvis and broad ligament are studded with small reddish-purple excrescences. The diagnosis is:

a. Endometriosis

b. Miliary Tuberculosis

c. Lymphoma

d. Hemangiom

a.

33. A G2P1 gets admitted as emergency at 34 weeks of gestation with painless bleeding per vaginum. She is haemodynamically stable, the uterus size corresponds to 34 weeks, is soft and relaxed FHS is 154/min, regular. There is slight bleeding per vaginum. The plan of management will be:

a. Expectant line of treatment

b. Double setup examination

c. Gentle speculum examination to exclude local causes

d. Emergency caesarean section to avoid risk of hemmorhage

34. A 28 year old woman presented with infertility, hysterosalpingogram showed beaded fallopian tubes with clubbing of ampullary en

d. Which of the following infection can produce this picture?

a. Gonococcal

b. Chlamydial

c. Tuberculosis

d. Streptococcal

35. A drop in fetal heart rate that typically starts with the onset of contraction, peaks with the peak of contraction and lasts till the contraction is over is called:

a. Early declaration

b. Late declaration

c. Variable declaration

d. Prolonged declaration

36. As per WHO, Severe anemia is defined as Hb level less than:

a. 4gm/dl

b. 5gm/dl

c. 6gm/dl

d. 7gm/dl

37. The most frequent presentation in twin pregnancy:

a. Vertex and breech

b. Vertex and vertex

c. Breech and breech

d. Breech and shoulder

38. Couvelaire uterus is seen in:

a. Vasa previa

b. Placenta accreta

c. Abruptio placentae

d. Placenta previa

39. Which of the following malformation in a newborn is specific for diabetic mother

a. Tracheo-esophageal Fistula

b. Caudal regression

c. Duodenal atresia

d. Meningomyelocele

40. The most frequent cause of acute pelvic inflammatory disease is

a. Staphylococcus

b. Tubercular bacilli

c. Gonococcus

d. Streptococcus

41. A 25 years old women is having amenorrhoea since she underwent curettage for incomplete septic abortion 6 months back. Urine for pregnancy test is negative. Her possible diagnosis is:

a. Tuberculosis

b. Hypothyroidism

c. Asherman syndrome

d. Sheehan syndrome

42. Which of the following is the most common cause of first trimester abortion

a. TORCH infection

b. APLA[Antiphospholipid antibodies]

c. Chromosomal aberration

d. Diabetes mellitus

43. The most common indication for emergency hysterectomy for postpartum hemorrhage is:

a. Placenta accrete

b. Uterine rupture

c. Uterine atony

d. Extension of a low transverse incision

44. In which of the following Gynecological surgeries, Ureteric injuries are most likely to occur?

a. Wertheim hysterectomy

b. Manchester operation

c. Vaginal hysterectomy

d. Sacrospinous fixation of the vault

45. Which of the following is the most common type of carcinoma cervix?

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

b. Adeno carcinoma

c. Adeno squamous carcinoma

d. Clear cell carcinoma

46. Uterine artery is a branch of:

a. Common iliac arteries

b. Internal iliac arteries

c. External iliac arteries

d. Abdominal aorta

47. In which of the following conditions, misoprostol is not to be used for Induction of labor

a. Preeclampsia

b. Postmaturity

c. Previous caesarean section

d. Intra uterine death.

48. A primigravida had a forceps delivery and she gave birth to a 3.7 Kg baby. The episiotomy tear was found to have extended through sphincter of the rectum but the rectal mucosa was intact. How would you classify this extension of episiotomy?

a. First degree tear

b. Second degree tear

c. Third degree tear

d. Fourth degree tear

49. In a primigravida in labor at term with a non-rotated vertex presentation at station cord prolapse occurs with the cervix fully dilated and the fetus alive. Treatment of choice is:

a. Ventouse assisted delivery

b. Caesarean section

c. Forceps delivery

d. Internal podalic version followed by breech extraction

50. A 22 year old P1 visits her doctor 7 days postpartum because she is concerned that she is still bleeding from the vagin

a. The doctor reassured her after examination that bloody lochia can last upto

a. One week

b. Two weeks

c. Three weeks

d. Four weeks

51. Vaccine associated with Intussusception is:

a. Varicella Vaccine

b. Rota virus Vaccine

c. Hepatitis A Vaccine

d. Oral Polio Vaccine

52. Which of the following is stigmata of Varicella-Zoster Virus fetopathy?

a. Congenital heart disease

b. Cicatricial skin lesions

c. Hepatosplenomegaly

d. Neural tube defects

53. In which of the following infections, face is spared

a. Measles

b. Rickettsial disease

c. Scarlet fever

d. Infectious mononucleosis

54. Hand-Foot-and-Mouth disease is caused by:

a. Coxsackie virus

b. Cytomegalovirus

c. Adeno virus

d. Ebola virus.

