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1. Melanocytes are derived from:

Ectoderm


Endoderm


Mesoderm



Neural crest
2. Common bile duct:

Lies right to hepatic artery


Lies left to portal vein


Lies posterior to hepatic artery


Lies left to hepatic artery'


,3. Abductor of vocal corqis.:
Posterior cricoarytenoid Cricothyroiq


Interarytenoid


Lateral cricoarytenoid


4. Following structure is transmitted via Foramen Ovale

Greater petrosal nerve


Mandibular Nerve


OccuiOmotor Nerve


j
Sympathetic nerve fibres ..
5. Superficial branch of ulnar nerve supplies:

Adductor pollicis


Adductor digiti minimi


Opponens digiti minimi


Palmaris brevis


6. Normal plasma osmolality in terms of mmHg:

285-295


310-340


CP -1A123
7.

8.





260-275


270-285


1 i
A is a
.
slow intravenous'infusion of para­amino hippuric acid solution. In which of the following nephron segments is the PAH concentration lowest?

Bowman's space Proximal tubule


Loop of Henle


'Cbllectillgduct,


A 6 year old obese boy has persistent food-seeking and aggressive behaviour: hUciei lesion is being suspe,cted. WI)at is the probable the

. Lateral thalamus, 'Supraoptic


Ventromedial thalamus


$uprachiasmatic


•J • •.
During diastOle, the arterial pressure "ism'aintained by:
'i... • .

Elastic recoil of aorta Musculature of arteries


Constriction ofright ventricle


Constriction of left ventricle


At birth, hlajority of th'e total is
u2
u2 82
0:2 Y2
u2 "2

Contd,
11. .Peptidyl transferase is an example for:

Enzyme


Catalyst


Ribozyme· ..


Elongation factor


The autocatalytic cleavage enzyme among the following is:

Proelastase


Procarboxylase,


Pepsinogen'


Chymotrypsinogen


13. . All are seen after24 hours of fasting EXCEPT:

Lipolysis


Muscle breakdown


Hepatic gluconeogenesis


Blood glucose concentration maintained


14. .Thecharacteri.stic feature following acute ingestion ofalcohol is:

Activation of fattyacid oxidation


Lactic acidosis


Inhibition 9fketogenesis


Increase in gluconeogenesis



15. MostcomlT)on inherited. defect of urea cycle:
Ornithine transcarbomylase
i.,

Arginase


Arginosuccinate Lyase


Carbamoyl phosphate synthase


CP -1AJ23

16. Which amino acid undergoes hepatic deamination

Alanine


Glutamate


Aspartate


Glycine


11. l-methyl guanosine cap is present in:

mRNA


tRNA


rRNA


DNA


18. The precursor for Nitric Oxide is

Arginine


Glutamine


Asparagine


i
Lysine
19. Vitamin K is required for which of the following

Hydroxylation


Chelation


Transamination


Carboxylation


20. Erythrocyte transketolase activity is inhibited in

Pellagra


Beriberi


Scurvy


Rickets


(Turn over)
21. Which statement best describes the mechanism of,action of ethosu­ximide in absence seizures?

Sodium channel blockade


Increasing GA8A


Calcium channel blockade


Chloride channel blockade


22. Anagrelide is used in the treatment of:

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura


Essential thrombocytosis


AMLtype7


Myelodysplastic syndrome


23. Which ofthe following increases with atorvastatin therapy?

VLOL concentration


LOL receptor density


Sterol absorption


Plasma free fatty acids


24. Phase 2 clinical trial is done to access:

Therapeutic efficacy .


Maximumtdlerated dose


Toxicity .


Maximum lethal dose


25. 8romocriptine inhibits:

Prolactin


Vasopressin


Imipramine


Levodopa


CP -1A123
26. Which of the following is the, most beta-1 selective antagonist?

Acebutolol


Atenolol


Metoprolol


Bisoprolol


27. The drug of choice for management of infantile spasm is

Phenytoin


Valproate


ACTH


Diazepam


28. Vincristine acts in which phase of the Cell Cycle?

G1


S


G2;


M
29. Peripheral neuropathy is seen due to prolonged use of all EXCEPT:

Zalcitabine


Oidanosine .


Stavudine


Lamivudine


30. Lithium can be used in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

Cluster headache


SIAOH


Cancer chemotherapy.


Syndenham's chorea


Contd.
31. Which of these is FALSE about Ewings sarcoma?

