1 What is true of affinity tags?

Affinity tags are long peptide sequences.

Affinity tags have 4 consecutive tyrosine residues.

Affinity tags have 6 consecutive histidine residues.

Affinity tags have 8 different amino acid residues.

2 Which anticoagulants are permitted to be used for storing whole Human Blood as per IP
Anticoagulant Citrate Dextrose solution
Anticoagulant Citrate Phosphate Dextrose solution (ACPD)
Low Molecular Weight Heparins (LMWHs)
Sodium Warfarin

and

and

and

and

3 Place the steps involved in hemostasis in the correct order of their occurrence:
Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
Activation of intrinsic or extrinsic pathway
Formation of prothrombinase.

and

and

and

and

4 What is the correct combination of temperature and duration of storage respectively for preservation of Cryoprecipitate?

-20°C for 6 months

-20°C for 9 months

-30°C for 9 months

-30°C for 12 months

5 What is the maximum volume of blood advised to be donated within consecutive period of 12 months

1.0 L

1.2 L

1.5 L

1.8 L

6 Which chemical is released by platelets when they adhere to the damaged wall

Histamine

5 -Hydroxytryptamine

Acetylcholine

Adrenalin

7 How many types of antigens have been detected on the surface of Red Blood Cells

Five

Ten

Fifty

More than one hundred

8 In which disease, Type -IV Hypersensitivity reaction causes chronic intestinal inflammation and obstruction?

Contact dermatitis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Crohn disease

Multiple sclerosis

9 What is not true of the Haemolytic disease of newborns?
It can affect malnourished newborns.
Causes jaundice.
Occurs because of incompatible blood transfusion in newborns.
Can be prevented by injecting the mother with anti agglutinins just after delivery.

and

and

and

and

10 When is HBIG administered to an infant born to HBs Ag positive mother?

Within 7 days after birth

Within 1 day after birth

Within 8 hours after birth

Within 12 hours after birth

11 What is not true of the composition of blood?
Plasma forms 91.5% of blood.
WBCs are largely responsible for the viscosity of blood.
Albumins form the major group of plasma proteins.
Macrophages are a type of circulating RBCs.

and

and

and

and

12 Which hemopoietic growth factor regulates conversion of myloid stem cells to myloblasts

Colony Forming Unit -Erythrocyte

Colony Forming Unit -Leukocyte

Colony Forming Unit -Granulocyte Macrophage

Colony Forming Unit -Erythropoietin

13 What is not true of the cord stem cells?
They are easily collected.
They are more in stem cells than in red bone marrow.
The match between donar and recipient has to be exact in a transplant.
Less likely to transmit infections.



and





14 What is not true of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation?

It is fast and simple.

Its activators are in direct contact with blood.

Outside tissue damage is not needed.

Contact with collagen fibres activates factor XII.

15 The following is true about anaphylactic reactions:
Occurs within a few minutes after exposure to allergen in a previously sensitised person.
IgE antibodies and mast cells play an important role
Rheumatoid Arthritis is an example.
Penicillin can cause it in a few people.

and

and

and

and

16 Which organism is known to cause Lymphogranuloma Venereum in both the sexes?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Trichomonas vaginalis

Treponema pallidium

Chlamydia trachomatis

17 What is true of the Genital Herpes?
It is not curable
It is recurrent
Caused by HSV
Chancres are produced in advanced stages.

and

and

and

and

18 How much minimum percent Haemoglobin content should whole Human Blood contain?

11.1

10.2

9.7

8.5

19 Which type of antibody causes anaphylaxis leading to vascular dilation and edema leading to inflammation

IgE

IgA

IgD

IgM

20 What is the chemical nature of antigens present on the surface of RBCs

Phospholipid

Glycolipid

Lipopoly saccharide

Glycoprotein

21 Which organ or its part is affected by ureaplasma urealyticum

Ureter

Urethra

Nephron

Glomerulus

22 Match the blood group with the colour scheme of the labels:
Column A Column B
(Blood group) (Label colour)
O Yellow
A White
B Blue
AB Pink











23 HIV mainly damages follOWing types of cells.

Halper T cells

Natural Killer Cells

Red blood cells

Eosinophils

24 Which of the following is/are activated by thromboplastin?
Fibrinolytic system
Extrinsic coagulation pathway
Platelet aggregation
Graft Vs host reaction

only

and

and

and

25 A hematocrit of 40 indicates the following:

Blood forms 40% of body fluids.

