Exam Details
Subject | law | |
Paper | paper 2 | |
Exam / Course | ugc net national eligibility test | |
Department | ||
Organization | university grants commission | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | June, 2015 | |
City, State | , |
Question Paper
1 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect
In Keshavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court has said that the Preamble to the constitution is a key to open the mind of the makers.
"Socialist and Secular" words were added to the Preamble by 44th Amendment of the Constitution.
Preamble can only be amended if it violates the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Since Preamble is not Articled so it is not the part of the Constitution.
Codes
only
and
and
and all are incorrect
2 Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
Article 329 Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab
10th Shedule Part 7 Keshavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala
Article 31-C Indira Nehru Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain
Article Kihota Vs. Zachilhu
Codes
3 "If I was asked to name any particular Article in this Constitution as the most important an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity I could not refer to any other Article except this one (Article 32) ................ It is the soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it". Whose observations are these
Justice P.N. Bhagwati
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
Pundit Jawahar Lal Nehru
4 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect
Chapter III on Fundamental Rights of the Constitution is based upon Bill of Rights of the U.S.A.
'Right to die' is a Fundamental Right Under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Indian Constitution is a Complete Federal Constitution. Fundamental Rights can be waived under the Indian Constitution.
Codes
only
and only
and only
and
5 Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
(Principles) (Case Lat)
Equal work for Equal pay R.D. Shetty Vs. The International Airport Authority of India
"Agencies or Instrumentalition" Rudal Sah Vs. State of Bihar of the State are covered under the definition of State Under Article 12 of the Constitution
Fundamental Rights and Randhir Singh Vs. Union of India Directive Principles of state policy are supplementary and complimentary to each other
Damages can be awarded for Unikrishnan Vs. State of A.P. violation of Fundamental Rights Under Article 21 of the Constitution
Codes
6 Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given under the Lists
List I List II
(Added/Amended Provisions) (Amendment)
Article 15 clause providing for special 25th Amendement Act, 1971 provisions for socially and educationally backward classes.
Article 13 clause providing for nothing Constitution (85th Amendment) shall apply to any constitutional amendment. Act, 2001
Article 16 clause providing for Constitution (86th Amendment) consequential seniority with promotion Act, 2002 to SC/ST.
Article 21 A providing for Right to Constitution (1st Amendment) Education as Fundamental Right. Act, 1951
Codes
7 Assertion Powers and functions are distributed between the two tiers of government under the written Constitution in India.
Reason Union and the States are completely independent of each other under the Indian Constitution.
Codes
is correct and is the correct explanation of
is correct but is not the correct explanation of
is correct but is wrong.
is wrong but is correct.
8 Which of the following school in jurisprudence encompasses the 'functional approach'
Philosophical school
Natural school
Sociological school
Historical school
9 A legal system which works to ensure a fair division of social benefits and burdens among the member of a community. It serves to secure a balance and equilibrium among the members of the society. What is the name of this legal system
Distributive justice
Corrective justice
Remedial justice
Adversarial justice
10 Which of the following is not correct regarding Legislation and Precedent
Legislation reflects the formal will of the state and precedent has its source in judgement of court
Legislation is the formal expression of new laws by legislature and precedent is the creation of law by recognition
Legislation is general declaration of law in abstract form and precedent is the manifestation of law in action
Legislations are based on the minority opinion and precedents are created or based for future decisions
11 Read Assertion and Reason and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below
Assertion A person in possession of a thing is deemed to be the owner of the thing possessed.
Reason Possession is as good as ownership.
