Exam Details

Subject molecular biology
Paper
Exam / Course m.sc
Department
Organization central university
Position
Exam Date 2015
City, State telangana, hyderabad


Question Paper

1. The feature which is not a characteristic of the phylum Porifera is

A. Multicellular organisms with bodies full ofpores and channels

B. Unspecialized cells that can transform into other types of cells

C. Lack circulatory and nervous systems

D. Adult forms are highly motile and lack sedentary habitat

2. One ofthe following statements which defines Hill's reaction is

A. Photolysis of water releasing oxygen and hydrogen by isolated chloroplasts in light

B. Photolysis of water by isolated chloroplasts in light resulting in the reduction
of some chemical compounds and release of oxygen

C. Photolysis of water by chloroplasts

D. Photolysis ofwater by isolated chloroplasts resulting in the formation of NADPH and ATP

3. The red sea which gets its names due to red color imparted by abundant growth of one of the following organisms

A. Prochlorococcus sp.

B. Trichodesmium erythraeum

C. Nostoc punctiforme

D. Synechocystis sp. PCC6803

4. The adverse effects caused by medical intervention and modem medicines is called as

A. Medicogenesis

B. Latfogenesis

C. Helicogenesis

D. Acetogenesis

5. Stem cells are defined as

A. The first cells of mitosis in meristem region

B. Cells harvested from brain stem

C. The cells found in the fluid of spinal chord

D. Embryonic cells with no predetermined development pathway

6. Mowing of a grass lawn facilitates better maintenance primarily owing to

A. Wounding which stimulates rapid regeneration

B. Removal of apical dominance

C. Removal of apical dominance and promotion of intercalary meristems

D. Removal of apical dominance and promotion of lateral meristems

7. Match the following vitamins listed as Nand 0 with their nature or deficiency symptoms associated with them given as C and D.

L. Vitamin D2 CholecalcifeiOl
M. Vitamin D3 Ergocalciferol
N. Vitamin A Cobalamin
O. Vitamin B12 Retinoic acid

A. O-c

B. O-c

C. O-d

D. O-b

8. The mRNA coding sequence for the synthesis of aminoacids in a part ofa polypeptide chain is UCU-GAU-CAC-UAG-GAU-AAG-CAC. The base sequence of the DNA strand for the above given mRNA sequence is

A. AGA-CTA-GTG-ATC-CTT-TTC-GTG

B. AGA-CTA-GTG-ATC-CTT-TTC-GTC

C. TGT-CTT-GTG-TTC-CTT-TTC-GTG

D. AGA-CTA-GTG-ATC-CTA-TTC-GTG

9. A special sensory organ evolved in certain fish and sharks which helps in sensing electric fields in water is

A. Ampullae of Lorenzini

B. Jacobson's organ

C. Slit sensillae

D. Islets of Langerhans

10. Which reaction is the oxidative reaction in glycolysis?

A. Phosphate is added to glucose at the C-6 position by hexokinase

B. Glucose-6-phosphate is converted to fructose-6-phosphate by phosphoglucoisomerase

C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is converted to 3 bisphosphoglycerate by triose phosphate dehydrogenase

D. 1,3-bisphoshoglycerate is converted to 3-phosphoglycerate by phosphoglycerokinase

11. An IgG molecule upon cleavage by papain in the hinge area results in the production of:

A. One constant fragment and two antigen binding fragments

B. Two constant fragments and one antigen binding fragment

C. Two constant fragments and two antigen binding fragments

D. One constant fragment and one antigen binding fragment

12. Match the following genera of pathogenic microorganisms listed as N and 0 which are generally associated with the disease symptoms given as C and D.

1. Pythium Powdery mildew
M. Erysiphe Downy mildew
N. Xanthomonas Damping off
O. Canker

A. O-a

B. O-a

C. O-a

D. O-b

13. The disease caused by fluke worm and transmitted through water snails as host is

A. Schistosomiasis

B. Mollusciosis

C. Meningitis

D. Angiostrongyliasis

14. Match the following items listed as Nand 0 with their associated characteristics given as C and D.

L. Resistance gene Glycoprotein
M. Antiviral factor Interferon
N. Lectin Leucine rich repeats
O. Systemin Peptide with hormonal activity

A. O-d

B. O-d

C. O-a

D. O-b

15. Match the type of cell listed as N and 0 to the tissue or part ofthe cell given as C and D.
L. Tracheid Phloem
M. Sieve element Meristematic tissue
N. Parenchyma Cell wall of fruit
O. Stone cell Xylem

A. O-c

B. O-c

C. O-a

D. O-a

16. In Mendel's experiments, if the gene for tall plants was incompletely dominant over the gene for short plant, what would be the result of crossing two Tt plants?