RBCs form 40% of the total volume of blood.

RBCs, WBCs and platelets together form 40% of the total volume of blood.

Haemoglobin is 40% lower than normal range.

26 Fill in the blank. Tissue type plasminogen activator that cleaves plasminogen to form plasmin is a enzyme.

Nuclease

Amylase

Protease

Lipase

27 What is the quantum of formed elements in whole blood?

40%

45%

55%

60%

28 Which are the two most important constituents of Fibrin sealant kit

Fibrinogen and thrombin

Prothrombin and thrombin

Fibrin and Fibrinogen

Vitamin K and thromboplastin

29 When did the Government of India publish National Blood Policy?

1950

1991

2002

2010

30 Which is the most common viral antigen found on the surface of HIV

P 24

P 12

P 3128

P 8080

31 What are the anti -viral drugs recommended for treatment of H1N1 viral infections?
Oseltamivir
Zanamivir
Acyclovir
Lamivudin

and

and

and

and

32 What drugs are used to terminate early pregnancy?
Finasteride
Tamoxifen
Clomiphene
Mifepristone

and







33 What is not true of oxytocin?
It acts through a protein coupled receptors.
Number of oxytocin receptors increc1se in late pregnancy.
It is used in uterine inertia.
Estrogens desensitize uterus to oxytocin.

and

and





34 What is the threshold limit value for chloroform at a workplace?

2 ppm

3 ppm

5 ppm

10 ppm

35 What is the main site of action for steroid hormones?

Cytoplasm

Plasma membrane

Nucleus

Mitochondria

36 In which of the following organs Fluoride and Lead get concentrated?

Body fat

Intravascular space

Extracellular space

Bones

37 Which of the following antiepileptic drugs acts as a GABA transaminse inhibitor?

Sodium valproate

Vigabatrin

Tiagabine

Gabapentine

38 Which of the following drugs is given during hypertensive emergencies as a IV infusion?

Nifedipine

Nitroglycerine

Sodium Nitroprusside

Propranolol

39 What is not true of the mechanism of action of local anaesthetics?
They block conduction of Na ions.
A resting nerve is very sensitive to its action.
Small unmyelinated C fibers are blocked before the larger fibers.
The drug enters the cell in charged form.





and



40 What is the duration of each cycle of non -rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep?

90 min

10 min

60 min

30 min

41 What is not true of primaquine?
It is not useful in treatment of symptomatic malaria.
It is used to eradicate the hypnozoites of P.vivax and P. ovale.
Used for prophylaxis in healthy travellers.
Contraindicated in G6PD deficiency.

and

and





42 What do untoward reactions to sulfonamides include?
Haemolytic anaemia
Discoloured teeth
Crystaluria
Kernicterus

and

and

and

and

43 Which of the following Chelators is preferred in the treatment of Wilson's disease?

Unithiol

D -Penicillamine

EDTA

Deferoxamine

44 Which of the following antiviral drugs is topically used for HSV keratitis?

Gancydovir

Acyclovir

Idoxuridine

Amantadine

45 Which of the following injectable local anesthetics is administered only in subarachnoid space?

Procaine

Amithocaine

Bupivacaine

Lignocaine

46 On which of the opioid receptors does methadone act predominantly?

Delta

Kappa

Mu

Sigma

47 Which of the following metals is primarily bound in skin, hair and nails?

Lead

Copper

Zinc

Arsenic

48 Which of the following classes of drugs are l.lsed in dry unproductive cough?
Mucolytics
Expectorants
Anti -tussives
Anti -histaminics

and

and

and

and

49 What is the major route of absorption for elemental Mercury

Respiratory tract

Gastrointestinal tract

Skin

Eyes

50 Haemolysis with primaquine due to G -PD deficiency is an example of

Genetic defect leading to variation in drug action

Disease induced modification in drug action

Cross tolerance reaction

Tachyphylaxis

51 What is true of penicillamine
It is a narrow spectrum antibiotic.
It is orally absorbed.
It chelates copper, mercury, zinc and lead.
Long term use may cause cutaneous lesions

and

and

and

and

52 Which of the following are the features of a cardioselective 13(beta) blocker?
Does not cause dyslipidaemia
Less liable to impair exercise capacity
Safer in diabetics (as compared to non -selective 13 blocker).
Suppresses essential tremor.