Codes
and are true, and is the correct explanation of
and are true but is not the correct explanation of
is true but is false
is false but is true
12 Which of the following is not a 'kind of possession'
Def acto and Defjure
Concurrent and duplicate
Corporeal and Immediate
Infinity and Antequity
13 Which of the following are elements of legal right
Responsibility, Liability and Power
Subject, object and title
Liability, title and Accountibility
Accountibility, Responsibility and Impartiality
14 "International Law or the Law of Nations is the name of body of rules which according to the usual definitions regulate the conduct of the states in their intercourse with one another". Who has given this definition
Hack Warth
Charles G. Fenwick
Gray
Whiteman
15 In which of the following cases the Parmanent Court of International Justice applied the general principle of Subrogation
Chorzow Factory (indemnity case)
Case Concerning the Temple of Preah Vihear
Bracelona Traction Case
Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
16 In which of the following cases Justice Gray remarked "International law is a part of our law and must be ascertained and administered by the courts of justice of appropriate jurisdiction as often as questions of rights depending on it are duly presented for administration."
Nicaragua Vs. U.S.
Paquete Habana case
U.S. Vs. Schooner
U.S. Vs. Canada
17 Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
(Charter of the United Nations) (Number of the Chapter) Titles
Membership Chapter XIV
The Security Council Chapter II
The International Court of justice Chapter V
The General Assembly Chapter IV
Codes
18 Who has observed, "DefFacto recognition is by nature provisional and may be made dependent upon conditions which the new entity has to comply. It differs from DefJure recognition, in that there is not yet a formal exchange of diplomatic representatives. DefJure recognition ................ is complete, implying, full and normal diplomatic relations".
Lauterpacht
Philip C. Jessup
Oppenheim
Schwarzenberger
19 Assertion International customs used to be the most important source of International Law in the past. Reason The development of custom is very slow and as compared to it rapid changes made through Treaties.
Codes
Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of
Both and are correct but is not the correct explanation of
is correct is false
is false is correct
20 Marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is
Purely contract
Purely sacramental
Semblance of contract and sacrament
Neither contract nor sacrament
21 Match the List with List -II under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below
List I List II
Monogamy Section 10
Judicial separation Section 5
Void Marriage Section 11
Divorce by Mutual Consent Section 13-B
Codes
22 Which of the following are fault grounds of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Extra marital sex
Consent obtained by force or fraud
Desertion
Conversion to non Hindu religion
Codes
and
and
and
and
23 A Muslim male is prohibited from marrying the following relations
Mother, Grand mother (how high so ever)
Daughter, Grand daughter (how low so ever)
Aunt, Great aunt (how high so ever, whether paternal or maternal)
Niece, Grand niece (how low so ever)
Codes
and
and
and
and
24 The Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 makes available the following grounds of divorce to a Muslim woman married under Muslim Law
Seven years imprisonment of the husband.
No maintenance by husband for 2 years.
Whereabouts of the husband are not known for a period of 4 years.
Failure of husband to perform marital obligation for a period of 3 years.
Codes
and
and
and
and
25 The ancient sources of Hindu Law include
Shruti Smriti Customs Digests and Commentaries
Codes
and
and
and
and
26 Originally under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, divorce was based on
Fault theory only
Breakdown theory
Consent theory
Fault and consent theories
27 "A grocer supplied goods worth . 6,000 on credit to A. In addition the grocer solicited a donation of . 2,000 for his sons education to which A consented. Later A refused to pay both sums as he lost money on stock transaction". Which one of the following is correct while deciding the liability of A
A has already availed of the benefits in terms of goods supplied, hence consideration between the two binds A to pay.
A is not bound to pay . 2,000 as it a gift which is not enforceable in Law.
A is liable to pay both Sums as it is a promise between A and grocer.
A is not liable to pay either of the Sums as both of them are joint and not separate.
Codes
and
and
and
and
28 "X makes an offer to Y. X dies the next day, but Y does not know of the death. Y sends a communication to the address of X accepting the offer". Is the agreement formed between the parties Choose the correct answer.
Requirements of offer followed by acceptance are met.
Absence of knowledge of death will not invalidate the agreement.
No meeting of minds which does not render it to agreement. Death of the offerer reduces it to nullity.