55. Which of the following is an important extramedullary site of relapse in a 6 year old child suffering from Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia?

a. Testes

b. Lungs

c. Liver

d. Lymph node

56. Commonest complication of mumps is:

a. Meningoencephalitis

b. Orchitis

c. Arthritis

d. Myocarditis

57. A patient has anti-mongoloid slant, low-set notched ears, hypoplasia of thymus, VSD, esophageal atresia and hypocalcaemic seizures. The diagnosis is:

a. Down Syndrome

b. Pierre Robin Syndrome

c. Di George Syndrome

d. Vater anomaly

58. Which of the following immuno­deficiency syndromes is X-linked recessive

a. Ataxia telangiectasia

b. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

c. Severe Combined Immuno­deficiency Syndrome

d. Di-George syndrome

59. Which of the following bacterial infections produce most lethal poisonous toxin?

a. Clostridium tetani

b. Clostridium botulinum

c. Clostridium difficile

d. Clostridium butyricum

60. Most useful anti-bacterial in the treatment of Brucellosis is

a. Clarithromycin

b. Doxycycline

c. Third generation Cephalosporins

d. Gentamycin

61. Hitselberger's sign may be present in:

a. Angiofibroma

b. Otosclerosis

c. Acoustic Neuroma

d. Meniere's Disease

62. Which antibiotic should be avoided in infectious mononucleosis:

a. Azithromycin

b. Ampicillin

c. Ciprofloxacin

d. Clindamycin

63. Heimlich's maneuver may be needed in:

a. Foreign body in larynx

b. Foreign body in right bronchus

c. Foreign body in oesophagus

d. Foreign body in nose

64. Fungal ball is most commonly seen in:

a. Sphenoid sinus

b. Frontal sinus

c. Ethmoid sinus

d. Maxillary sinus

65. Distance of posterior ethmoidal artery from anterior lacrimal crest is:

a. 36 mm

b. 45 mm

c. 18 mm

d. 9 mm

66. Which of the following indicators is not considered for Physical Quality of Life Index?

a. Life expectancy at birth

b. Life expectancy at age one

c. Infant mortality

d. Literacy

67. Which of the following is not true for a case control study?

a. Proceeds from effect to cause

b. Starts with the disease

c. Generally yields only estimate of relative risk

d. Not suitable when the disease under investigation is rare

68. Serial interval is a measure of:

a. Gap between the onset of primary case and secondary cases

b. Gap between minimum and maximum incubation period

c. Difference between specificity and sensitivity

d. Secondary attack rate

69. All of the following are examples of nominal scale except:

a. Age

b. Sex

c. Body weight

d. Socioeconomic status

70. Which out of the following is not alive attenuated vaccine?

a. BCG

b. Oral polio

c. Diphtheria

d. Measles

71. Specificity of a test is its ability to identify correctly the:

a. True positives

b. False positives

c. True negatives

d. False negatives

72. A child aged 12 months upto 5 years is labeled as having fast breathing when the respiratory rate is:

a. 60 breaths per minute or more

b. 50 breaths per minute or more

c. 45 breaths per minute or more

d. 40 breaths per minute or more

73. Percentage of individuals who show a positive reaction to standard tuberculin test denotes:

a. Prevalence of infection

b. Prevalence of disease

c. Incidence of infection

d. Incidence of new cases

74. Which out of the following is not a bactericidal drug?

a. Rifampicin

b. INH

c. Ethambutol

d. Pyrazinamide

75. Indicator for prevalence of hepatitis B virus is:

a. HBs Ag

b. Anti HBs

c. HBc Ag

d. Anti HBc

76. What is the concentration of sodium in reduced osmolarity ORS?

a. 10 mmol/litre

b. 20 mmol/litre

c. 65 mmol/litre

d. 75 mmol/litre

77. Which of the following is regarded as the most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria in a locality?

