1 Biological control used in an autoclave is the spores of Bacillus stearothermophilus Clostridium welchii Bacillius cereus Clostridium histolyticum

2 Glutaraldehyde is useful for sterilization of Cystoscopes

(B) Broncboscopes Plastic materials

(D) All of the above

3 Premunition (Infection-immunity) is seen in Tuberculosis

(B) Whooping cough Enteric Fever

(D) Malaria

4 Which of the following is/are example/s of lysogenic conversion? Production of diphtheria toxin Production of Dick toxin Both of the above None of the above

5 Wheal and flare response is characteristic of Type I hypersensitivity reaction Type II hypersensitivity reaction Type III hypersensitivity reaction Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

6 Catalase production is negative in Staphylococcus Streptococcus Proteus Salmonella

7 Which of the following bacteria is/are found normally in the conjunctival sac? Corynebacteruim xerosis Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pneumoniae All of the above

8 Which of the following vaccines is/are prepared from bve microbes manipulated and attenuated? BeG vaccine Oral polio vaccine Measles vaccine All of the above

9 In presumptive coliform count of water, it is considered satisfactory if the count is 0 1-3 4-10 10-15

10 Which of the following agents is a third generation cephalosporin? Cephalexin Cephalothin Cefotaxime Cefoxitin

11 Which of the following is expressed only by B cells CD 3 CD 64 CD 19 CD 66

12 Fungal infection/s frequently observed in HIV disease is/are: Candidiasis Cryptococcosis Aspergillosis All of the above

13 Which HIV testing strategy is used for blood transfusion safety? I II

(C) III

(D) None of the above

14 HIV belongs to family: Retroviridae Buniyaviridae

(C) Filoviridae None of the above

15 Following are the examples of reemerging infections except: Malaria Plague AIDS Ebola haemorrhagic fever.

16 The inoculum for antibiotic sensitivity by disc diffusion method should contain: 10^4 cfu/ml 10^5 cfu/ml 10^6 cfulml 10^7 cfu/ml

17 Which of the following mosquitoes act as the vector of chikungunya virus Aedes Anopheles Culex Culisela

18 Mark the congenital abnormalities which is/are seen in infants born to women infected with rubella? Neurosensory deafness Congenital heart disease Retinopathy All of the above

19 MMR vaccine is A live attenuated vaccine A killed vaccine A subunit vaccine A synthetic peptide vaccine

20 Which of the following bacteria is/are acid fast? Actinomyces Nocardia Streptomyces All of the above

21 Weil Felix test is negative in Epidemic typhus Endemic typhus Spotted fevers Q fever

22 Which of lhe following genera can hydrolyze urea? Mycoplasma Ureaplasma Acholeplasma All of the ahove

23 Which of the following virus is not arthropod -borne Bunyavirus Phlebovirus Hanta virus Dengue Virus

24 What is the shape of rabies virus? Spherical Polygonal Bullet- shaped Tubular

25 Which of the following conditions can be caused by infection with mumps virus Swelling of parotid glands Orchitis Meningoencephalitis All of the above

26 Which of the following agents is the commonest cause of infective endocarditis Staphyloooocus epidermidis Candida spp Viridans group of Streptococci Coliforms

27 Which of the agents can cause diarrhoea? Rotavirus Vibrio cholerae S.typhimurium All of the above

28 Type I hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by Ig E Ig G Ig M Ig D

29 Which of the following mosquitoes acts as vector for JE virus Culex Aedes Anopheles All of the above

30 associated with development of Hepatocellular carcmoma Hepatitis B virus Hepatitis E virus Hepatitis C virus All the above

31 What type of nucleic acid is present in hepatitis B virus SS DNA DS DNA SS RNA DS RNA

32 Which of the following agents is/are prions Agent causing scrapie Agent causing kuru Agent causing Creutzfeldt Jakob disease All of the above

33 Incineration is an efficient method for: Destroying contaminated materials Sterilizing points of forceps Sterilizing scalpel blades and needles Sterilizing all glass syringes

