Exam Details
Subject | ||
Paper | ||
Exam / Course | ||
Department | ||
Organization | Kerala Public Service Commission | |
Position | assistant engineer | |
Exam Date | 30, July, 2015 | |
City, State | kerala, |
Question Paper
143/2015
Maximum: 100 marks Time 1 hour and 15 minutes
1. Most chemically active concrete aggregate are from:
Igneous rock Sedimentary rock
Metamorphic rock CD) Sand stones
2. Common sugar added to concrete:
Increases the strength of concrete Retards the setting of concrete
Accelerates the setting of concrete CD) Gives colour to concrete
3. Air permeability test is done to measure:
Setting time of cement Soundness of cement
Chemical composition of cement CD) Fineness of cement
4. ASCUis:
A damp proofing material for concrete A preservative for timber
A type of brick bond CD) A type of building finish
5. For concrete exposed to dry conditions, the minimum curing period is:
5 days 7 days
10 days CD) 14 days
6. A window that projects outside the external walls of a room is
Gable window Sash window
Dormer window CD) Bay window
7. A floor slab supported directly on column is called:
Ribbed slab Flat slab
Flat plate CD) Grid floor
8. Service plan:
is drawn to a scale not less than that of site plan
include layout of existing water supply system
shows predominant wind direction
CD) all the above
A3
[P.T.O.]
9. The notational colour for existing hazardous building in a site plan is
Black Red
Purple Dark blue
10. For a rectangular foundation of width eccentricity ofload should not exceed:
b/2 b/3
b/5 b/6
11. The projecting ornamental course at the junction of a wall and ceiling:
Coping Corbel
Cornice Parapet
12. Group B buildings are:
residential institutional
assembly educational
13. Roof trusses are generally used when the span exceeds:
3m 5m
10m 15m
14. In struck pointing, the face of the pointing is I • flat sloping outwards
vertical but pressed inside grooved
15. Minimum period before striking soffit formwork to slabs:
21 days 7 days
3 days 1 day
16. The line joining the optical centre of object glass to the centre of eye· piece of a telescope is
Line of collimation Line of sight
Axis of bubble tube Axis of telescope
17. The line normal to the plumb line at all points:
Vertical line Horizontal line
Datum line Level line
143/2015 4 A
18. The staff readings taken at stations D from a single setup of the level are 0.535, 1.105, 2.155, 1.785. The station B is
Below A and D Above C and D
Between C and D None of the above
19. The BS is 6.655 taken on BM of RL 400.000. IfFS is 1.45, RL of the last station is:
394.795 401.450
405.205 406.655
20. The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian is known as
Declination Dip
Bearing Local attraction
21. The fore and back bearing of a line differ exactly by
360° 180°
90° 45°
22. The angles of elevation from A to the top and bottom of a rod of length 2 m held vertically at Bare 45° and 30° respectively. The horizontal distance AB is
4.732 m 1.268 m
3.464 m 0.789 m
23. The sun is at the Autumnal Equinox on
March 21 June 21
September 21 December 21
24. Subsidiary station established as near the true triangulation station as possible is known as
Satellite station Principal station
Central station Pivot station
25. A ladder of weight W is resting against a smooth vertical wall and a smooth floor. The minimum force to be applied at.the floor end to keep it in equilibrium at angle 8 with floor is
Wtan8 0.5Wtan8
Wcot8 0.5Wcot8
26. The centre of gravity of a right circular hollow cone of diameter d and height h lies at a vertical distance of from the base.
h/2 h/3
h/4 h/6
A 5 143/2015
[P.T.a.)
27. A block of weight 20kN just begins to move along a horizontal surface on application of 5kN horizontal force. The coefficient of friction between block and surface is
0.10 0.20
0.25 0.50
28. Which of the following is an incorrect assumption in the analysis of truss?
All joints are pinned
Loads applied at joints only
All members are straight
Weights of members are acting at their centres
29. During strain hardening:
Material undergoes changes in atomic and crystalline structures
Increased resistance to further deformation
Stress strain diagram has positive slope
All the above
30. Ability of a material to absorb energy within the elastic range:
Toughness Elasticity
Stiffness Resilience
31. A cantilever beam fixed at left end carries a udl w unit length over the left half portion and a point load W at the free end. If L is the length of the beam, the bending moment at fixed end is:
WU2+wL2/4 wU2+ WL2/4
wL+ WL2/8 WL+wL2/8
32. A beam ABC, is simply supported at A and B and BC is overhanging. AB Land BC U2 and it carries a point load P at C. The deflection at C is
PL2/24EI PL3/8EI
PL3/48EI PL2/16EI
33. The Poisson's ratio of a material is 0.3 and Young's modulus is 200 GPa. Its Rigidity Modulus
IS:
77 GPa 51 GPa
125 GPa 333 GPa
143/2015 6 A
34. Bending moment M and torque T are applied on a solid circular shaft. If the maximum bending stress is equal to the maximum shear stress developed, M is equal to