a. Spleen rate

b. Parasite rate

c. Infant parasite rate

d. Proportional case rate

78. Which out of the following pathogens causes syphilis?

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b. Treponema pallidum

c. Haemophilus ducreyi

d. Candida albicans

79. For patients with tuberculosis, which of the following signs for case definition of AIDS surveillance is not considered as a minor sign?

a. Persistent cough for more than one month

b. Generalized lymphadenopathy

c. Oropharyngeal candidiasis

d. Chronic progressive herpes simplex infection

80. For prevention of CHD, the consumption of saturated fats must be limited to:

a. less than 10 per cent of the total energy intake

b. less than 20 per cent of the total energy intake

c. less than 30 per cent of the total energy intake

d. less than 40 per cent of the total energy intake

81. Which of the following is associated with Epstein-Barr virus?

a. Hepatocellular carcinoma

b. Burkitt's lymphoma

c. Kaposi's sarcoma

d. Cancer cervix

82. Height in centimetres minus 100 gives you:

a. Quetelet's index

b. Ponderal index

c. Brocca index

d. Corpulence index

83. Which of the following would mean severe visual impairment?

a. Visual acuity worse than 6/18

b. Visual acuity worse than 6/60

c. Visual acuity worse than 3/60

d. Visual acuity worse than 1/60

84. Which of the following conditions in a child calls for immediate tranfer to Special Newborn Care Unit?

a. Severe pallor

b. Irritability

c. Weight less than 1800 g

d. Central cyanosis

85. What is the sex ratio in India as per the 2011 Census?

a. 927

b. 933

c. 934

d. 940

86. Mala D contains:

a. Levonorgestrel

b. Norethisterone acetate

c. Desogestrel

d. Lynestrenol

87. Uterine fundus can be felt at the lower border of umbelicus at:

a. 12 weeks of pregnancy

b. 20 weeks of pregnancy

c. 24 weeks of pregnancy

d. 28 weeks of pregnancy

88. Which of the following statements is not ,true about breast milk?

a. Contains more cystine than cow's milk

b. Contains more methionine than cow's milk

c. Contains more linoleic acid than cow's milk

d. Contains more lactose than cow's milk

89. Which out of the following food items has a low glycaemic index?

a. Whole grains

b. Corn flakes

c. Baked potato

d. White bread

90. Which out of the following has been found to be a sensitive indicator of environmental iodine deficiency?

a. Prevalence of cretinism

b. Measurement of thyroid function

c. Neonatal hypothyroidism

d. Adult hypothyroidism

91. Softening of water is recommended when the hardness exceeds:

a. 50 mg per litre

b. 75 mg per litre

c. 150 mg per litre

d. 300 mg per litre

92. What is the maximum sound pressure limit people can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing?

a. 40 dB

b. 65 dB

c. 85 dB

d. 120 dB

93. Which of the following insecticides is not a synthetic pyrethroid?

a. Pyrethrum

b. Resethrin

c. Tetramethrin

d. Prothrin

94. The recommended treatment option for black plastic bags meant for categories of bio-medical waste is:

a. Autoclaving

b. Microwaving

c. Chemical treatment

d. Disposal in secured landfill

95. Which out of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

a. Range

b. Median

c. Average deviation

d. Standard deviation

96. Diatoms in bone-marrow are characteristic of death due to:

a. Putrefaction

b. Choking

c. Strangulation

d. Drowning

97. Jouleburns are seen in:

a. Lightening stroke

b. Electrocution

c. Flame burns

d. Blast injuries

98. The common site of rupture of hymen in a virgin is:

a. Anterior

b. Posterior

c. Postero-lateral

d. Antero-lateral

99. Time limit for exhumation in India is:

a. 1 year

b. 10 Years

c. 20Years

d. No limit

100. "Lefacis sympathique" is seen in:

a. Hanging

b. Strangulation

c. Smothering

d. Electrocution

101. Spalding Sign is diagnostic of:

a. Prematurity

b. Postmaturity

c. Foetal death

d. Hydrocephalus

102. Burking is combination of smothering and:

a. Throttling

b. Gagging

c. Mugging

d. Traumatic asphyxia

103. Whip lash injury is seen in:

a. Brain

b. Spine

c. Lungs

d. Heart

104. Counter-coup injury is seen in:

a. Brain

b. Stomach

c. Spleen

d. Heart

105. Lucid interval is seen in:

a. Subarachnoid haemorrhage

b. Acute subdural haemorrhage

c. Chronic subdural haemorrhage

d. Extradural haemorrhage

106. A tingling or shock like sensation which radiates into the arms, down in the back when the patient flexes the head is known as:

a. Laseque's sign

b. Fabere sign

c. Romberg's sign

d. Barber chair sign

107. Levodopa is most effective in relieving:

a. Tremors

b. Rigidity

c. Hypokinesis

d. All of the above

108. Tram line calcification is seen in:

a. Ependymoma

b. Meningioma

c. Glioblatoma multiforme

d. Struge Weber Syndrome

109. All may produce neuropathy except:

a. Chloroquine

b. Pyrazinamide

c. Nitrofurantoin

d. Emetine

110. Normal pressure hydrocephalous is characterized by all of the following except:

a. Dementia

b. Seizures

c. Incontinence

d. Ataxic- apraxic gait

111. Ophthalmoplegia is a sign in all except:

a. Tangier's disease

b. Leigh Syndrome

c. Ataxia telangiectasia

d. Xeroderma pigmentosum

112. Wernicke's encephalopathy is due to deficiency of:

a. Thiamine

b. Riboflavin

c. Niacin

d. Biotin

113. All of the following are autosornal dominant except:

a. Wilson disease

b. Huntington's chorea

c. Acute Intermittent porphyria

d. Familial Alzheimer disease

114. Diabetic Pseudotabes is:

a. Distral Sensorimotor polynueropathy

b. Diabetic amytrophy

c. Sensory Neuropathy

d. Autonomic Neuropathy

115. Lumbago Sciatica Syndrome results in numbness in the distribution of nerve root:

a. L4

b. L5

c. S1

d. S2

116. Injury to ulnar nerve results in:

a. Wrist Drop

b. Inability to appose the thumb

c. Impaired adduction and abduction of the fingers

d. Atrophy of muscles of the thinar eminence

117. The term Pancake heart is used in reference to:

a. ASD

b. Mild Pulmonary Stenosis

c. VSD

d. Straight back syndrome

118. Tumor plop sound is:

a. Early systolic sound

b. Early diastolic sound

c. Mid diastolic sound

d. Late diastolic sound

119. Is not a feature of Metabolic Syndrome:

a. Fasting serum glucose >110 mg/dl

b. Abdominal obesity

c. Hypertension

d. Serum Low density Lipoprotein 140 mg/dl

120. Ewart's sign suggest the diagnosis of:

a. Aortic aneurysm

b. Constrictive effusive pericarditis

c. Pericardial Effusion

d. Plueral Effusion

121. Is not a component of Beck's Triad:

a. A decline in systolic arterial pressure

b. A rising venous pressure

c. A quiet heart

d. Cardiomegaly as X ray chest

122. Most common major manifestation of acute Rheumatic Fever is:

a. Carditis

b. Arthritis

c. Erythema marginatum

d. Chorea

123. All of the following conditions are associated with normal ESR in rheumatic heart disease except:

a. Without Rheumatic activity

b. Chorea

c. CHF

d. Anemia

124. Most common cause of aneurysm of ascending aorta is:

a. Atherosclerosis

b. Syphilis

c. Takayasa Aortitis

d. Cystic medial degeneration

125. Characterstic pathophysiologic abnormality in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is:

a. Systolic dysfunction

b. Diastolic dysfunction

c. Outflow tract gradient

d. All of the above

126. Major cause of nonischaemic dilated cardiomyopathy is:

a. Alcohol

b. Idiopathic

c. Cocaine abuse

d. Anthracycline toxicity

127. Commonest site of defect in ventricular septum is:

a. Membranous septum

b. The inlet septum

c. The trabecular septum

d. The infundibular septum

128. MVPwith: is associated most commonly

a. Ehlers Danlos syndrome

b. Osteogenesis imperfecta

c. Rubella syndrome

d. Noonan's syndrome

129. The following tending during exercise test is associated with multivessel (or left main) coronary disease except:

a. Early onset of ST segment depression

b. Persistence of ST segment changes Late into the recovery phase

c. Sustained Ventricular tachycardia

d. ST segment elevation in lead aVR

130. Munchausen syndrome is:

a. Factitious disorder

b. Conversion

c. Dissociation

d. Malingering

131. Suicidal risk is seen in all except:

a. Personality disorder

b. Major depression

c. Schizophrenia

d. Somatisation disorder

132. The most prevalent excitatory transmitter in brain is:

a. GABA

b. Glutamate

c. Serotonin

d. Dopamine

133. Agoraphobea is:

a. Anxiety disorder

b. Panic disorder

c. Obsessive Compulsive disorder

d. All of the above

b. Miconazole

c. Imiquimod

d. Surgery

134. Is not an opoid Receptor?

a. Mu

b. Kappa

c. Delta

d. Gamma

135. Kleptomania is:

a. Delusion

b. Obsession

c. Impulse

d. Hallucination

136. Drug of choice in OCD:

a. Fluoxetine

b. Imipramine

c. Alprazolam

d. Chlorpromazine

137. Is not a schizophrenia subtypes?

a. Catatonic

b. Atonic

c. Paranoid

d. Residual

138. Antimalarial that should not be pre­scribed to patients of schizophrenia:

a. Quinine

b. Lumefantrine

c. Mefloquine

d. Primaquine

139. Treatment for vaginal warts is all, except:

a. Podophyllin

b. miconazole

c. surgery

d. imiquimod

140. Bowen's disease is caused by

a. Cold

b. Lead

c. Sulfonamide

d. Arsenic

141. Vagabond's disease is:

a. Pediculosis corporis

b. Scabies

c. Eczema

d. Ringworm

142. Chloroquine cause exacerbation of:

a. Malaria

b. Psoriasis

c. DLE

d. Photosensitivity

143. Tuberculosis of skin is called as:

a. Scrofuloderma

b. Lupus perino

c. Lupus profundus

d. Lupus vulgaris

144. All are antifibrotics except:

a. Penicillamine

b. Colchicine

c. Nifedipine

d. Relaxin

145. Most common form of contact dermatitis is

a. Allergic contact dermatitis

b. Irritant contact dermatitis

c. Cumulative irritant dermatitis

d. Acute irritant dermatitis

146. Lepromin test is positive in:

a. Lepromatous leprosy

b. Indeterminate leprosy

c. Tuberculoid leprosy

d. Histoid leprosy

147. Culture medium for M. tuberculosis is:

a. L J medium

b. NIH medium

c. LSS medium

d. SDA medium

148. Most common organism causing UTI is:

a. E.coli

b. Proteus

c. Klebsiella

d. Staphylococcus

149. Which of the following bacteria act by increasing cAMP

a. Vibrio cholera

b. Staphylococcus aureus

c. E.coli

d. Salmonella

150. Neil-Mooser reaction is used to diagnose:

a. Rickettsia

b. Chlamydiae

c. Mycoplasma

d. Legionella

151. Which of the following is transmitted by Rat urine?

a. Listeria

b. Leptospira

c. Legionella

d. Mycoplasma

152. Which of the following viral infection is transmitted by tick?

a. Japanese encephalitis

b. Dengue fever

c. Kyasanur Forest disease

d. Yellow fever

153. Hepatitis C virus is

a. Togavirus

b. Flavivirus

c. Filovirus

d. Retrovirus

154. True yeast is:

a. Candida

b. Cryptococcus

c. Trichosporon

d. Geotrichum

155. Autoinfection is seen with:

a. Ankylostoma

b. Enterobius

c. Echinococcus

d. Ascaris

156. Alkaline diuresis is done for treatment of poisoning due to

a. Morphine

b. Amphetamine

c. Phenobarbitone

d. Atropine

157. Which of the following drug is best for reducing protein urea in a diabetic patient?

a. Metoprolol

b. Perindopril

c. Chlorthiazide

d. Clonidine

158. All are used in the treatment of hot flushes except

a. Tamoxifen

b. Vanlafaxine

c. Gabapentin

d. Clonidine

159. Which among the following antiepileptic drugs does not produce hepatic microsomal enzyme induction?

a. Phenobarbitone

b. Carbamazepine

c. Phenytoin

d. Sodium valproate

160. Which of the following statement about erythropoietin is false?

a. It is used for treatment of anemia due to chronic renal failure

b. It results in decrease in reticulocyte count

c. It decrease the requirement of blood transfusion

d. It can cause hypertension

161. Drugs commonly used against enteric fever are all except

a. Amikacin

b. Ciprofloxacin

c. Ceftriaxone

d. Azithromycin

162. Drug of choice in a patient with severe complicated falciparum malaria is

a. Chloroquine

b. Quinine

c. Artesunate

d. Artemether

163. Which of the following proton pump inhibitor has enzyme inhibitory activity?

a. Rabeprazole

b. Lansoprazole