and

and

and

and

53 In a patient suffering from liver cirrhosis, the following effects on drug action may occur.
BioavailabiIity of drugs undergoing high first pass metabolism.
Protein binding of acidic drugs may decrease.
Dose of drugs getting metabolised by hepatic microsomal enzymes has to be reduced.
Dose of drugs excreted in an unchanged form has to be reduced.

and

and

and

and

54 Which of the following drugs is known to cause Raye's Syndrome?

Phenacetin

Sulindac

Dicofenac

Aspirin

55 What does Edetate Calcium Disodium effectively treat?
Lead poisoning
Mercury poisoning
Arsenic poisoning
Artherosc1erotic plaques



andid)

and



56 Which of the following insulin preparations of bovine origin is short acting?

Insulin -Zinc suspension amorphus (semi -lente)

Insulin -Zinc suspension (lente)

Insulin -.Zinc suspension crystalline (ultra-Iente)

Isophane

57 Match the given antifungal drugs with their mechanism of action:
Column A (drugs) Column B (Mechanism)
Amphotericin B Inhibits eryosterol synthesis
Fluconazole Alters permeability of cell membrane
Flucytosine Inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis
Terbinafine Accumulation of sterol squalene











58 Which substance is antagonized by Naloxone?

Propranolol

Labetalol

Opioid receptor

Salbutamol

59 What is not true of Aspirin?
It is a very safe drug.
It is a selective COX2 inhibitor.
It can induce platelet aggregation.
It can induce asthma.

and

and

and

and

60 What are the important features of amoxicillin
It is penicillinase resistant.
It is bactericidal for both gram positive and gram negative bacteria.
Incidence of diarrhoea is less.
Indicated in respiratory injections

and

and

and

and

61 What is the commonest cause of malaria in the world?

P. Vivex

P.Ovale

P. Falciparum

P. Malariae

62 Complete the sentence: Tyndal developed a method for control of microorganisms called as Tyndallization in which

Intermittent sterilization is done

Boiling is done

Autocleving is done

Pasteurization is done

63 The Epsilometer test is employed to
find severity of infection.
determine the efficacy of antibiotic heatment.
find the titre of the antibodies.
determine the minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotic.









64 Man is dead end for:

Typhoid

Diphtheria

Rabies

AIDS

65 Stormy clot reaction is typically seen in infection by

Borrelia

Treponema

Clostradium welchii

H. influenzae

66 Genetic mechanism of bacterial drug resistance includes:
Mutations occur at the rate 10-5 lo 10-9 cells per generation.
Recombination between two cells, each resistant to different drugs can produce a cell resistant to both.
A plasmid carrying gene introduced into cell population usually infect every other cell.



and

and

and

67 Development of the concept of aseptic technique was devised by

Louis Pasteur

Joseph Lister

Robert Koch

Paul Ehrlich

68 Scintillation counter is used for which tests:
ELISA
RIA
CIM
H1N1

only

only

both

only

69 One of the following is not an enzyme used in ELISA:

beta -galactosidase

glucose oxidase

alkaline phosphatase

coagulase

70 In microorganism growth is an important metabolic process involving the following steps. Arrange them in their chronological order.
Cell division
Morphogenesis
Differentiation
Expansion

Choose the correct option.









71 Which cell is involved in the speCific immune response?

Monocytes

Lymphocytes

Endocytes

Nuc1eocytes

72 Aggressins are nothing but:

Group of chemical compounds resembling hormones.

Substances that activate the host response system.

Group of diffusable cellular components produced by certain pathogen.

Substance that inactivates the host immunity.