A. All the offspring would be intermediate

B. 1/4 tall; 114 intermediate height; Yz short

C. 12 tall; 114 intermediate height; 114 short

D. 1/4 tall; 12 intermediate height; Y4 short

17. The process by which Adenosine triphosphates (ATPs) are synthesized from Adenosine diphosphates (ADPs) using proton motive force that get pumped through inter­membrane spaces of mitochondria is

A. Methyl acetylation

B. Dehydrogenation

C. Oxidative phosphorylation

D. Reductive carboxylation

18. Prenatal screening of developing fetus to detect gross chromosomal aberrations as well as sex prediction is carried by a process termed as

A. Amniocentesis

B. Aminiosynthesis

C. Amnopotency

D. Aminosynthesis

19. Match the following genera of plants listed as N and 0 with their corresponding families to which they are grouped under plant systematic classification assigned as C and D.
L. Ocimum Meliaceae
M.Sesamum Apocynaceae
N. Nerium Lamiaceae
O. Azadirachta Pedaliaceae

A. O-d

B. O-a

C. O-c

D. O-b

20. Drosophila virilis is a diploid organism with 2n=12 chromosomes. How many chromatids and chromosomes are present in metaphase II ofmeiosis?

A. 12 chromatids and 6 chromosomes

B. 12 chromatids and 12 chromosomes

C. 24 chromatids and 12 chromosomes

D. 24 chromatids and 24 chromosomes

21. Match the following human syndromes listed as Nand 0 with the phenotypes
associated with their ploidy status as C and D.

L. Cri du chat syndrome Chronic myelocytic leukemia
M. Philadelphia chromosome Chromosome 5 deletion
N. Turner syndrome Trisomy 21
O. Down syndrome Aneuploid females (XO)

A. O-a

B. O-c

C. O-d

D. O-c

22. The pH at which a bipolar ion acts as neutral ion and does not migrate either to cathode or anode is known as

A. Immobility point

B. Isoelectric point

C. Amphitropic point

D. Isoequilibrium point

23. The stage of cell division in which the genetic material gets duplicated along with its associated nuclear proteins

A. 0 1 phase of Interphase

B. 02 phase of Interphase

C. S phase of Interphase

D. Metaphase I

24. Bordeaux mixture, a fungicide is constituted of

A. MgS04 Ca(OHh

B. Mg(OH)2

C. CUS04 NaOH

D. CUS04 Ca(OH)2

25. During prokaryotic protein synthesis the following complex enables to position the mRNA on the ribosome.

A. 5S rRNA ofthe 50S subunit complexes with the initiation codon on the mRNA

B. 16S rRNA ofthe 30S subunit complexes with a site on the mRNA called Shine Dalgarno sequence

C. 23S rRNA ofthe 50S subunit interacts with the initiation factor ofprotein synthesis

D. 16S rRNA complexes with Pribnow box

26. Light and green islands is a classic sign of disease symptom caused by

A. Fungal infection

B. Bacterial infection

C. Viral infection

D. Insect infestation

27. The very recent viral disease pandemic felt across the globe for which fruit bats serve as natural host is

A. AIDS

B. Avian influenza

C. H1N1

D. Ebola

28. Molarity of pure water is
A. 55.6
B. 12.4
C. 44.3
D. 34.1
29. One of the following is not a member of Enterobacteriaceae

A. Serratia

B. Shigella

C. Klebsiella

D. Stigmatella

30. The specialized organ of a mollusc which acts as a balance sensor, sucker and aids in hibrication by secreting mucus is

A. Mantle

B. Foot

C. Radula

D. Periostracum

31. The phytochemicals existing prior to exposure to a pathogen are collectively termed as

A. Phytoalexins

B. Phytoplasmins

C. Phytoanticipins

D. Phytoallergins

32. The availability ofthis form ofnucleotides enabled Federick Sanger to discover nucleic acid sequencing methods, which have been subsequently developed to automated sequencmg