Codes
and
and
and
and
29 Match items of Group with those of Group and choose the correct answer using codes
Group A Group B
Food Corporation of India Vs. Impossibility of performance Ram Keshav Yadav
Kedar Nath Bhattacharji Vs. Capacity of minor to enter Gori Mohammed into contract
K. Balakrishnan Vs. K. Kamalam Offer and acceptance Satyabrata Goshe Vs. Consideration Mugneeram Bangar and Co.
Codes
30 Agreement without consideration is valid under Indian Law. Among the following statements choose the one which is against this rule
When agreements written exist on account of natural love and affection.
When the consideration is too inadequate.
Where the consideration is past one.
Where the consideration is from third party.
31 Choose the incorrect combination
Proposal Acceptance Promise
Promise Consideration Agreement
Agreement Enforceability Contract
Proposal Consideration Acknowledgment
32 Match items of Group A with Group B and answer the correct one given in the code
Group A Group B
Doctrine of unjust enrichment Section 11 of Contract Act
Doctrine of absolute contract Section 56
Doctrine of Estoppel Section 72
Doctrine of Pari Delicto Section 23
Codes
33 "Just as the criminal law consists of a body of rules establishing specific offence, so the law of torts consists of a body of rules establishing specific injuries". Who stated this
Austin
Salmond
Winfield
Pollock
34 Consider the following elements
Infringement of a legal right
Any damage
Existence of a legal right
Legal damages Right to claim damages in tort would arise only if
Codes
and are present
and are present
and are present
and are present
35 Assertion X opens a food court in front of 'food joint'. All the customers of Y patronise X. Y can not claim damages from X.
Reason There is a Latin maxim 'damnumfsinefinjuria'. Give the answer using the following Codes
Codes
is true but is false
is false but is true
Both and are true but is not the correct explanation of
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
36 In contributory negligence
Only one party is negligent and other has not taken due care.
Both parties have contributed to negligence equally.
Lack of care is equal on both sides.
One party is negligent resulting in injury while the other has taken due care.
37 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I List II
(Principle) (Associated Case)
Absolute Liability Gloucester Grammar School
Damnumfsinefinjuria Ashby Vs. White
Injuriafsine fdamnum Stanely Vs. Powel
Inevitable accident Ryland Vs. Fletcher
Codes
38 Which one of the following is not a valid defence in tort
Vis major
Volenti non fit injuria
Inevitable accident
.cientifnotf itfinjuria
39 Fill in the gap The actusf reus of omission commands .......... .
There must be moral duty.
There should be legal duty to act.
The state has option to fix criminal liability.
The act performed is due to unavoidable accident.
40 Several persons can be vicariously liable for the Criminal act of another provided there is prior meeting of mind between the persons. Which of the objectives of Criminal Law is applied in such a Case
A pre-arranged plan with intention of performing the act.
A pre-arranged plan for causing injury.
A pre-arranged plan to kill the deceased whether fatal blow was given by that accused or not.
The pre-arranged plan must be incompatible with the innocence of the accused.
41 The applicability of the principle on common object has two essential features. One purpose is that the object must import a high degree of probability. while the other purpose is
An act committed immediately connected to the common object of the assembly.
The member must have prior knowledge that there is possibility of the happening of the act.
The Co-accused knows that he will be responsible for offence that is likely to be committed.
The object was to cause simple injury but a fatal injury resulted.
42 In which of the cases the measures of self-defence is considered to be proportionate to the quantum of force by the person accused for an offence
Aggression
Accident
Apprehension
Assault of harmless nature
43 Ignorance of law does not permit acquittal as it is built against justification of a Crime while in extreme cases it allows
Pardon
Suspended sentence
Deferred sentence
Paper sentence
44 In which of the circumstances an inchoate instigation to Commit a Crime is said to be incomplete
Withdrew from the act after instigation.
The letter posted could not reach the person so sent.
When the purported crime is different from that of instigation.
When the crime results through the conspiracy of another person.
45 Read Assertion and Reason and answer using codes given below
Assertion Managers collectively bargain with labourers to get cheapest labour rates and derive maximum benefit from labourers.
Reason Management must manage to maximise profits for company and give maximum dividend to shareholders. Management must be economically sound.