73 What is the temperature -pressure combination for an autoclave?

100 degrees c and 4 psi

121 degrees c and 15 psi

131 degrees c and 9 psi

115 degrees c and 3 psi

74 The primary effect of ultra -violet radiations is on microbial:

carbohydrates

enzymes

nucleic acids

cell walls

75 Urinary tract infection is most often caused by

E. coli

Proteus

Klebsiella

Pseudomonas

76 The penicillin family of antibiotics is used primarily against:

viruses

fungi

gram negative bacteria

gram positive bacteria

77 Cocci arranged in packet of eight are

Staphylococci

Streptococci

Pneumococci

Gaffkyi

78 Streptococcus Pneumoniae may cause:

gonorrhea

otitis media

endocarditis

wound infection

79 Cephalosporins are produced by

Unicellular bacteria

Filamentous bacteria

Molds

Algae

80 A fever inducing substance is known as

exotoxin

endotoxin

pyrogens

enterotoxin

81 Temperature in Hot -air oven for sterilization may be
210°C for 1/2 hr
180°C for 1 hr
160°C for 1 1/2 hr

Only is true

Only is true

Only is true

and are true

82 In India, viral hepatatis is most commonly caused by

Hepatatis A

Hepatatis B

Non A Non B Hepatatis

Delta Hepatatis

83 Drug resistance can be transferred by
R -plasmid from one bacteria to another
the process of transduction.

both are true

only is true

both are false

only is true

84 Disinfection means

When an article is freed of all microorganisms

Destruction of all pathogenic microorganisms

Prevention of infection

Inhibiting growth of bacteria

85 Hydrophobia is caused by rabies virus, its incubation period seems to be related to

Vaccination

Distance between site of bite and CNS (Central Nervous System)

Types of vector

Infecting dose of virus

86 Widal test is carried out for the diagnosis of Typhoid, what is true of the widal reaction?

Antibodies to Ag appear first and persist.

Antibodies to Ag appear first and persist.

Antibodies to O'Ag appear simultaneously.

Antibodies to'H Ag persist.

87 Consider the following statements:
Gnotobiotic animals have only certain known strains of bacteria and other microorganisms.
Gnotobiotic animals do not have well developed immune systems, lower cardiac output and high susceptibility to infections.

Now state whether:

is true

is true

and are true

both are false

88 The BOD of effluent is affected by
The organic matter content.
The oxidizable inorganic matter content.
pH of the effluent.
Coloured substances.









89 Match the following:
List I List II
S. aureus UTI infection
E. coli Respiratory tract infection
C. diphtheriae Opportunistic infection
P. Vulgaris Wound infection











90 What is laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever based on
Blood culture
Urine culture
Widal test
Stool culture

and

and

and

and

91 Match the following proteins with their specific functions in DNA replication.
Helicases Processive unwinding of DNA
DNA primases Seals the single strand
DNA Ligases Relieves torsional strain
Topoisomerases Initiates synthesis of RNA primers

Answer options









92 Match the following: Unsuitable characteristics for sustained release Drug
Long t 1/2 Furosemide
Absorbed and excreted rapidly Digitoxin
No effective absorption in lower intestine Diazepam
Low therapeutic index Riboflavin











93 In the RNA molecule:
guanine content does not equal cytosine content.
guanine content equals cytosine content.
adenine content does not equal uracil content.
adenine content equals uracil content.

Answer options

and only

and only

and only

and only

94 Enzyme immobilization makes use of the following materialjs as matrix:
calcium algenate
kappa -carrageenan
furcellaran
none of the above

Options:

and

only

only

and

95 Consider the following:
Chlorhexidine and salts, phenol
Hexamethylene tetramine
Benzalkonium chloride
Phenyl mercuric acetate
Which of the above is/are used as broad spectrum preservatives in emulsion?

Only

Only

and

All of the above

96 Commercial levels of phenylalanine can be obtained from:
A. niger
B. subtilis
E. coli
C. albicans

Options:

and

and

only

only

97 The Michaelis -Neuton equation relates the velocity of a reaction catalysed by an enzyme with:

Concentration of product formed

Concentration of substrate required

Collision frequency

Energy of activation

98 When internal stresses in the film exceeds, the tensile strength of the film results in
Blistering
Cracking
Bloom
Bridging and Filling

Only

Only

and



99 Gibberellin, a secondary metabolite of microbes, is
an antibiotic
an anti-ulcer agent
a plant growth regulator
an immunosuppressant

Options:

and

only

only

only

100 Which of the following molecule/s is/are not steroidal in nature?
dafachromic acid
aramchol
sterchamol
brassinolide

Options:

only

and

only

and

101
Compounds and are

positional isomers

chain isomers

functional isomers

none of the above

102 Citric acid is the primary metabolite obtained from:

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Aspergillus niger

Corynebacterium glutamicum

Xanthamonas species

103 Consider the following:
t 10% -ln 0.90/K1
t 10% 0.105/K1

Which of the above is/are used to compute shelf life?

