ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, FEBRUARY 2014
M.A. APPLIED LINGUISTICS
Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 100 Hall Ticket No:
INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATE Write your Hall Ticket Number on the OMR Answer Sheet given to you. Also write
the Hall Ticket Number in the space provided above. ii) There is a negative marking of 0.33 marks for each wrong answer. iii) Answers are to be marked on the OMR Answer Sheet following the instructions
provided there upon. iv) Handover the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Examination to the Invigilator.
No additional sheet will be provided. Rough work can be done in the question paper itself/space provided at the end ofthe booklet.
vi) The question paper contains 12 pages and the questions are of objective type. Only the question paper may be taken by the candidate at the end ofthe examination.
SECTION Verbal and Numerical Aptitude (20 Marks)

1. Choose the correct alternative:

Moon:Satellite::Earth:

A. Sun

B. Planet

C. Solar System

D.Asteroid

2. Choose the correct alternative:

Tobacco:Nerves:: Alcohol:?

A. Liver

B. Liquor

C. Intoxication

D. Head

3. Choose the correct alternative:

CPU:Computer:: Head:

A. Brain

B.Body

C.Trunk

D. Hair

4. Choose the correct alternative:

Reading:Knowledge:: Work:

A. Money

B. Employment

C. Experience

D. Engagement

5. Choose the correct alternative:

Flow:River:: Stagnant:

A. Rain

B. Stream

C. Pool

D. Canal Identify the odd one:

6. Identify the odd one:

A.Apple

B. Mango

C. Watermelon

D. Guava

7. Identify the odd one:

A. Flute

B. Guitar

C. Sitar

D. Violin

8. Identify the odd one:

A. Microscope

B. Telescope

C. Periscope

D. Stethoscope

9. Identify the odd one:

A.Almirah

B. Rack

C. Safe

D. Cupboard

10. Identify the odd one:

A. Albatross

B. Ostrich

C. Pelican

D. Penguin

11. Arrange the words given below in an appropriate order:

Infant Old Adult Adolescent Child

A.



C.

D.

12. Arrange the words given below in an appropriate order:

Index Contents Title Chapters Introduction

A.



C.



13. Arrange the words given below in an appropriate order:

Leaf Fruit Stem Root Flower







D.4,3,1.,2,5

14. Arrange the words given below in an appropriate order:
Andhra Pradesh Universe Hyderabad World India

A.







15. Arrange the words given below in an appropriate order:
Sea Rivulet Ocean River Stream





C.

D.

16. Arrange the words given below in an appropriate order:

A train will always have

A. Rails

B. Driver

C.Guard

D. Engine

17. Arrange the words given below in an appropriate order: What is found necessarily in milk?

A. Cream

B. Curd

C. Whiteness

D. Water

18. Arrange the words given below in an appropriate order:

A bulb always has

A. Glass

B. Filament

C. Current

D. Light

19. Village K is to the North of the Village R. Village S is in the East ofVillage K. Village J is to the left of the Village R. In which direction is Village J with respect to Village

A. South West

B. North East

C. North West

D. South East

20. At a dinner party every two guests used a bowl of rice between them, every three guests used a bowl of dal between them and every four guests used a bowl of meat between them. There were altogether 65 dishes. How many guests were present at the party?

A.75

B.70

C.65

D.60

21. In a certain code, ROUNDS is written as RONUDS. How will PLEASE be written in the same code?

A. LPAESE

B.PLAESE

C. LPAEES

D.PLASEE

22. In a certain code DECEMBER is written as ERMBCEDE. Which word will be written as ERMBVENO in that code?

A.DECEMBER

B. SEPTEMBER

C.OCTOBER

D.NOVEMBER

23. If BRAIN is written as and TIER is written as then how is RENT written?





C.



24. If BLOOD is coded as 24113 and BURST as 20678,then code for ROBUST is

A.620781

B.612078

C.678102

D.610732

25. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship what is the right choice for the second set? AST:BRU::NQV:

A.ORW

B.MPU

C. MRW

D.OPW

26. Insert the missing number: 24, 12, 18, 54

A.26

B.24

C.36

D.32

27. A bag contains an equal number of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins. If the total amount in the bag is Rs.35, how many coins of each type are there?

A.15

B.18

C.20

D.25

28. If A stands for B for C for D for 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand for: 22, 25, 22 and

A.PRIYA

B.NEEMA

C.MEENA

D.RUDRA

29. Which one of the following statements is completely non-sensical?

A. He was a bachelor, but he married recently.

B. He is a bachelor, but he married recently.

C. When he married, he was not a bachelor.

D. When he was a bachelor, he was not married.

30. What will be the next code in the following? DCXW, FEVU, HGTS,

A.AKPO

B.ABYZ

C. JIRQ

D.LMRS

31. Identify the next number in the series given below: 124, 235, 346, 457, 568, ...

A.659

B.670

C.679

D.690

32. Identify the next number in the series given below: 16/32, 15/33, 17/31 14/34, ...

A.18/30

B. 13/26

c. 18/36

D.17/25

33. Identify the wrong number in the series given below: 52, 51,48,43,34,27,16

A.27

B.34

C.43

D.48

34. Three boys Z hired a taxi on a sharing basis and paid Rs.l They used it for 11 hours respectively. What are the charges paid by

A. Rs.290/-

B. Rs.320/-

C.360/-

D. Rs.440/­

35. There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions can be answered in

A. 20 ways

B. 100 ways

C. 240 ways

D. 1024 ways

36. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

A.18

B.20

C.24

D.27

37. Pointing towards a person, a man said to a woman, "His mother is the only daughter of your father". How is the woman related to the person?