Codes
Both and are correct and is correct reason of
is right, but is wrong.
is wrong, but is right.
Both and are correct, but is not the correct answer for
46 An Independent Industrial Relation Commission to provide labour welfare in India was recommended by
Ramanujam Committee
Madhavan Committee
Vasudevan Committee
Santhanam Committee
47 Match List with List using codes given below. Answer in context of rights and liabilities of trade unions
List I List II
Convey Vs. Wade Role and right of minority trade unions
Rohtas Industries Staff Union Inducement to break a contract without Vs. Bihar violence is permissible
Chairman, S.B.I. Vs. Orissa Amplification of scope of immunity Bank Association provisions for striking employees
Food Corporation of India Secret ballot is valid as a credible system for Staff Union Vs. F.C.I. determining the representative character of a trade union in a multi union establishment
Codes
48 Read Assertion and Reason and answer using codes given below
Assertion Civil servants are engaged in the task of sovereign and regal task of the Government and as such they can be included with the definition of 'workman' in an 'industry' as contemplated in Section and of the Industrial Disputes Act.
Reason Because Tamil Nadu, N.G.O. Union Vs. Registrar of Trade Unions decided so. Codes
and are correct, and is the correct reason of
and are correct, but is not the correct reason of
is correct, but is wrong
Both and are incorrect
49 Which of the following statements, is correct
A Trade Union cannot constitute a separate or political fund under Section of the Trade Union Act.
The general fund of a trade union cannot be utilised for the purpose stipulated in Section 15 of Trade Union Act.
Trade Unions are not immune from civil and criminal liability.
Certain officers of trade union, who are styled as protected workmen, are given certain safeguards in the matter of alteration of service conditions and termination of service during the pendency of any proceeding in respect of an industrial dispute.
50 Which of the following is incorrect
An Employee having less than one year of continuous service will not be retrenched.
One months notice with reasons and one months wages in lieu of such notice is necessary.
Employee is entitled to compensation equivalent to 15 days average pay for every completed one year.
Serving of notice to appropriate Government or any such authority is not mandatory.
In Keshavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court has said that the Preamble to the constitution is a key to open the mind of the makers.
"Socialist and Secular" words were added to the Preamble by 44th Amendment of the Constitution.
Preamble can only be amended if it violates the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Since Preamble is not Articled so it is not the part of the Constitution.
Codes
only
and
and
and all are incorrect
2 Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
Article 329 Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab
10th Shedule Part 7 Keshavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala
Article 31-C Indira Nehru Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain
Article Kihota Vs. Zachilhu
Codes
3 "If I was asked to name any particular Article in this Constitution as the most important an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity I could not refer to any other Article except this one (Article 32) ................ It is the soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it". Whose observations are these
Justice P.N. Bhagwati
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
Pundit Jawahar Lal Nehru
4 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect
Chapter III on Fundamental Rights of the Constitution is based upon Bill of Rights of the U.S.A.
'Right to die' is a Fundamental Right Under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Indian Constitution is a Complete Federal Constitution. Fundamental Rights can be waived under the Indian Constitution.
Codes
only
and only
and only
and
5 Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
(Principles) (Case Lat)
Equal work for Equal pay R.D. Shetty Vs. The International Airport Authority of India
"Agencies or Instrumentalition" Rudal Sah Vs. State of Bihar of the State are covered under the definition of State Under Article 12 of the Constitution
Fundamental Rights and Randhir Singh Vs. Union of India Directive Principles of state policy are supplementary and complimentary to each other
Damages can be awarded for Unikrishnan Vs. State of A.P. violation of Fundamental Rights Under Article 21 of the Constitution
Codes
6 Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given under the Lists
List I List II
(Added/Amended Provisions) (Amendment)
Article 15 clause providing for special 25th Amendement Act, 1971 provisions for socially and educationally backward classes.
Article 13 clause providing for nothing Constitution (85th Amendment) shall apply to any constitutional amendment. Act, 2001
Article 16 clause providing for Constitution (86th Amendment) consequential seniority with promotion Act, 2002 to SC/ST.