Only

Only

Both and

Neither nor

104 The 7-methyl guanosine triphosphate caps at the end of m-RNA molecules in mammals are necessary for
processing of primary transcript to m -RNA.
translation of m -RNA.
protection of m -RNA.
synthesis of DNA.

Answer options

and only

and only

alone

and only

105
Compounds and are

positional isomers

chain isomers

functional isomers

geometric isomers

106 A characteristic of vaccines made from live attenuated organisms is

they usually require more than one dose to induce a full immune response.

they are prepared using recombinant DNA technology.

they trigger both antibody production and cell-mediated responses.

they trigger antibody production only.

107 The sugar in DNA and RNA, respectively are:

ribulose and deoxyribulose

deoxyribose and ribose

deoxyribofuranose and furanose

ribose and deoxyribose

108 Match the following:
Polyalkoxyethers Lauryl alcohol
Polyalkoxyesters Polyoxyethylene sorbitan acid esters
Ammonium phosphate Polyoxyethylene polyoxypropylene block polymer
Fatty alcohols Lecithin











109 FMC corporation has developed patented aqueous enteric coating called as

Aquateric

Aquateric and Eudragit

HPMCP 50

Aquateric, Eudragit and HP-555

110 A particular class of emulsifier is selected primarily on the basis of
Required shelf life
Route of administration
Type of emulsion
Emulsifier cost

Options:

only

and

and

none of the above

111 Isomers formed by the inter-conversion, based only on the rotations about single bonds are called as
conformational isomers
conformers
rotamers
stereomers

Options:

and

and

only

and

112 Excess glucose is stored in the body by the process of

glycogenolysis

glycogenesis

lipolysis

gluconeogenesis

113 Test required for treated soda lime glass i.e Type II is/are:
Light transmission
Water attack at 121 test
Multiple internal reflectance
Water vapour permeation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Only

Both and

and

and

114 Match the following
Emulsifier HLB value
Sodium oleate 2.1
Sorbitan monolaurate 7.1
Sucrose dioleate 8.6
Sorbitan tristearate 18.0











115 The precursor for biosynthesis of steroids in the body is

acetyl -CoA

glycogen

amino acids

fatty acids

116 A chemostat is nothing but:

a nutrient -limited self-balancing culture system

a statistical software for chemical systems

a chemical used as a hemostat

none of the above

117 Metabolism of amino acids involves all of the following except:

transamination

deamination

beta oxidation

citric acid cycle

118 A period of adaptation of microbes is also referred to as

growth phase

lag phase

log phase

stationary phase

119 Agents that cut DNA at specific sequences in Recombinant DNA Technology are called:

Exonucleases

Phages

Plasmids

Restriction enzymes

120 Which of the following is/are example/s of enteric coated polymers?
Sodium carboxymethyl cellulose
Polyethylene glycols
Cellulose acetate phthalate
Acrylate polymers

Only

Only

Only

All of the above

121 Reverse phase liquid-liquid chromatography means

the stationary phase is polar compound and the mobile phase is a non-polar solvent

the direction of flow of the mobile phase is reversed

the stationary phase is a non-polar compound and the mobile phase is a polar solvent

pre-derivatisation is done to less polar compound

122 Which of the following statements give the advantages of HPTLC over TLC
Sample volumes are in the lower nanolitre range
Solvent migration is faster
Efficient for dilute samples after extraction
HPTLC layers are of finer particle size

Answer options

Only and are correct

and are incorrect

and are incorrect

is correct but and are incorrect

123 Scanning densitometer is a part of

high pressure liquid chromatograph

high pressure thin layer chromatograph

gas liquid

gas solid chromatograph

124 Which of the following is most affected by the temperature changes in flame photometry

absorption spectrometry

atomic spectrometry

emission spectrometry

molecular spectrometry

125 "Figures of merit" used to evaluate the performance characteristics of an analytical technique include
Linearity range
Coefficient of selectivity
Coefficient of variation
Systematic error

Answer options:

and only

and only

and only

and

126 Squalane, the stationary phase used in CLC, is chemically

a high molecular weight saturated hydrocarbon

a high molecular weight unsaturated hydrocarbon

a low molecular weight complex

a high molecular weight complex

127 If a drug is manufactured under a name which belongs to another drug then it is known as

Spurious

Misbranded

Adulterated

Genuine

128 A Mass Spectrometer is linked to a LC so that:

exact mass of the mixture can be determined by Mass Spectrometry before it is passed through LC.

liquid used as mobile phase in LC is first purified by Mass Spectrometer.

substances can be separated in LC and then passed through Mass Spectrometer.

substances can be separated by Mass Spectrometer and then passed through LC.