34 Which of the following fungi cannot be cultured? Sporotichium Rhinosporidium Madurella Phialophora

35 Pathogenic C neoformans can be differentiated from non-pathogenic species by Growth at 370 C Urea hydrolysis Production of brown colonies on niger seed agar All of the above

36 Burkitt's lymphoma is lymphoma; B cell T cell Monocytosis None of the above

37 Microconida are absent in Trichophyton Microsporum Epidermophyton None of the above

38 Kyasanur Forest disease is seen in Gujarat Maharashtra Andhra Pradesh Karnataka

39 Hepatitis E virus belong to family; Flaviviridae Calciviridae Hepadnaviridae Deltaviru8

40 For Weil -Felix reaction antigen is prepared from E. coli Proteus Pseudomonas None of the above

41 Which of the following dematophytes can infect skin, hair and nails Trichophyton Microsporum Epidermophyton None of the above

42 Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is associated with: EBV Hepatitis B Polio virus None of the above

43 Contaminated needle prick can cause: Hepatitis C HIV Hepatitis B All of the ahove

44 Zoonotic disease are: Bubonic plague Rabies Hydatid disease All of the above

45 Dysentery is caused by Shigella E. histolytica Enteroinvasive E.coli All of the above

46 Milk ring test is used in diagnosis of Brucellosi., Q. fever Salmonellosis Tuberculosis

47 Gram negative anaerobic cocci are: Sarcina Vcillcnella Peptococci All of the ahove

48 Toxoids are used for immunization against Tetanus Diphtheria Both of the above Neither of the above

49 Who is known as "Father of Bacteriology" Louis Pasteur Robert Koch Joseph Lister Antony van leeuwenhoek

50 The period between inoculation of bacteria in a culture medium and beginning of multiplication is known as Stationary phase Lag phase Log phase Decline phase

51 Screening test for Syphilis is Kahn test RPR test Dark ground microscopy All of the above

52 All the members of family are Oxidase negative. Enterobacteriaceae Arenaviridae All of the above None of the above

53 Number of proteins in the complement system is 5 7 9 11

54 Major histocompatibility complex in man is known as H complex HLA COmplex Both of the above None of the above

55 In Widal test, the significant titres of H agglutinin is 1 50 or more 1 100 or more 1 200 or more 1 400 or more

56 Chancroid is caused by HaemophiJus influenzae Haemophilus aegyptius Haemophilus ducreyi Haemophilus parainOuenzae

57 The causative agentJs of gas gangrene is/are: Clostridium perfringens Clostridium novyi Clostridium septicum All of the above

58 Traveller's diarrhopea is caused by EnterQpatbogenic E. coli Enterotoxigenic E. coli Enteroinvasive E. coli Vero cytotoxin producing E. coli

59 Which of the following exotoxin is most toxic? Botulinum toxin Tetanus toxin Diphtheria toxin Cholera toxin

60 Lactobacilli constitute the normal flora of Adult vagina Prepubertal vagina Post menopausal vagina All of the above

61 Which of the following animal models can be used for cultivation of Mycobacterium leprae Mouse fool pad Nine -banded armadillos Both of the above None

62 Which of the following bacteria is/are associated with food poison­ing due' to consumption of sea osh Vibro parahaemolyticus Vibrio algiolyticus Vibrio vulnificus All of the above

63 In enteric fever. Salmonella may be isolated from Urine Faeces Blood All of the above

64 BCG vaccine is a Live attenuated preparation Killed preparation Toxoid preparation Recombinant preparation

65 Which of the following is/are nonsense codon/s UAA UAG UGA All of the above

66 False negative mantoux test is observed in Early tuberculosis Advanced tuberculosis Miliary tuberculosis All of the above

67 Which of the following type of leprosy is the most infectious? Lepromatous leprosy Tuberculoid leprosy Borderline tuberculoid leprosy Mild borderline leprosy

68 Which of the foUowing conditions can be caused by PlesiomOllas Gastroenteritis Septicaemia Cellulites All of the above