c. Pentoprazole

d. Omeprazole

164. The drug not used in acute asthma is

a. Salbutamol

b. Ipratropium bromide

c. Montelukast

d. Hydrocortisone

165. Which of the following drug is a long acting beta-2 agonist?

a. Albuterol

b. Salmeterol

c. Pirbuterol

d. Orciprenalin

166. Lesions of the lateral cerebellum cause all of the following, except:

a. Incoordination

b. Intention tremor

c. Resting

d. tremor Ataxia

167. Stability of alveoloi is maintained by:

a. Compliance of the lungs

b. Residual air in alveoli

c. Negative intrapleural

d. pressure Reduce surface tension by surfactant

168. Memory cells do not undergo apoptosis due to presence of which growth factor:

a. Platelet derived growth factor

b. Nerve growth factor

c. Insulin like growth factor

d. Fibroblast growth factor

169. Transection at mid pons level results in:

a. Asphyxia

b. Hyperventilation

c. Rapid and shallow breathing

d. Apneusis

170. In peripheral tissues which of the following contains substance

a. Plasma cell

b. Mast cell

c. Nerve terminal

d. Vascular endothelium

171. Cytotoxic T cells are capable of recognizing:

a. Peptide antigens associated with major histocompatibility complex molecules

b. Membrane-bound antigens

c. Cytoplasmic antigens

d. All of the above

172. Treatment for bleeding duodenal diverticulum is:

a. Diverticulectomy

b. Diverticulopexy

c. Diverticulization

d. Subtotal diverticulectomy

173. Which of the following hormones are not released in duodenum?

a. Gastrin

b. Motilin

c. Somatostatin

d. Pancreatic YY

174. Which of the following statements is/are true of the epidemiology and etiology of melanoma?

a. Most patients are diagnosed after 60 years of age

b. Skin color has no association with risk of melanoma

c. Sun exposure is the only risk factor for melanoma

d. The per capita incidence of melanoma is highest in Australia

175. All of the following are true regarding appendicitis, except:

a. McBurney's point lies one third of the way along a line drawn from the umbilicus to the right anterior superior iliac spine

b. The presence of an appendix mass necessitates immediate surgical intervention

c. A normal white cell count excludes appendicitis

d. Loss of appetite is a common feature of acute appendicitis

176. With respect to gallstones which statement is true

a. Most people with gallstones are asymptomatic

b. CT is the imaging modality of choice in diagnosing gallstones

c. Approximately 90% of gallstones are visible on plain abdominal x­ray

d. Mirizzi's syndrome is caused by a stone in the common bile duct

177. About peptic ulcer disease, which statement is true?

a. A significant number of duodenal ulcers are caused by Helicobacter Pylori infection

b. A raised serum creatinine is a sign of a significant upper GI bleed

c. Triple therapy for H. Pylori eradication involves the combination of an H2 receptor antagonist, a proton pump inhibitor and an antibiotic

d. Following endoscopic therapy for a bleeding ulcer, a rebleed warrants immediate open surgical intervention

178. True statement about inguinal hernia is:

a. A direct hernia passes through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal

b. A femoral hernia is more common than an inguinal hernia in females

c. The inferior epigastric vessels lie medial to the deep inguinal ring

d. The floor of the inguinal canal is formed by the conjoint tendon

179. Which of the following statement is true about acute abdomen?

a. Mesenteric adenitis is a common cause of abdominal pain in children

b. The absence of free air on an erect chest x-ray excludes an intra­abdominal perforation

c. Free air under the right hemi­diaphragm can be mistaken for gas within the stomach

d. A raised serum amylase is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis

180. Which of the following statement is true about testicular pain?

a. Testicular torsion can present with lower abdominal pain

b. Testicular pain in children is commonly due to epididymo­orchitis

c. Torsion can be easily excluded on careful clinical examination alone

d. A varicocoele will readily transilluminate

181. Which of the following statement is true about colorectal cancer?

a. Most tumours occur in the right side of the colon

b. Neo-adjuvant radiotherapy has no role in the management of rectal tumours

c. Left sided tumours are more likely to obstruct than right sided tumours

d. Colorectal cancer has been associated with a diet high in fibre and low in saturated fat

182. Which of the following statement is true about obstructive jaundice?

d. Pale urine and dark stools are suggestive of obstructive jaundice

c. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio­pancreatography (ERCP) is of diagnostic and therapeutic value in jaundiced patients

a. Obstructive jaundice is suggested by raised AST and ALT

b. Malabsorption of vitamin D in jaundiced patients can affect the synthesis of coagulation factors

183. Which of the following statement is true about thyroid disease

a. Anaplastic carcinoma generally has a poor prognosis

b. Thyroid swelling characteristi­cally do not move on swallowing

c. Hypocalcaemia following a total thyroidectomy is rare

d. The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the phrenic nerve

184. Which of the following statement is true about intestinal stomas?

a. Ileostomies should have a spout

b. A right sided stoma is invariably an ileostomy

c. A Hartmann's procedure involves resection of a segment of colon and formation of an ileostomy

d. A loop ileostomy is usually permanent

185. In "catabolic" surgical patients, which of the following changes in body composition do not occur?

a. Lean body mass increases

b. Total body water increases

c. Adipose tissue decreases

d. Body weight decreases

186. The characteristic changes that follow a major operation or moderate to severe injury do not include which of the following?

a. Hypermetabolism

b. Fever

c. Tachypnea

d. Hyperphagia

187. Which of the following condition is associated with increased risk of breast cancer?

a. Fibrocystic mastopathy

b. Severe hyperplasia

c. Atypical hyperplasia

d. Papillomatosis

188. Which of the following breast lesion is noninvasive malignancy

a. Intra ductal carcinoma of the comedo type

b. Tubular carcinoma and mucinous carcinoma

c. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma

d. Medullary carcinoma, including atypical medullary lesions

189. Which of the following statement about thyroid is true

a. Thyroid is located anteriorly in the upper neck

b. Thyroid is located posteriorly in the upper neck

c. Thyroid is located anteriorly in the lower neck

d. Thyroid is located posteriorly in the lower neck

190. What is the vertical extension of the thyroid in relation to the vertebrae

a. C4 to T1

b. C5 to T1

c. C6 to T1

d. C3 to T1

191. Painful ulcers in tongue are except:

a. Dental ulcers

b. Gummatous ulcers

c. Aphthous ulcers

d. Tubercular ulcers

192. Which of the following extra ocular muscles is not supplied by third cranial nerve?

a. Superior oblique

b. Inferior oblique

c. Superior rectus

d. Inferior rectus

193. Clubbing of fingers is the symptom of:

a. Cardiovascular disease

b. Respiratory disease

c. Hematological disease

d. Urinary tract disease

194. Most frequently fractured carpal bone is

a. Lunate

b. Pisiform

c. Scaphoid

d. Hamate

195. Presence of Reed Stenberg cell is the characteristics of

a. Non Hodgkin Lymphoma

b. Hodgkin's Lymphoma

c. Multiple myeloma

d. None of the above

196. True about cervical rib except:

a. Commonly unilateral and in some cases it is bilateral

b. It is more frequently encountered in the neck in right side

c. It is an extra rib present in the neck in about of cases

d. It is the anterior tubercle of the thtransverse process of the 7 :cervical vertebra

197. Which of the statement isregarding spinal anaesthesia? false

a. A small amount of local anaesthetic is used

b. All the nerves are blocked below the level of anaesthesia

c. Can be done in thoracic region also

d. Postural puncture headache possible

198. Which of the following statement is false about epidydimis?

a. It is 6 meter in length

b. Has head body and tail

c. It is lined by small columnar epithelium

d. It is supplied by a branch of testicular artery

199. Acid phosphatase is increased in the following except:

a. Carcinoma prostate

b. Carcinoma of liver

c. Benign enlargement of prostate

d. Acute prostatitis

200. True about male urethra except:

a. Male urethra is divided in to anterior and posterior urethra

b. Average length of male urethra is about 20 cms

c. Narrowest part is external meatus

d. It is supplied by external pudendal artery