129 Processes occurring during atomization Atomic Absorption Spectrometry are in the order:
Desolvation
Ionization
Nebulization
Volatilization
Dissociation

Answer options









130 Anastomosis are typically performed on
blood vessels
gastro-intestinal tract
urinary tract
none of the above

Options:

only

and

and

only

131 The advantages of Fourier Transform IR over Dispersive IR include the following, except:

Sample is exposed to the entire IR beam at a time

Only radiation of a narrow frequency falls on the detector at a time

Use of laser provides high frequency accuracy

Emission of IR radiation by the sample is not detected

132 Which of the following detector/s used in"Gas chromatography are mass flow sensitive?

Thermal conductivity

Flame ionization

Photo ionization

Electron capture

133 Drug shall be deemed to be misbranded, if it is:
not labelled in prescribed manner
colored, coated or polished, damage is concealed
made to appear better or greater therapeutic value than it really is

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

only

and only

and only

and

134 High risk of infection and scarring are mainly disadvantages of

Sutures

Staples

Stenstrips

Tissue-glues

135 Which of the following committees advises the DTAB and various governments?
D.C.C
D.E.C
C.C.U.M
P.C.I

only

only

and

only

136 Laryngoscope is used to examine

lungs

vocal cords

glottis

kidneys

137 As per the limit test for heavy metals I.P., method D involves the use of

ignition at 500 to 600

thioacetamide reagent

hydrogen sulphide

sodium sulphide

138 Duties of government analyst are
To analyse or test the samples of drugs and cosmetics
To investigate any complaint in writing made to him

Which of the above statement/s is true?

Only is true

Only is true

Both and are true

Neither nor is true

139 The efficiency of a column in chromatography is defined in terms of

shape of the peaks obtained

retention factor

variance per unit length

selectivity factor

140 The schedule in D and C act that deals with particulars to be shown in manufacturing and analytical records of drugs is

Options:

Schedule V

Schedule X

Schedule U

Schedule W

141 Consider the following with respect to UV spectroscopy:
sigma to sigma* transitions occur in compounds having no lone pair of electrons
n to sigma* transitions occur in saturated compounds with no lone pair of electrons
aliphatic alcohols are used when measurements are made in the 200 to 260 nm range
Saturated hydrocarbons are used when measurements are made in the 200 to 260 nm range

Answer options

Only and are correct

Only and are correct

Only is incorrect

Only and are correct

142 Schedule Y deals with:
manufacture of new drugs
standards for cosmetics
standards for ophthalmic preparations
requirements and guidelines for clinical trials

only

and

and

and

143 Arsine gas in the limit test for arsenic is produced by the reaction between:

H3AsO3 and HZSn03

H3AsO4 and HzSnO2

H3AsO3 andHz

H3AsO4 and H2

144 Which of the following statements is/are true?
Drug inspector has no financial interest in the import, manufacture or sale of drugs.
Drug inspector is a public servant.
Drug inspector should have qualifications as per section 20 of the Act.

Only

Only

and

All of the above

145 A drug sample taken by drug inspector for analysis is sent to
Drug Controller
State Drug Laboratory
Excise Commissioner
Government Analyst

and

only

only

and

146 Dithione, used in the limit test of lead, is chemically:

diphenylthiocarbazone

diphenylthioazone

dimethylthiocarbazone

dimethylthioazone

147 A jet separator in LC-MS, works on the principle of

Venturi action

Solubility of a separated fraction in an elastomer

Solubility of the mobile phase in an elastomer

Permeability of a separated fraction through an elastomer

148 Consider the following:
The Drug Controllor of India
The Director, Central Drug Laboratory
The President, Pharmacy Council of India
The Director General of Health Services
Which one of the above is the chairman of the Drugs Technical Advisory Board?

only

only

only

None of the above

149 Match the following
Schedule Factory Premises for
M manufacture of cosmetics
M II manufacture of drugs
M III manufacture of homeopathic drugs
M I manufacture of medical devices











150 Hemostat is used to

degrade heme

control bleeding during surgery

stop degradation of haemogloblin

none of the above

151 A recent report by the American Heart Association which was also reported in the media, discusses the vulnerability of people to heart disease in relation to their blood groups. Which of the below mentioned statements are true according to the report
People with blood group AB are least vulnerable.
People with type 0 blood group are least vulnerable.
The order of decreasing vulnerability is AB, O.
There is no relation found between blood grouping and heart disease.