Bone forming


t 22) .
Diaphyseal in origin



Small cell tumour


32. Whiph of these .is a neoplastic intestinal polyp?

Hyperplastic polyp


Peutz-Jeghers polyp


Tubular adenoma


Juvenile polyp


33. Which of the following is a large vessel vasculitis?

Wegener's granulomatosis


Churg-Strauss syndrome


Takayasu's arteritis


Microscopic polyangitis


34. Hemodialysis associated amylo­idosis is to which precursor protein?

P2 microglobulin


Transtliyretin


Immunoglobulin light chains


'Calcitonin


35. Which complement component is important for opsonization and phagocytosis?
C
3a

C3b


CSa


MAC


CP -1A123 (5
36. Tram track appearance in renal biopsy is seen in

Membranous glomerulopathy


Membranoproliferative glo­merulonephritis


IgA nephropathy


Post streptococcal glomerulo­nephritis


37. Which of these is a T-cell NHL

Lymphomatoid granulomatosis


T-cell rich large B-ceillymphoma


Mantle cell lymphoma


Mycosis fungoides


38. A 30-year-old-male who received kidney transplant and was on high dose steroids presented with features of meningo-encephalitis. At autopsy there was a gelatinous meningeal exudates with cystic areas containing rounded organisms with prominent capsule. Which of the following stains would highlight these organisms?

Perl's Prussian Blue


Mucicarmine


Giemsa


Alcian Blue


39. A 25-year-old-woman develops sudden dyspnea with cyanosis and hypotension during a vaginal delivery of a normal male infant. She has generalized seizures and becomes
(Turn over) comatose. Which of the following is most likely to be present in her pulmonary arteries?
Gas bubbles
Amniotic fluid
Fat globules
Thrombus

40. Macrophages containing bacteria in the small intestinalmucosa are seen in:

Mediterranean Iymphorpa


Whipple disease


Amoebiasis


Celiac disease


41. Warthin Finkeldy cells are found in

Measles


Mumps


Mt;>lIuscum contagiosum


Herpes simplex infection


42. Prozone phenomenon is due to

Antigen excess


Antibody excess


Excessive immune complex


Acute phase reactants


43. A 15 year oldmemberofhigh school swim team notices painless, umbilicated cutaneous lesions on the toes. Large eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions are present in the affected
CP-1N23
epithelia. What is the most likely causative agent?

Adenovirus


Cytomegalovirus


MollusCum virus


'Herpes' simplEniliirus


44. Craigie's tube rhethod is used to differentiate:


Motile and strains


. Virulent and strains


Capsulated and Mon-cap'sulated strains' i . ..


Rough and smooth strains


45. Human immunodeficiency virus affects:

cells·


HelperT cells
.Suppressor T cells



Cytotoxic T cells:.
46. All are live vaccine EXCEPT:
Measles vaccine


BCG vaccine

Salk's vaccine
1;1
Yellow fever vaccine
47. Antibody that is produced rapidly ar'ld irihigh amounts during response:
IgM
IgG
IgA

IgM and IgG Contd.
48. In Gram's staining, <III are used EXCEPT:

Congo red


Iodine


.Crystal violet.


Alcohol


49. Which of the following is catalase positive?

Staphylococcusepidermidis


Enterococcus


Streptococcus


.PneUmococcus


50. VORL is most sensitive in the diagnosis of which stage of syphUlis?

Primary


Secondary


Tertiary


Reactivation


51. Putrefaction first starts in

Liver


Larynx


Heart


Brain


52. All of the following produce dilated . pupil EXCEPT:

Cocaine


Alcohol


Opium


Datura


CP -1A123 (7
53, Grevious injury is punishable under Section:

320lPC


3541PC


4021PC


3181PC


54, Death sentence without the need for confirmation by higher courts can be given by:

Chief Metropolitan Magistrate


Session Court


High Court


First Class Judicial Magistrate


55, As per MCI regulations, a medical practitioner should maintain the records of in-patients for a minimum period of:

2 years


3 years


4 years


5 years


56, Florence test for seminal stains tests for the presence of:

Spermine


Cholin'e


Inositol


Aluminium molybdate


57, Drug used for narcoanalysis is

Atropine


Pethidine


Scopolamine


Phenobarbitone


(Turn over)

58. A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue line on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia and loss of appetite. What is the diagnosis?