A. Deoxynudeotides

B. Dideoxynucleotides

C. Trideoxynuclotides

D. Ribonucleotides

33. Burning ofwaste substances usually at high temperatures to convert them to ashes is called

A. Eutrophication

B. Incineration

C. Desertification

D. Saponification

34. The blood clotting factors which cause coagulation of blood are mostly serine proteases and they exist in circulatory system as inactive enzyme precursors called as

A. Halogens

B. Zymogens

C. Glucogens

D. Haemogens

35. Ammonia oxidation to nitrate depends on the following two bacteria

A. Nitrosomonas-Nitrosospira

B. Azospirillum-Pseudomonas

C. Nitrobacter-Nitrococcus

D. Nitrosospira-Nitrococcus

36. Spiral shaped chloroplast are present in

A. Spirogyra

B. Oedogonium

C. Ulothrix

D. Viva

37. An example of an enzyme hydrolase is

A. Glutamate synthase

B. Lactate dehydrogenase

C. Glucose -6-phosphatase

D. Nitrogenase

38. The process of moulting or shedding of exoskeleton by invertebrates is called as

A. Amoebiasis

B. Ecdysis

C. Excission

D. Chytridiasis

39. The first organisms to appear on the earth were

A. Autotrophic and anaerobic

B. Autotrophic and aerobic

C. Heterotrophic and anaerobic

D. Heterotrophic but aerobic

40. The expected proportion oftriply heterozygous offspring in the F2 generation ofa trihybrid cross when the genes involved exhibit independent assortment is

A. 1/8

B. 1/64

C. 9/64

D. 27/64

41. One of the following amino acids does not contain a benzene ring

A. Phenyl alanine

B. Tyrosine

C. Tryptophan

D. Aspartic acid

42. Pick up the odd one among the following TCA cycle intermediates

A. Malate

B. Succinate

C. Fumarate

D. Citrate

43. The exoskeletons of most of the aquatic crustaceans are bio-mineralized with

A. Calcium chloride

B. Calcium carbonate

C. Magnesium carbonate

D. Magnesium chloride

44. The hydrolysis product of an ester leads to the fonnation of one molecule each of

A. Acid and alcohol

B. Aldehyde and ketone

C. Acid and aldehyde

D. Alcohol and methane

45. A thennophilic bacterium has been the source for DNA polymerase used routinely in polymerase chain reaction

A. Thiobacillus ferroxidans

B. Thermus aquaticus

C. Sulfolobus italicum

D. Thermospira aquatica

46. The type of relationship between two individuals where one benefits from the other without affecting it is referred as

A. Mutualism

B. Commensalism

C. Parasitism

D. Amensalism

47. One ofthe following is not a member of the family Verbenaceae

A. Lantana

B. Lippia

C. Rotheca

D. Abutilon

48. An oxidation-reduction reaction involves

A. Internal rearrangment of a molecule

B. Cleavage ofa large molecule into smaller molecule

C. Transfer of electrons from one molecule to another

D. Combining two small molecules to create one larger one

49. One among the following is true of aneuploidies in general

A. A monosomy is more frequent in humans than a trisomy

B. 45X is the only known human live-born monosomy

C. Of all human aneuploidies, only down syndrome is associated with mental retardation

D. Some human aneuploidies have selective advantage in some environments

50. The basic difference between sugar molecules of RNA and DNA is

A. RNA has a six-carbon sugar, DNA has a five-carbon sugar

B. The sugar of RNA has a hydroxyl group that is not found in the sugar of DNA

C. RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine

D. DNA's sugar has a phosphorous atom, RNA's sugar lacks phosphorous atom

51. One among the following is not a fluorescent probe

A. Ethidium bromide

B. Dansyl chloride

C. Fluorescein

D. Malachite green

52. Bilaterally symmetrical invertebrates with segmented body carrying paired un-jointed
parapodia embedded with chaetae for locomotion is