69 Food poisoning strains of Clostriclium perfringenes belong to Type A Type B Type C Type D

70 Usual dose of purified protein derivative in Mantoux test is 5 IU 50 IU 100 IU 150 IU

71 Bile duct carcinoma (cholangiocarcinoma) is associated with which of the following trematodes? Clonorchis sinensis Fasciola hepatica Fasciola gigantica Schistosoma haematobium

72 Polluted soil may act as a source of infection with Ascaris lumbricoides Ancylostoma duodenale Strongyloides stercoralis All of the above

73 Modified acid fast stain is used for the diagnosis of Entamoeba histolytica Toxoplasma gondii Cryptosporidium parvum Leishmania donovani

74 Diarrhoea in AIDS patients may be caused by Cryptosporidium parvum Microsporidia Isospora beLU All of the above

75 Cestodes differs from trematodes in Tape like segmented body Prescence of suckers often with hooks Absence of alimentary canal All of the above

76 Larval form of Echinococcus granulosus is seen in Dog Man Wolf Fox

77 Visceral larva migrans is caused by the migrating larva/e of which of the following worms? Gnathostoma spinigerum Anisakis simplex Toxocara canis All of the above

78 The parasite which has been recently eradicated from India is: Leshmania donovani Dracaunculus medinensis Babesia microti Toxoplasma gondii

79 Quantitative buffy coat assay to detect parasites using fluorescent microscope is a test available to diagnose Malaria parasite Filarial larvae Both of the above None of the above

80 All of the following parasites inhibit ocular tissues except: Thelazia callipaeda Onchocerca volvulus Loa loa Mansonella streptocerca

81 Which type of haemotysis is produced by Streptococci pyogenes? alpha -haemolysis brta -haemolysis gama -haemolysis No haemolysis

82 Which of the following dermatophytes is the most common species infecting man? Trichophyton rubrum Trichophyton schoenleinii Trichophyton mentagrophrtes Microsporum canis

83 Which is the infective form of Giardia lamblia Trophozoite Cyst Both of the above None of the above

84 For malaria infection of mosquito, the blood of human carrier must contain atleast 6 Gametocytes uL 8 Gametocytes uL 10 Gametocytes uL 12 Gametocytes uL

85 Maurer's dots in red cells are seen in infection with: Plasmodium vivax Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium malariae Plasmodium ovale

86 In which of the following cestodes man can act as intermediate host? Taenia saginata Taenia solium Diphyllobothrium latum Hymenolepis nana

87 Which of the following parasite lays eggs containing larvae? Trichinella spiralis Brugia malayi Enterobius vermicularis Ascaris lumbricoides

88 Which of the following techniques is used in Estimatioll of Viral load? PCR Real time PCR

(C) DNA probes None of the above

89 Pneumococcal capsule can be demonstrated by Quellung reaction Negative staining Both of the above None of the ahove

90 Naegleria fowleri causes: Primary amoebic meningoencphalitis Granulomatous amoebic encephalitis Keratitis All of the above

91 Megaloblastic anemia is seen in Hookwonn disease Malaria Diphyllobothriasis All of the above

92 Anti Rh antibodies are IG M -type Ig G type Ig A type Ig E type

93 Myeloperoxidase deficiency is a defect of B cells T cells Complement Phagocytes

94 Outbreaks of emetic syndrome after consumption of fried rice is associated with Bacillus cereus Bacillus subtilis Bacillus anthracis Clostridia

95 Post streptococcal disease are diagnosed by Wirlal test Coagulase test ASO test All of the above

96 Media containing crystal violet is used to grow Staphylococcus Streptocoexus Pneaumococcus All of the above

97 Hyaluronidase enzyme is produced by Staphylococci Clostridium Streptococci All of the above

98 Strepto. Pyogenes can be di1ferentiated from other haemolytic streptococci on the basis of sensitivity to Penicillin Bacitracin Erythromycin Aminoglycosides

99 Aminoglycosides interfere with: Cell wall synthesis Cell membrane function Protein synthesis DNA function

100 The causative agent/s of non-gonococcal urethritis is/are: Chlamydia trachomatis Ureaplasma urealyticum Trichomonas vaginalis All of the above