Arsenic poisoning


Lead poisoning


Mercury poisoning


Phosphorous poisoning


59. .Magistrate inquest in India is conducted for all the following conditions EXCEPT:

Exhumation


Custody death


Homicide


Dowry death .


60. Which bone is involved in Hinge fracture?

Skull


Femur


Vertebrae


Peivis


61. In India, medical termination of pregnancy is permitted upto

20 weeks


. 22 weeks


28 weeks


"
Anytime during pregnancy
62. Extract from the following poison resembles viper venom:
Semecarpus anacardium
CP -1A123
Abrus precatorius Plumbago rosea Croton tiglium
63. Medullary index of long bones helps to determine:
Age Sex Race Stature
64. Ochronosis is due to chronic
exposure to Carbolic acid Phosphorus Mercury salt Iodine fumes
65. The following are due to toxic exposure to lead EXCEPT: Anemia Wrist drop Blue line in gums Insomnia
66. For Asian populations, the normal BMI (Body Mass Index) range is 18.5-24.99 18.5-22.99 20.5-24.99 20.5 -22.99
8 Contd.

67. The incidence rate of a disease is five times greater in women than in men, but the prevalence rates show no sex difference. The best explanation is that:

The crude all-cause mortality rate is greater in women


The case-fatality from this disease is greater in women


The case-fatality from this disease is lower in women


The duration of this disease is shorter in men


68. In the demographic cycle, India is in

High stationary stage


Early expanding stage


Late expanding stage


Low stationary stage


69. As per National Immunization Schedule, second dose of measles vaccine is recommended at

6 months


18 months


36 months


48 months


70. A program manager from an international health funding agency needs to identify regions that would benefit from an ·intervention aimed at reducing premature disability. The program manager asks a health care consultant to develop a proposal using an index
CP-1A123 (9
that would help her make this
decision. Which of the following
would best serve this purpose?

Case-fatality


Crude mortality rate


Disability-adjusted life-years


Standardized mortality ratio


71. In' cohort studies of the role of a suspected factor in the etiology of a disease, it is essential that

There be equal numbers of persons in both study groups


At the beginning of the study, those with the disease and those without the disease have equal risks of having the factor


The study group with the factor and the study group without the factor be representative of the general population


The exposed and non-exposed groups under study be as similar as possible with regard to possible confounding factors


72. If adverse events are totally not connected with theimmunizing agent then this type ofAEFI is called:

Vaccine reaction


Program error


Coincidental events


Others


(Turn over)
73.
Residents of three villages with three different types of water supply were asked to participate in a survey to identify cholera carriers. Because several cholera deaths had occurred recently, virtually everyone present at the time underwent examination. The proportion of residents in each village who were carriers was computed and compared. What is the proper classification for this study?

74.
In which one of the following types of study designs does a subject serve as his own control?


Prospective cohort study


Case-crossover study


Retrospective cohort study


Case-cohort study



75.
Which of the following is a condition which may occur during the incubation period?


Onset of clinical illness


Receipt of infection


Transmission of infection


Signs and symptoms ofdisease



76.
Acute Flaccid Paralysis is reported in a child aged:


Cross-sectional study
Case-control study
Prospective cohort study
Retrospective cohort study

0-3 years
CP -1A123 11
·,

0-5 years


0-15 years


0-25 years


77. As per the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) guidelines, a person is said to be Diabetic when Plasma Fasting Glucose level is more than or equal to
100 mg/dl

126mg/dl


200mg/dl


160mg/dl


78. Dengue is spread by

Culex


Anopheles


Manonides


Aedes


79. In a normal distribution curve:

Mean 2 Standard Deviation


Mean Median


Mean Variance


Mean 1 Standard Deviation


80. Exclusive breast feeding should be practised for how many months after delivery?
Three
Six

Nine


Twelve


Gontd.
81.
Koebner's phenomena are seen in all the following EXCEPT:

82.
The best treatment for acute dermatitis:


Lichen Planus
Psoriasis
Warts
Pityriasis rosea


Moist compression


Ointments


Pastes


Creams


83. Apple Jelly nodules are seen in

Icthyosis vulgaris


Lichen planus


Lupus vulgaris


Lupus erythematous


84. Which of the following causes scarring alopecia?

Tinea capitis


Alopecia areata .