A. Arachnids

B. Echinoderms

C. Annelids

D. Molluscs

53. Guttation differs from transpiration in that the water lost is

A. Not pute and is in the vapour state

B. Not pure and is in the liquid state

C. Pure and is in the liquid state

D. Pure and is in the vapour state

54. Biradial symmetry which is a combination ofradial and bilateral arrangement of body parts is exhibited by

A. Ctenophores

B. Porifera

C. Cnidarians

D. Placozoans

55. Which of the following is an anomeric pair?

A. D-glucose and L-glucose

B. D-glucose and D-fructose

C. alpha-D-glucose and beta-D-glucose

D. alpha-D-glucose and beta-L-glucose

56. In which of the following inter actions,at least one dominant allele from each of two genes is required for the expression of the phenotype?

A. Dominant epistasis

B. Recessive epistasis

C. Complementary genes

D. Duplicate genes

57. The role oflight in plants is

A. It is necessary for photosynthesis

B. It controls growth movements

C. It controls the distribution of hormones

D. It controls all of the above

58. The primary consumerls among the listed living beings

A. Snakes and frog

B. Eagle and snake

C. Water insects

D. Insects and cattle

59. The folded states of globular proteins in aqueous solutions are stabilized primarily by

A. Hydrophobic interactions

B. Peptide bonds

C. Ionic bonds

D. Disulfide bonds

60. If a nutrient medium is inoculated with 100 bacterial cells and the generation time of the bacteria is 30 min, what will be the number of cells in the medium after 3 hours?

A. 18000

B. 1400

C. 3200

D. 6400

61. Etiolation in plants is caused when they

A. Are grown in blue light

B. Are grown in intense light

C. Have mineral deficiency

D. Are grown in the dark

62. Generically chemical compounds are given IUPAC names. The acronym, IUPAC stands for

A. International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry

B. InternationaJ Unicode for Paramedical and Analytical Compounds

C. Indian Union for Public and Administrative Code

D. Indian Unicode for Public and Applied Chemistry

63. The generic name 'terrestrial flower' is given to

A. Volvox

B. Hydra

C. Sea Anemone

D. Sea Dollar

64. C4 plants are more efficient than C3 plants, because

A. C02 acceptor is PEP

B. They have two types of chloroplasts

C. They have photorespiration

D. They lack photorespiration

65. A continuous stretch of overlapping DNA sequences is called

A. Contig

B. Open reading frame

C. Clone

D. Catenation

66. A feature characteristic of a vertebrate and is lacking in an invertebrate is

A. A chordate body with a spinal column derived from notochord

B. Sexual reproductive system to produce gamets

C. Assymetrical body ofthe individuals

D. Lacking sensory receptors and organs

67. Nastic movements differ from tropic movements in being

A. Directional with respect to stimulus

B. Non-directional with respect to stimulus

C. Controlled by chemicals

D. Controlled by turgor pressure

68. Identify the mismatch among the following

A. Bifidobacterium -produces acetic acid

B. Frankia -fixes nitrogen

C. Escherichia -Methyl red positive

D. Enterobacter -H2S positive

69. Homogenous population of anti bodies that have narrow specificity towards an epitope are

A. Polyclonal antibodies

B. Monoclonal antibodies

C. Phage displayed antibodies

D. Immunogens

70. A pollen mother cell which is undergoing a reductional division is observed to be at Prophase-I stage. The sequence of the sub-stages in Prophase-I are