Article 21 A providing for Right to Constitution (1st Amendment) Education as Fundamental Right. Act, 1951
Codes
7 Assertion Powers and functions are distributed between the two tiers of government under the written Constitution in India.
Reason Union and the States are completely independent of each other under the Indian Constitution.
Codes
is correct and is the correct explanation of
is correct but is not the correct explanation of
is correct but is wrong.
is wrong but is correct.
8 Which of the following school in jurisprudence encompasses the 'functional approach'
Philosophical school
Natural school
Sociological school
Historical school
9 A legal system which works to ensure a fair division of social benefits and burdens among the member of a community. It serves to secure a balance and equilibrium among the members of the society. What is the name of this legal system
Distributive justice
Corrective justice
Remedial justice
Adversarial justice
10 Which of the following is not correct regarding Legislation and Precedent
Legislation reflects the formal will of the state and precedent has its source in judgement of court
Legislation is the formal expression of new laws by legislature and precedent is the creation of law by recognition
Legislation is general declaration of law in abstract form and precedent is the manifestation of law in action
Legislations are based on the minority opinion and precedents are created or based for future decisions
11 Read Assertion and Reason and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below
Assertion A person in possession of a thing is deemed to be the owner of the thing possessed.
Reason Possession is as good as ownership.
Codes
and are true, and is the correct explanation of
and are true but is not the correct explanation of
is true but is false
is false but is true
12 Which of the following is not a 'kind of possession'
Def acto and Defjure
Concurrent and duplicate
Corporeal and Immediate
Infinity and Antequity
13 Which of the following are elements of legal right
Responsibility, Liability and Power
Subject, object and title
Liability, title and Accountibility
Accountibility, Responsibility and Impartiality
14 "International Law or the Law of Nations is the name of body of rules which according to the usual definitions regulate the conduct of the states in their intercourse with one another". Who has given this definition
Hack Warth
Charles G. Fenwick
Gray
Whiteman
15 In which of the following cases the Parmanent Court of International Justice applied the general principle of Subrogation
Chorzow Factory (indemnity case)
Case Concerning the Temple of Preah Vihear
Bracelona Traction Case
Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
16 In which of the following cases Justice Gray remarked "International law is a part of our law and must be ascertained and administered by the courts of justice of appropriate jurisdiction as often as questions of rights depending on it are duly presented for administration."
Nicaragua Vs. U.S.
Paquete Habana case
U.S. Vs. Schooner
U.S. Vs. Canada
17 Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists
List I List II
(Charter of the United Nations) (Number of the Chapter) Titles
Membership Chapter XIV
The Security Council Chapter II
The International Court of justice Chapter V
The General Assembly Chapter IV
Codes
18 Who has observed, "DefFacto recognition is by nature provisional and may be made dependent upon conditions which the new entity has to comply. It differs from DefJure recognition, in that there is not yet a formal exchange of diplomatic representatives. DefJure recognition ................ is complete, implying, full and normal diplomatic relations".
Lauterpacht
Philip C. Jessup
Oppenheim
Schwarzenberger
19 Assertion International customs used to be the most important source of International Law in the past. Reason The development of custom is very slow and as compared to it rapid changes made through Treaties.
Codes
Both and are correct and is the correct explanation of
Both and are correct but is not the correct explanation of
is correct is false
is false is correct
20 Marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is
Purely contract
Purely sacramental
Semblance of contract and sacrament
Neither contract nor sacrament
21 Match the List with List -II under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below
List I List II
Monogamy Section 10
Judicial separation Section 5
Void Marriage Section 11
Divorce by Mutual Consent Section 13-B
Codes
22 Which of the following are fault grounds of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Extra marital sex
Consent obtained by force or fraud
Desertion
Conversion to non Hindu religion
Codes
and
and
and
and
23 A Muslim male is prohibited from marrying the following relations
Mother, Grand mother (how high so ever)
Daughter, Grand daughter (how low so ever)
Aunt, Great aunt (how high so ever, whether paternal or maternal)
Niece, Grand niece (how low so ever)
Codes
and
and
and
and
24 The Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 makes available the following grounds of divorce to a Muslim woman married under Muslim Law
Seven years imprisonment of the husband.