T 2T
T/2 • T/4
35. Surface tension is caused by a force the free surface.
Adhesion Cohesion
Both and Either or
36. Find the height of a mountain ifpressure measured at its base and top are 74 cm and 60 cm ofmercuryrespectively.Specific weightofairis11.97N/m3
W 1750m
2600 m 1560 m
37. A stable submerged body has:
Centre of gravity below centre of buoyancy
Centre of gravity below metacentre
Centre of gravity above centre of buoyancy
Centre of gravity above metacentre
38. Poise is the unit of:
Density Velocity gradient
Kinematic viscosity Dynamic viscosity
39. The velocity distribution at any section of a pipe for steady laminar flow is
Linear Exponential
Parabolic Constant
40. In flow through pipe, the efficiency of transmission under conditions of maximum power transmission is:
50% 66.67%
70% 95.9%
41. A rectangular channel will be most economical when the flow depth and bottom width are in the ratio
2:1 1:1
1:2 1:4
A 7 143/2015 [P.T.O.)
42. Water flow in large sized pipes for large flow rates can be measured using:
Orifices Notches
Venturi meter Elbow meter
•
43. An inward flow reaction turbine:
Impulse turbine Francis turbine
Pelton turbine All the above
44. The amount of moisture present in the air expressed as mass per unit volume is:
Absolute humidity Saturation'rate
Vapour pressure All the above
45. The salt concentration in irrigation water is generally measured by
SAR value Electrical conductivity value
pH value BOD value
46. Optimum depth ofkor -watering for rice is:
13.5 cm 16.5 cm
19 cm 20cm
47. The crop period of a crop is 120 days. It.requires 10 cm depth of water at every 10 days. Its delta is
120 cm 60 cm
12cm 6cm
48. The water which cannot be extracted by the plants from the soil is called:
Capillary water Hygroscopic water
Available moisture Field capacity
49. The canal which is not supposed to do any irrigation is called:
Major distributory Minor distributory
Branch canal Main canal
50. The geological formation which contains and readily yields water to tube wells:
Water table Aquifer
Aquiclude Aquifuge
51. Type of cross -drainage work where canal is passed below the drainage is
Super passage Aqueduct
Inlet Level crossing
143/2015 8 A
52. A reservoir which retains excess supplies during periods of peak flows and release them gradually during low flows:
Retarding reservoir Flood control reservoir
Distribution reservoir Conservation reservoir
53. A plot of cumulative rain versus time is called:
Mass curve Hydrograph
Hyetograph DAD curve
54. Example of subsurface source of water:
River Ponds
Spring Streams
55. The standard unit of turbidity of water is that which is produced by 1 mg of ---dissolved in one litre of distilled water.
Finely divided silica Platinum cobalt
Potassium permanganate Formazin
56. A compound that imparts temporary hardness to water:
Calcium sulphate Magnesium chloride
Calcium nitrate Magnesium carbonate
57. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a slow sand filter:
Incoming water should not be treated by coagulants
Depth of water should be double the depth of filter sand
Loss of head is limited to a maximum of 1.2 m
Cleaning should not be done by back washing
58. A method of disinfection of drinking water:
Treatment with excess lime Treatment with ozone
Electra-Katadyn process All the above
59. BOD of effluent from secondary biological treatment of sewage is
0 to of the original 5 to 10% of the original
25 to 40% of the original 50 to 60% of the original
A 9 143/2015
60. During sludge digestion:
Acidity condition should prevail Alkaline condition should prevail
Acidity or alkaline condition Neutral condition should prevail
61. The disposal method in which solid waste is heated in an oxygen free atmosphere and reduced to gaseous, liquid and solid fractions:
Pyrolysis Pulverisation
Incineration Composting
62. The best system of plumbing of drainage work in building is
One pipe system
Two pipe system
Single stack system
Partially ventilated single stack system
63. Water content of soil is 0.15, Degree of saturation void ratio is 0.61, then specific gravity is
2.85 2.13
2.50 2.17
64. The numerical difference between liquid limit and plastic limit is
Liquidity index Plasticity index
Consistency index Flow index
65. The intensity of vertical stress at depth z below a concentrated load by Boussinesq equation is
Q
0"% 0.57752(B) 0.4775 Qz2
z
Q
0"% 0.47752(D) 0.5775 Qz2
z
66. The volumetric strain per unit increase in effective stress of soil is defined as
Compression index Volume compressibility
Coefficient of compressibility Consolidation
67. Failure of a finite slope along a surface that intersects the slope above the toe
Compound failure Base failure
Slope failure Toe failure
143/2015 10 A
68. The height to diameter ratio of cylindrical speCImen for uniaxial compreSSIOn test of concrete is
0.50 0.30
0.25 CD) 2.00
69. Which of the following is a measure of dynamic modulus of elasticity of concrete?
Tangent modulus Secant modulus
Initial tangent modulus CD) All the above
70. The partial safety factor for strength of concrete for service ability limit state is
1.00 1.10
1.15 CD) 1.25
71. When reinforcement bars placed short of their required length need to be extended, we use:
anchorages standard bends and hooks
development length CD) splices
72. The ultimate moment of resistance by LSM for a beam with b 300 mm, d 550 mm, M20 concrete, reinforced with 4-25mm dia Fe250 bars:
146 kNm 194 kNm
200 kNm CD) 210 kNm
73. Relation between Young's modulus and cube strength of concrete is
500.j7;; 5700.j7;;
5000.j7;; CD) 700.j7;;
74. The minimum area of tension reinforcement required in a rectangular beam section 200mm x400 mm if Fe415 steel is used at 25 mm effective cover:
154 mm2 180 mm2
164 mm2 CD) 193 mm2
75. Effective span of a simply supported beam is
Face to face distance of supports Clear span effective depth
Clear span -effective depth CD) Clear span effective depth
76. Minimum grade of concrete for pre tensioned pre-stressed concrete: .
M20 M30
M40 M45
A 11 143/2015 [P.T.O.]
77. Minimum reinforcement required in direction in slabs reinforced with high strength deformed bars is
0.11 0.12
0.15 0.17
78. Structural steel of grade Fe410 A has ultimate tensile strength of:
410 MPa 328 MPa
79. The diameter of bolt hole for a bolt of nominal size 12 mm is
12.0 mm 12.5 mm
13.0 mm 14.0 mm
80. Common hot rolled steel axial compression members fail by
Gross section yielding Critical section rupture
Block shear Flexural buckling
81. As per Indian Standards, the maximum bearing pressure at the column base should not exceed the bearing strength equal to
0.40 fok 0.45 L,k
0.50 fok 0.60 L,k
82. A flat compression element of a cold formed steel section, stiffened at both edges parallel to the direction of stress is called:
Stiffened compression element Unstiffened compression element
Multiple stiffened element Flat element
83. Failure by block shear at an end connection of a plate involves:
Shear along two planes, tension along two planes
Shear along one planes, tension along two planes
Shear along two planes, tension along one plane
Shear along one plane, tension along one plane
84. Which of the following decides the width of taxiway?
Tail width Fuselage length
Wheel base Wing span of aircraft
12 A
143/2015
85. Elevator:
Controls pitching of aircraft Controls yawing of aircraft
Is fixed on the wing Controls rolling of aircraft
86. What is the super elevation required on a horizontal.circular curve of radius 100m for a design speed of 50 kmlh and coefficient of lateral friction 0.15?
0.017 0.027
0.047 0.157
87. Ruling gradient for mountainous terralli is:
4%
6%
88. The psychological widening required on a horizontal curve of radius 235 m for a design speed of65kmlhis
0.446 m 0.456 m
0.646 m 0.656 m
89. Ifthe cross slope of a terrain is 20 according to IRC classification, it is a Plain terrain Rolling terrain
Mountainous terrain Steep terrain
90. The number of vehicles occupying a unit length of a lane of roadway at a given instant is
Traffic volume Traffic capacity
Traffic density Basic capacity
91. Which of the following is a warning sign?
One -way Speed limit
Cycle crossing Parking
92. The gauge of a railway track is defined as
The clear distance between inner faces of two rails
The clear distance between outer faces of two rails
The centre to centre distance between two rails
The distance between inner faces of a pair of wheels
A 13 143/2015 [P.T.a.)
93. Equilibrium cant for a 3° curve on a Broad Gauge track, if the permitted speed' is 70kmph, is:
18.85 cm 16.20 cm
15.85 cm 11.25 cm
94. The gradient which determines the maximum load that the engine can haul on a section:
Ruling gradient Momentum gradient
Pusher gradient Super elevation
95. The difference between the latest allowable time and the earliest expected time is
Maximum float Total float
Slack time Free float
96. Military organisation is
Line organisation Line and staff organisation
Functional organisation None of these
97. 'The Garden City' principle for town planning was introduced by
Sir Ebenezer Howard Sir Patrick Geddes
Clarence Stein Henry Wright
98. Which of the following is a natural growth of a town?
Ribbon development Satellite growth
Scattered growth All the above
99. Honey comb brick wall is measured in
Metres Square metres
Cubic metres Number
100. The value of dismantled materials:
Scrap value Rateable value
Salvage value Market value
143/2015 14 A
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