Only is true

and are true

Only is true

None of the above

152 Permitted daily exposure for class II solvents is

0.1mg/ day

1mg/ day

10mg/ day

0.01mg/ day

153 Approval for the first generic AtoS (Pioglitazone hydrochloride) tablet to treat type 1 diabetes has been granted by FDA to which of the companies?
Mylon pharmaceuticals
Cadila pharmaceuticals
Pfizer pharmaceuticals
Orthobiotech Pvt. Ltd

and

and

only

only

154 Out of the publications mentioned below one or more are not considered to be a part of Indian Pharmaceutical guide:
Drug Today
Pharma Pulse
MIMS
CIMS

Options:

and

and

only

only

155 Which of the following sections of population are beneficiaries of the ICDS programme?
Women above 60 years
Children below 6 years
Pregnant and lactating women
Women in the age group 15-44 years

and

and

and

and

156 New drugs recommended by NDAC for marketing without clinical trial:
Cabazitaxel
Crizotinib
Degarelix
Clopidoprel

and

and



and

157 "Cannabis according to Narcotics and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 includes
ecgonine and all its derivatives from which ecgonine can be recovered.
ganja, that is, flowering or fruiting tops of the cannabis plant.
phenanthrene alkaloids, such as morphine and codeine.
charas, that is resin obtained from cannabis plant.

and

and only

and

and only

158 The Clinical Trials Registry India has been set up with which of the following objectives
Improve transparency and accountability of clinical trials.
Conformation of clinical trials to accepted ethical standards.
Reporting of all relevant results of registered clinical trials.
Advise regarding recruitment of subjects for clinical trials.

and only

and only

and

and only

159 The Central Drugs Authority has following divisions:
Regulatory and Enforcement
New Drugs and Clinical Trials
Issue of licences for retail sale of drugs
Imports of Drugs and Cosmetics

and

and

and

and only

160 The NPPA has issued clarification 2012, in the press that price of one of the following drugs has not been raised -which drug is it

Norfloxacin

Cefotaxime

Insulin

Vitamin C

161 The Systemic Antidote for Acetaminophen is

Atropine

Activated charcoal

N-acetyl cysteine

EDTA

162 Which of the two modules have been recently added in good pharmacovigilance practices?
Module III pharmacovigilance monitoring
Module X Additional monitoring
Module V Risk management system
Module II pharmacovigilance system master file

and

and

and

and

163 Consider the following statements:
Chronic toxicity may not be of importance in antidote use.
An antidote which is non-toxic may be used even if its efficacy is uncertain.
A toxic antidote may be used even if the diagnosis of the cause is uncertain.
An antidote may mobilize the toxic substance from tissue stores.

Which of the above statements are true?

and only

and only

and

and

164 Compulsory licence has been granted for Anti cancer drug by Indian Patent Office to

Khandelwal Lab

Natco Vs Bayer

Panacea biotech

Sandoz Vs GSk

165 The requirement and guidelines for contract research comes under which schedule?

Sch M

Sch y-1

Sch C

Sch X

166 Which of the following drugs may be used for prophylaxis of malaria?
Chloroquine
Doxycycline
Ciprofloxacin
Metronidazole

and only

and only

and only

and

167 Novel chemical entity GRC 17536, that has recently completed phase I trials in Netherlands is the research initiated by which of the following pharmaceutical companies
Sanofi pharma
Hikal Ltd.
Glenmark pharmaceuticals
Jubiliant pharma

Options:

and

and

and

Only

168 According to DPCO, 1995, "Scheduled formulation" includes:
Formulation containing bulk drug individually specified in first schedule.
Formulation containing bulk drug specified in first schedule in combination with another not specified in the schedule.
Any single drug formulation based on drug specified in first schedule sold under generic name.
Formulation containing drugs not specified in first schedule.

only

and

and

and only

169 Inaugural address at "Two day Polio Summit, 2012" organised by Government of India and Rotary International at Delhi was given by one of the following personalities.