Telogen effluvium


Lichen planus


85. Most common nerve affected in leprosy is:

Radial nerve


Ulnar nerve


Median nerve


Axillary nerve


CP-1N23 11
86. Lyre's sign in CT angiography is seen in:

Carotid body tumor


Glomus tympanicum


Glomus jugulare


Branchial fistula


87. Thymus is rarely discovered in chest X-ray after the age of

6 months


2 years


4 years


8 years


88. All are radiological features of Tuberculosis EXCEPT:

Collapse of vertebral body


Reduced disc space


Lytic lesions in vertebral body


Edging of vertebrae


89. The most radiosensitive tissue of human body is

Salivary glands


Pancreas


Neuronal cells


Lymphoblasts


90. Piezoelectric effect is used in which of the following imaging modality?

Ultrasound


X-ray I CT scan


MRI


PET


(Turn over)
91.
You suspect that your patient has an enlarged submandibular salivary gland. You expect the enlarged gland

92.
During an inferior alveolar nerve block, the needle ideally passes:


Posterior and medial to medial pterygoid


Anterior and lateral to medial pterygoid


Through medial pterygoid


Inferior to medial pterygoid



93.
You notice that your patient's submandibular lymph nodes are enlarged. You would look for potential infection sites in the:


Hard palate


Hard palate and upper lip


Hard palate, upper lip and upper central incisor


Hard palate, upper lip, upper central incisor and lower first molar




To be palpable intraorally
To be palpable extraorally
To be palpable both intra and
exlraorally
Only to be detectable by
radiographical examination

CP- 1A123
94. The regional lymphatic drainage of the leftsideof thetip ofthetongue is to the:

Left submental lymph node


Left and right submental lymph node


Left submandibular lymph node


Left and right submandibular lymph nodes


95. Which of the following is a developmental cyst?

Periapical cyst


Residual cyst


Odontogenic keratocyst


Paradental cyst


96. Which of the following myeloproliferative disorder is associated with c-KIT point mutation?

Polycythemia vera


Systemic mastocytosis


Chronic eosinophilic leukemia


Primary myelofibrosis


97. Which of these is the most common mutation in hereditary spherocytosis?
Ankyrin
a.-spectrin

Band 4.2

2)· Contd.
98. Which of the following is not a hereditarythrombophilia

Protein Cdeficiency


Factor XIII deficiency


Increased factorVl1i


Factor V Leiden


..
99. PIGA mutation iS,seen in:
.Hereditary
Hereditary elliptocytosis
Paroxysmal nocturnal
Fanconi syndrome.
100. Which of the following is not a clinical consequence of portal hyper­tension?


Ascitis


Hepatomegaly


Formation j:lOrtosystemic shunt .


Hepatic encephalopathy


101. All of the following are the causes of hyperthermia EXCEPT:

Hypothyroidism


Cerebral haemorrhage


Succinylcholine,,: ..


Pheochromocytoma


102. Loss of gastricacidity increases the risk of infection due to

Salmonella species


Staph aureus


Giardiasis


Candida


CP -1A123
103. End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)I 'isdiagnosed when GFR falls below:

5 mUmin per 1.73 m2


10 mUmin per 1.73 m2,i


15 mL/minper 1:73'm2


20mUminper1.73'm2


104.
The class oflupus nephritis with worst prognosis

105.
Cardiac manifestations of Lyme's disease are all'EXCEPT! "i.


Class 2
Class 3·
Class 4
Class 5 ..


Heart block


Myocarditis:


Pericarditis


Myocardicli abSyl:fss


106. MENKES disease dueto defective absorption of:
Zinc

Manganese
-..

Copper


Selenium


107. Recurrent meningococcllimeningitis occurs in:
C1 esterase deficiency


C2 deficiency


C3 deficiency


C5-9 deficiency


(Turri over)
108. AII9f the following are supplemented
. in cystic fibrosis with gastrointestinal disease EXCEPT:

Vitamin E


Vitamin K
Vitamin B12



Pancreatic Lipase


109. Which of the following cranial nerve is most commonly involved in patients with Sarcoidosis?

II cranial nerve


III cranial nerve


VII cranial nerve



IX cranial nerve
110. Endocrine causes for hypertension are all EXCEPT:

Cushing's syndrome


Hypopituitarism


Hyperaldosteronism


Gigantism


111. Gold standard test for diagnosing GEROis:

Ambulatory pH monitoring


Esophageal manometry


Endoscopy


Barium swallow .