No maintenance by husband for 2 years.
Whereabouts of the husband are not known for a period of 4 years.
Failure of husband to perform marital obligation for a period of 3 years.
Codes
and
and
and
and
25 The ancient sources of Hindu Law include
Shruti Smriti Customs Digests and Commentaries
Codes
and
and
and
and
26 Originally under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, divorce was based on
Fault theory only
Breakdown theory
Consent theory
Fault and consent theories
27 "A grocer supplied goods worth . 6,000 on credit to A. In addition the grocer solicited a donation of . 2,000 for his sons education to which A consented. Later A refused to pay both sums as he lost money on stock transaction". Which one of the following is correct while deciding the liability of A
A has already availed of the benefits in terms of goods supplied, hence consideration between the two binds A to pay.
A is not bound to pay . 2,000 as it a gift which is not enforceable in Law.
A is liable to pay both Sums as it is a promise between A and grocer.
A is not liable to pay either of the Sums as both of them are joint and not separate.
Codes
and
and
and
and
28 "X makes an offer to Y. X dies the next day, but Y does not know of the death. Y sends a communication to the address of X accepting the offer". Is the agreement formed between the parties Choose the correct answer.
Requirements of offer followed by acceptance are met.
Absence of knowledge of death will not invalidate the agreement.
No meeting of minds which does not render it to agreement. Death of the offerer reduces it to nullity.
Codes
and
and
and
and
29 Match items of Group with those of Group and choose the correct answer using codes
Group A Group B
Food Corporation of India Vs. Impossibility of performance Ram Keshav Yadav
Kedar Nath Bhattacharji Vs. Capacity of minor to enter Gori Mohammed into contract
K. Balakrishnan Vs. K. Kamalam Offer and acceptance Satyabrata Goshe Vs. Consideration Mugneeram Bangar and Co.
Codes
30 Agreement without consideration is valid under Indian Law. Among the following statements choose the one which is against this rule
When agreements written exist on account of natural love and affection.
When the consideration is too inadequate.
Where the consideration is past one.
Where the consideration is from third party.
31 Choose the incorrect combination
Proposal Acceptance Promise
Promise Consideration Agreement
Agreement Enforceability Contract
Proposal Consideration Acknowledgment
32 Match items of Group A with Group B and answer the correct one given in the code
Group A Group B
Doctrine of unjust enrichment Section 11 of Contract Act
Doctrine of absolute contract Section 56
Doctrine of Estoppel Section 72
Doctrine of Pari Delicto Section 23
Codes
33 "Just as the criminal law consists of a body of rules establishing specific offence, so the law of torts consists of a body of rules establishing specific injuries". Who stated this
Austin
Salmond
Winfield
Pollock
34 Consider the following elements
Infringement of a legal right
Any damage
Existence of a legal right
Legal damages Right to claim damages in tort would arise only if
Codes
and are present
and are present
and are present
and are present
35 Assertion X opens a food court in front of 'food joint'. All the customers of Y patronise X. Y can not claim damages from X.
Reason There is a Latin maxim 'damnumfsinefinjuria'. Give the answer using the following Codes
Codes
is true but is false
is false but is true
Both and are true but is not the correct explanation of
Both and are true and is the correct explanation of
36 In contributory negligence
Only one party is negligent and other has not taken due care.
Both parties have contributed to negligence equally.
Lack of care is equal on both sides.
One party is negligent resulting in injury while the other has taken due care.
37 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I List II
(Principle) (Associated Case)
Absolute Liability Gloucester Grammar School
Damnumfsinefinjuria Ashby Vs. White
Injuriafsine fdamnum Stanely Vs. Powel
Inevitable accident Ryland Vs. Fletcher
Codes
38 Which one of the following is not a valid defence in tort
Vis major
Volenti non fit injuria
Inevitable accident
.cientifnotf itfinjuria
39 Fill in the gap The actusf reus of omission commands .......... .
There must be moral duty.