A. Pachytene, leptotene, zygotene, diplotene, diakinesis

B. Zygotene, pachytene, leptotene, diplotene, diakinesis

C. Diplotene, diakinesis, leptotene, zygotene, pachytene

D. Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis

71. The 'age of fishes' is commonly referred to the period

A. Devonian

B. Triassic

C. Carboniferous

D. Ordovician

72. Tay-Sachs disease is the result of a genetic defect in the metabolism of

A. Triacylglycerols

B. Gangliosides

C. Sterols

D. Vitamin D

73. All of the following enzymes are involved in DNA replication except

A. Helicase

B. Primase

C. DNA polymerase

D. RNA polymerase

74. .A procedure used to treat blood vessel and lymphatic malformations is

A. Physiotherapy

B. Vasculature therapy

C. Immunotherapy

D. Sclerotherapy

75. When the dark period of a short day plant is interrupted by a brief exposure to light, the plant shall

A. Flower immediately

B. Will not flower at all

C. Turns in to a long day plant

D. Produces more flowers

76. Thc monosaccharide which is not an aldose is

A. Ribose

B. Glucose

C. Fructose

D. Erythrose

77. During stationary phase of microbial growth

A. Balance between cell division and cell death occur

B. Cell division is more than cell death

C. Cell death is more than cell division

D. None of the above

78. The structure of NAD does not include

A. An adenine nucleotide

B. Riboflavin

C. A pyrophosphate bond

D. Two ribose residues

79. Present day advanced Taxonomy of plants is

A. Alpha Taxonomy

B. Omega Taxonomy

C. Chemo Taxonomy

D. Cyto Taxonomy

80. The physical disorder of the kidney resulting from inflammatory cell proliferation in its, glomerular structure leading to reduced glomerular blood flow and retention ofwaste products is called

A. Hematuria

B. Oliguria

C. Uremia

D. Proteinuria

81. Which of the following observations made by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty about S and R strains of Streptococcus penumoniae in mice is correct?

A. Heat·kiIled S cells caused pneumonia

B. Living R cells caused pneumonia

C. A mixture of heat-killed S cells and living R cells was able to cause pneumonia

D. Heat-killed R cells caused pneumonia

82. The most universal feature ofprogrammed cell death in plant is activation of

A. Proteasome

B. Nucleosome

C. Ribozyme

D. Mesozome

83. Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by interfering the binding of tRNA with the ribosome

A. Tetracycline

B. Penicillin

C. Rapamycin

D. Bacitracin

84. Sterigmata formation is a characteristic feature of

A. Basidiomycetes

B. Ascomycetes

C. Oomycetes

D. Zygomycetes

85. The body fluid consisting of plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets which circulates in a vertebrate vascular system to carry oxygen and nutrients to and from the organs and tissues is

A. Lymph

B. Blood

C. Serum

D. Interstitial fluid

86. The nitrogen-fixing nodules of a bean plant carries a variant of hemoglobin molecule which scavenges oxygen is

A. Carbaminohemoglobin

B. Leghemoglobin

C. Myeloglobin

D. Oxyhemoglobin

87. The gene mapping which measures the physical distance between genes in terms of nucleotide base pair length is

A. Genetic map

B. Physical map

C. Linkage map

D. Deletion map

88. Which one among the following is not an amniote?

A. Reptile

B. Mammal

C. Fish

D. Bird

89. The unpleasant smell which fats and oils develop on long exposure to moist air is due to

A. Chlorination

B. Hydrogenation

C. Rancidification

D. Esterification

90. The resistance that occurs in plants before a pathogen-plant cell contact and prevents infection is

A. True resistance

B. Pseudoresistance

C. Axeny resistance

D. Hyper reaction

91. The labyrinthodont which is recognized as a transitional fossil between fish and tetrapods featuring fish-like tail and amphibian-like skull and limbs is

A. Icthyostega

B. Ornithorhyncus

C. Archaeopteryx

D. Homunculus

92. Movement of colloidal pmiicles under the int1uence of electrical field is called

A. Electrophoresis

B. Dialysis

C. Ionization

D. Electrodialysis

93. A bacterial topoisomerase that can change the topological or configurational shape of a DNAis .

A. DNA gyrase

B. DNA polymerase

C. DNA exonuclease

D. DNA lygase

94. The science of deciphering fossil age by studying the "layer-cake" of sedimentary material of rocks and earthcrust is called as

A. Lithography

B. Pedigraphy

C. Stratigraphy

D. Lichenography

95. The Cell lineage theory was proposed by the scientist

A. Rudolf Ludwig Carl Virchow

B. Thomas Hunt Morgan

C. Ernst Haeckal

D. Otto Eugen Schulz

96. Pyrimidine dimers which are considered as molecular lesions are formed from thymine or cytosine bases in DNA by

A. Oxido-reduction reactions

B. physical resonance

C. Mechanical reactions

D. Photochemical reactions

97. Acetylene is categorized under one of the following classes

A. Alkane series

B. Saturated hydrocarbons

C. Alkyne series

D. Olefin series

98. One of the following is a characteristic feature of insect-pollinated plant

A. Pollen produced in large quantities

B. Small


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