112. Xanthochromia of CSF is seen in all EXCEPT:
Bloody tap
CP ....,1A123 (1.

Carotene


Increased antibodies


Increased proteins


113. Nephrotic syndrome is a complication of malaria caused by

Plasmodium falciparum


Plasmodium ovale


Plasmodium malariae


Plasmodium Vivax


114. All are features of Obstructive sleep apnea EXCEPT:

RVF


LVF·


Hypoxia


Hypercarbia


115. Tall Twaves are seen in:

Hypercalcemia


Hypocalcemia


Hyperkalemia


Hypokalemia


116. Reverse splitting of S2 occurs in

ASO


VSO


POA


RBBB


117. Kerley B lines are seen in:
Pulmonary edema
Pulmonary embolism
Lung abscess
Carcinoma bronchus

Contd.
'118. Episodic, hypt:Jrtension is the characteristic of
Carcinoid tumor
Insulinoma
Pheochromocytoma
Zollinger Ellison Syndrome

119. Minimum possible score in
"Glasgow coniascale" is

0


1


3


5


120. All are the causes of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis EXCEPT:

MethiciHin


,Sjogren sYQdrome


SLE


Down's syndrome


121. All are causes' of eosinophilia EXCEPT:

Allergic Rhinitis


'Trichinosis


Corticosteroid therapy


Rheumatoid arthritis,


122. Childern can reach for objects by:

4 months


6 months


8 months


10 months


CP -1N23 (15
1"23. Cleft palate is repaired at

2-4 months


1-4 weeks


6-12 months


12-18 months


124. Koplik spot is located:

Opposite to firstmolar Opposite topremol?r .


. Opposite to


Opposite to .


125. Most common complication of mumps in children:

Orchitis


Aseptic meningitis


.'..

Myocarditis


Pancreatitis


126. Which of the following carpal bone will be present ih wrist X-ray of a 2 month old child?

Capitate


Scaphoid


Lunate


Trapezoid



127. How many perr;nanent teeth will be present in an 8 year old child?

20


24


12


16


(Turn over)
128. Triphasic histology of stromal, epithelial and blastemal components is a feature of

Neuroblastoma


Wilmslumour


Retinoblastoma


Rhabdomyosarcoma


129. What percentage of weight loss in infants constitutes severe dehydration?
. loss of body weight

loss of body weight


loss of bodyweiglit


loss of body weight


..
130. Most comnwn cause of cpngenital hypothyroidism?
..

dysgenesis


Oyshormonogenesis


Antithyroid antibodies


Maternal hypothyroidism


131. Fine needle cytology is used as a diagnostic modality in all
. the following thyroid malignancies EXCEPT:

Papillary carcinoma


Follicular carcinoma


Anaplastic carCinoma


Medullary carcinoma


Cp·-1A!23
132, Which of the, following; is absorbable suture material?

Polyglycolide


Silk


Polypropylene


Cotton


133. Most common artery responsible for
.

haemorrhage in peptic ulcer is


Gastroepiploic artery


Left gastric artery


I ,.

Gastroduodenal artery


Superior mesenteric artery


134. Majority of urinary bladder cancers are:

,Adenoca;rcinbnia


Adenos'quarri6us car'dnoma


Squaillous
Transitional cell carCinbma
135. cancEirarisi'ng from a . " " burn scar·is

Adenocarcinoma


Fibrosarcoma'


Squamous cell carcinoma


Adenosquamous carcinoma


136. Cork screw esophagus barium swallow is seen in

AchalasJa cardia


Esophageal c;mcer.


Diffuse esophageal spasm


Diverticulum


16 Conld.
137. Dahlman's procedure is done for the management of

Diffuse esophageal spasm


Zenker's diverticulum


Gastroesophageal reflux


Carcinoma esophagus


138. In' an intussusceptions, the term intussuscepiens refers to

The inner tube


The middle tube


The outer tube


The entire complex


139. Proteus favours the formation of which type of renal stones?

Calcium oxalate


Uric acid


Cysteine


.Struvite


140. Tissue reaction is minimal with:

Dexon


Catgut


Silk


Chromic gut


141. The triad ofdiverticulosis, gall stones and hiatus hernia is termed as

Saint's triad


Beck's triad


Whipple's triad


Murphy's triad


CP-1N23
142. Most common site for ectopic testis is:

Perineum


Above superficial inguinal ring


Root of penis


Femoral triangle


143.
What type of metabolic changes are seen in a burn patient?

144.
Trendlenberg's test done for varicose veins is for detection of


Hyperkalemic acidosis metabolic
Hyperkalemic alkalosis metabolic
Hypokalemic acidosis metabolic
Hypokalemic. alkalosis metabolic


Perforator incompetency


Deep vein patency


Saphenofemoral incompetency


Site of perforators


145. Which of the following is the most common site for ischemic colitis?

Transverse colon


Sigmoid colon


Hepatic flexure


Splenic flexure


17) (Turn over)
146, "Saw tooth pattern" in barium enema is seen in:

Volvulus


Interssucception


Diverticulosis


Hyperplastic TB


147. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding in children is commonly due to:

Diverticulosis


Vascular ectasia


Irritable bowel disease


Meckle's diverticulum


148. Casoni's test is an investigational modality for:

Hydatid cyst


Choledochal cyst


Pseudopancreatic cyst


Polycystic kidney disease


149. The content of hernia sac in Lillre's hernia:

Circumference of intestine


Meckle's diverticulum


Sigmoid colon


Omentum


150. Goodsall's rule is used in the classification of:

Hemorrhoids


Fistula in ano


Intestinal tuberculosis


Colorectal carcinoma


CP -1A123
151; Trendelberg's sign is positive in injury to:

Gluteus maximus


Gluteus medius


Quadriceps, femoris


Quadratus lumborum


152. Posterior displacement of femur on
. the tibia is preveqted by

Anterior cfuciateligament


Posterior cruciate ligament


Medial meniscus


Lateral' meniscus


153. Baker's cyst is a swelling which occurs in

Pepliteal fossa


Cubital fossa'


Lateral malleolus


Medial malleolus


154. Most common cauSe of punched out lesionsin phalanges is

Enchondroma


Chondrosarcoma


Aneurysmal bone cyst


Multiple myeloma


155. Most sensitive test to detect anterior cruciate ligament injury iti aseltirig of acute knee injury is

Lachman's test


Pivot shift test


Anterior drawer test .


Apley's grinding test


18 . Contd.
156.
All the following are true about Rheumatoid Arthritis EXCEPT:

157.
The commonest complication of Colles' fracture is


Positive for Anti-lgG antibody
Juxta-articular osteoporosis
Morning stiffness
Elevation of CRP indicates
better prognosis


Mal-union


Sudeck's. osteodystrophy


Non-union


Paresthesia


158. A teenage girl complains of pain over the knee. The pain increases while starting to stand from sitting position and while walking upstairs. What is the likely diagnosis?

Torn Meniscus


Patellar Fracture


Chondromalacia of Patella


Bipartite Patella


159. X-ray findings ofAchondroplasia are all of the following EXCEPT:

Rhizomelic shortening


Tombstone appearanCe of iliac bones


Increased diameter of foramen magnum


Decreased interpediculate distance within lower lumbar spine


CP -1AJ23 (19
160. Osteochondritis of lunate bone is known as:
Perthes disease
OsgoodcSchlatter disease
Sever disease
Kienboch's disease

161: Carhart's notch in otosclerosis is observed at

1000 Hz


2000 Hz


3000 Hz


4000 Hz


162. A 20 year Old cqllege student presents with intolerance to every­body's sound. Injury to which of the following cranial nerves could be responsible for this?
5th



,7th 8th




9th

163. Barotraumatic otitis media is a result of:

Rapid descent while in an aircraft


Rapid ascent while in an aircraft


Sudden acceleration while in a bus


Sudden deceleration while in a bus


(Turn over)
164.
True statement about antrochoanal polyp is:

165.
A patient hears better in noisy environment. Most likely diagnosis is:


Hyperacusis


Presbyacusis


Hypoacusis


Paraacusis



166.
Symblepharon is caused by:


Diphtheria


Gonococci


Chlamydia


Opthalmia neonatorum



167.
Which laser is used in LASIK?


NdYag Laser


Excimer


CO2


Argon Laser



168.
Left homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion in


Optic Chiasma


Left optic radiation


Right optic radiation


Right optic tract




Often bilateral
Usually multiple
Arises from lateral wall
Recurrence is less common

CP -1A123 169. Tear drop sign is seen in:

Fracture floor of orbit


Retinoblastoma


Dry eyes


Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction


170. Lagophthalmos is seen in:

Leprosy


Syphilis


Peripheral neuritis


Herpes infection


171. Medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy includes all the following EXCEPT:

Dexamethasone


Prostaglandins



Methotrexate
172. Most common subtype of HPV implicated in,carcinoma cervix is:

HPV 33


HPV 11


HPV16


HPV 31


173. All are the supports of uterus EXCEPT:

Mackenrodt's ligament


Round ligament


Uterosacral ligament


Transcervicalligament


20 Contd.
174. Bleeding of fetal origin:

Vasa previa


Circumvellate placenta


Placenta previa


Abruption placenta


175. Normal length offemale urethra is:

20mm


40mm


60mm


80mm


176. Sex cord stromal tumours include all EXCEPT:

Yolk sac tumor


Granulosa cell tumor


Sertoli cell tumor


Leydig cell tumor


177. Which is the most common ovarian tumor in pregnancy?

Serous cystadenoma


Mucinous cystadenoma


Dermoid tumor


Solid teratoma


178. Swiss cheese pattern of endometrium is seen in

Secretory endometrium


Hyperplastic endometrium


Cystic glandular hyperplasia


Endometrial carcinoma


CP - 1A123
179. Largest fetal skull diameter is
Mento-vertical
Submento vertical
Submento bregmatic
Occipito frontal

180. Vacuum delivery is contraindicated in:

Pre-term


Post-term


Prolonged second stage


Cardiac disease


181. Polyhydramnios is seen in all EXCEPT:

Diabetes mellitus


Anencephaly


Trachea-esophageal fistula


Renal agenesis


182. Star gazing fetus in ultrasonography is seen in:

Transverse lie with hyper extended head


Anencephaly


Breech with hyper extended head


Hydropsfetalis


183. The recommended dose of prophylactic anti-D after term delivery
is:









21
100 microgram 200 microgram 300 microgram
400 microgram (Turn over)
184. Fetal scalp blood pH is used to. diagnose:

IUGR


Alpha fetoprotein level


Fetal hypoxia


Fetal diabetes


185. Anteroposterior diameter is more than transverse diameter in which type of pelvis?

Android


Anthropoid .


Platypelloid



186.'Progesteroneonlypillscarrythe risk
of:


Hypertension


Venous embolism


IrregfJlar bleeding .


Ectopic pregnancy


187. Commonest side forfibraids in uterus is:


Subserous


Intramural


Submucosal


..
gervical
188. Schiller Duval bodies are seen in

Endodermal sinus tumor


Embryonal carcinoma


Dermoid cyst


Brenner tumor


CP -1A123
189. Call Exner bodies are found in

Endodermal sinus tumor


,Leydig cell tumQr



Granulosa cell tumor
190. Amsel criteria is used in the diagnosis of

Bacterial vaginosis


Trichomonas vaginalis


Vaginal candidiasis


Chlamydial infections


191. Jhe muscle relaxant that exhibits

phase II blockade after prolonged administration is

Atracurium


'Vecuronium ".


Recuronium


Succinylcholine


192. The intravenous agent causing temporary inhibilion of steroid system is:
(.II.) Propofol
Thiopentone
. .

Etomidate


Midazolam


193. The inhalational agent that is maximally is
Xenon
Nitrous oxide
Desflurane
Halothane

22) Contd.
194. Agent causing malignant hyperthermia is

Succinyl choline


Nitrous oxide


Ether


Verapamil


195. The following anesthetic drug causes pain on intravenous administration:

Propofol


Ketamine


Thiopentone


Midazolam


196. One of the following is good prognostic factor in schizophrenia:

Insidious onset


Positive symptoms


Disorganized subtype


Absence of depression


197. Tactile hallucinations are seen in all EXCEPT:
Frontal lobe tumor
CP -1A123

Delirium tremens


Opioid withdrawal


Amphetamine abuse


198. Which of the following is termed as Ganser's syndrome?

Post traumatic psychosis


Anxiety neurosis


Fear of high places


Hysterical pseudodementia


199. Othello's syndrome is

Delusion of doubles


Delusion of grandeur


Delusion of infidelity


Delusion of having ill health


200. All of the following are features of delirium EXCEPT:

Insidious onset


Clouding of consciousness


Impaired comprehension


Immediate retention disturbed


I (Turnover)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CP -1N23 (24 Assistant Surgeon