Dr. Manmohan Singh Prime Minister of India

Mr. Kalyan Banerjee President of Rotary International

Mr. Amitabh Bacchan

Ghulam Nabi Azad, Union Health Minister

170 Recently USFDA has approved a new drug for diabetic Macular edema named:

Ranibizumab inj

Thiabendazol

LAMA/LABA

Prasugrel

171 ISO 14000 is primarily concerned with one or more than one of events mentioned below:

Chemical safety

Automotive belts

Quality management

Environmental safety

172 According to a report published in the 'Lancet' and reported in news print media, what is/are Africa's new health problem/s
War and poverty
Famine and disease
Obesity
HIV-AIDS

and both

and

only

only

173 India's First Indigenously developed new medicine by Ranbaxy is

Combination of Arterolane maleate Piperaquine P04

Chloroquine Sulfadoxine Pyrimethamine

Amodiquine Sulfadoxine Pyrimethamine

Artemethur

174 Recently, which of the following anti-epileptic drugs has been reported to reverse memory loss due to Alzheimer's disease in mouse model

Levetiracetam

Phenobarbitone

Ethosuximide

Carbamazepine

175 Which Antidiabetic drug has been recently bannedin India for human use 7

Rosiglitazone

Chlorhexidine

Nateglinide

Acetohexamine

176 What will be the next term in the given sequence Find it from given alternatives. ADE, CFG, EHI, GJK,

IML

ILM

MIL

LMI

177 If means' means' and means' Then what will, be the value of 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 T 6

53

56

59

65

178 As is related to and is related to will be related to

NP

OR

OQ

PR

179 First word bears some definite relationship with the second. From the given alternatives, select the suitable word for'serial number four, which bears the same relation with the third word, that the second has with the first.
Book: Author: Statue:

Painter

Binder

Sculptor

Calligraphist

180 In a code language means 'Red Colour Chalk', means 'Green Colour Flower' and means 'White Colour Chalk'. What is the code for white 7



4

5

6

181 There are three numbers outside and one number inside of two triangles. They are according to some formula. Find the formula and the number at in the third triangle, from given alternatives.




12

9

7

182 Four numbers in each square are according to some formula. Find it and from that find the value of from given alternatives.


5

6

8

7

183 In a code language P R O B L E M is written as M P E R L O B. How N U M B E R S will be written in that code language?

S N U R E M B

S N R U B M E

S N R U E M B

S N R U M E B

184 Which of the figures in given alternatives belongs to the space marked









185 What will be the next term in the given series? B B C B C D B C D E B C D E F B C D E F G B C D E F

B

G

H

D

186 Which letter should go in the blank space


D

E

F

G

187 In a certain code READ is written as 6 and PAID is written as 46. How RIPE will be written in that code?

4 5

6 5

4 5

4 6

188 Which of the following figures will represent the relationship between ball, football and sphere?









189 There is a definite relationship between figures A and B. Establish the similar relationship between figures C and by choosing a suitable figure from given alternatives.










190 Some boys are standing in a row, facing towards North. Ajay is 12th from left. If he moves four places to right, he appears at the place, 18th from right'. What is the total number of boys in the row?

32

33

34

Information is not sufficient

191 A wooden block is shown in the figure. How many different surfaces does the block have?


8

9

10

7

192 Find the missing terms in the given series: 10, 17, 26,

50, 65

45, 65

50, 60

50, 75

193 The numbers in three figures follow some rule, which is not followed by the numbers in one figure. Find the figure, which is different from others.









194 Out of the four groups of letters, three are similar in some way. Find the odd one.
H K
B D
F I
M P









195 Out of the four given figures, three are similar in some way. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.









196 Select the numbers from given alternatives, which will complete the given sequence. 95, 81, 74

102, 87

102, 88

103, 88

101, 89

197 A figure series is given with a blank space shown by Select the suitable figure from given alternatives, which will continue the same series.










198 The given figun;s definite sequence. Fill in the blank space with the suitable figure from given alternatives which should come next.










199 In column I groups of letters and the codes for them are given, not necessarily in the sequence. Each number stands for a letter. What is the code for
Column I Column II
(Groups of Letters) (Codes)
A N P 5 2 4
N M C 1 2 3
P M A 3 4 1



4

3

2

200 The relation between the two terms to the left of and that between the two terms to the right of is same. Find the term at from given alternatives.

E V

U E

V E

E U