There should be legal duty to act.
The state has option to fix criminal liability.
The act performed is due to unavoidable accident.
40 Several persons can be vicariously liable for the Criminal act of another provided there is prior meeting of mind between the persons. Which of the objectives of Criminal Law is applied in such a Case
A pre-arranged plan with intention of performing the act.
A pre-arranged plan for causing injury.
A pre-arranged plan to kill the deceased whether fatal blow was given by that accused or not.
The pre-arranged plan must be incompatible with the innocence of the accused.
41 The applicability of the principle on common object has two essential features. One purpose is that the object must import a high degree of probability. while the other purpose is
An act committed immediately connected to the common object of the assembly.
The member must have prior knowledge that there is possibility of the happening of the act.
The Co-accused knows that he will be responsible for offence that is likely to be committed.
The object was to cause simple injury but a fatal injury resulted.
42 In which of the cases the measures of self-defence is considered to be proportionate to the quantum of force by the person accused for an offence
Aggression
Accident
Apprehension
Assault of harmless nature
43 Ignorance of law does not permit acquittal as it is built against justification of a Crime while in extreme cases it allows
Pardon
Suspended sentence
Deferred sentence
Paper sentence
44 In which of the circumstances an inchoate instigation to Commit a Crime is said to be incomplete
Withdrew from the act after instigation.
The letter posted could not reach the person so sent.
When the purported crime is different from that of instigation.
When the crime results through the conspiracy of another person.
45 Read Assertion and Reason and answer using codes given below
Assertion Managers collectively bargain with labourers to get cheapest labour rates and derive maximum benefit from labourers.
Reason Management must manage to maximise profits for company and give maximum dividend to shareholders. Management must be economically sound.
Codes
Both and are correct and is correct reason of
is right, but is wrong.
is wrong, but is right.
Both and are correct, but is not the correct answer for
46 An Independent Industrial Relation Commission to provide labour welfare in India was recommended by
Ramanujam Committee
Madhavan Committee
Vasudevan Committee
Santhanam Committee
47 Match List with List using codes given below. Answer in context of rights and liabilities of trade unions
List I List II
Convey Vs. Wade Role and right of minority trade unions
Rohtas Industries Staff Union Inducement to break a contract without Vs. Bihar violence is permissible
Chairman, S.B.I. Vs. Orissa Amplification of scope of immunity Bank Association provisions for striking employees
Food Corporation of India Secret ballot is valid as a credible system for Staff Union Vs. F.C.I. determining the representative character of a trade union in a multi union establishment
Codes
48 Read Assertion and Reason and answer using codes given below
Assertion Civil servants are engaged in the task of sovereign and regal task of the Government and as such they can be included with the definition of 'workman' in an 'industry' as contemplated in Section and of the Industrial Disputes Act.
Reason Because Tamil Nadu, N.G.O. Union Vs. Registrar of Trade Unions decided so. Codes
and are correct, and is the correct reason of
and are correct, but is not the correct reason of
is correct, but is wrong
Both and are incorrect
49 Which of the following statements, is correct
A Trade Union cannot constitute a separate or political fund under Section of the Trade Union Act.
The general fund of a trade union cannot be utilised for the purpose stipulated in Section 15 of Trade Union Act.
Trade Unions are not immune from civil and criminal liability.
Certain officers of trade union, who are styled as protected workmen, are given certain safeguards in the matter of alteration of service conditions and termination of service during the pendency of any proceeding in respect of an industrial dispute.
50 Which of the following is incorrect
An Employee having less than one year of continuous service will not be retrenched.
One months notice with reasons and one months wages in lieu of such notice is necessary.
Employee is entitled to compensation equivalent to 15 days average pay for every completed one year.
Serving of notice to appropriate Government or any such authority is not mandatory.
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