A. Daughter

B. Sister

C. Mother

D. Wife

38.
E is the son ofA, D is the son ofB, E is married to C is the daughter ofB. How is D related to

A. Brother B. Uncle C. Father-in-Law D. Brother-in-Law

39.
If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world, which ofthe following grows a fruit?

A. Earth B. Tree c. World D. Water

40.
The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of the relationship, which is the right choice for the second set?


A.JK B.QU C.VW D.RQ

SECTION
Knowledge of English (20 Marks)

41.' How many forms are there for the verb in English language?
A.3 B.4 C.5 D.6
42. We are to have him __here to make this function a great success.
A. pleased, over B. sure, come C. wonderful, again D. happy, arrive
43. The speech with subtle threats has resulted in tension.
A. replete, increased B. followed, continuous
C. started, reduced D. full, escalating
44. Rahul a researcher, a teacher, a publisher and now he a journalist.
A. is, was B. is, is C. was, was D. has been, is
Identify the synonymous word of the Capitalized word:
45. ARDUOUS
A. Hazardous B. Difficult C. Different D. Pleasurable
46. DEGRADING
A. Failing B. Lowering C. Corrupting D. Minimizing
47. VIABLE
A. Rudimentary B. Feasible C. Negative D. Impossible
48. ACCORDANCE
A. Congruence B. Enmity C. Quarrel D. Division
49.
TRANSITIONAL A.Extreme B. Intermediate C. Revolutionary D. Changed

50.
EXTOL

A. Steal B. Praise C. Exterior D. Excess

51.
Change the sentence into positive degree: "This· Mosque is the biggest in India"

A. This temple is as big as that Mosque
B. No other Mosque in India is as big as this Mosque
C. This Mosque is very big
D. Very few Mosques are as big as this Mosque

52.
Identify the compound sentence:

A. The box is too heavy to carry
B. Owing to illness Shiva did not appear for the exams.
C. Even though he is poor he donates generously
D. We must eat or we cannot live

53.
Identify the correct suffix to form a new word using the word "purpose"

A. able B. ity C.less D. ness

54.
Identifytheantonym oftheunderlinedwordinthesentence"Hisway ofpresentationis unique"

A. common B. comparable C. indifferent D. wrong

55.
Identify the antonym of the underlined word in the sentence "Einstein published his theory of General Relativity that was confirmed experimentally in 1921".

A. promised B. disproved C. refused D. accepted

56.
Identify the noun form ofthe verb

A. deadly B. dead C. dying D. death

57.
Match the correct noun form for the verb 'disturb'

A. disturbing B. disturbance C. disturbed D. disturbingly

58.
Identify the type of the sentence man's modesty is in inverse proportion to his ignorance' .

A. compound B. complex C. simple D. none ofthese

59.
Fill in the blank with suitable article: __poor always work hard.

A. the B.a C.an D. no article

60.
Identify the comparative degree ofthe following sentence: "this is the best response".



A. This and that are better responses
B. This response is better than that
C. This is a good response

D. This is a better response than any other
SECTION
Knowledge of World Languages (20 Marks)

61.
Languages of India can be classified into major language families. A.One B.Two C. Three D. Four

62.
A majority ofthe North-Eastern languages belong to A.lndic B. Dravidian C. Austro-Asiatic D. Tibeto-Burman

63.
the most widely spoken Mother Tongue in the world.

A. Hindi B. Russian C. English D. Mandarin Chinese

64.
How many languages are approximately spoken in the world today?

A.70 B.700 C.7,000 D.70,000

65.
Which country leads the world in number of languages spoken?

A. Indonesia B. Nigeria C. India D. Papua New Guinea

66.
A language which is no longer spoken is known as

A. Living language B. Extinct language
C. Left language D. Naturallanguage

67.
Singhalese and Hindi are sister languages.

A. True B. False C. both A B D. neither A nor B

68.
There are fricatives in the English language.

B.7 C.8 D.9

69.
animals can learn Human languages. A.All B.Few C. Some D.No

70.
All Human languages have consonants and vowels.

A. both B. all C. some D.no

71.
is a largest family representing languages spoken over a vast region of South-Asia.

A. Indo-European B. Dravidian C. Tibeto-Burman D. Munda

72.
What is lost when a language dies?

A. knowledge about the natural world B. medical knowledge
C. cultural traditions D. all ofthe above

73.
Writing systems of Human languages begin from

A. the time ofthe Cro-Magnon fossils, around 35,000 B.C.
B. the invention ofpottery around 8000 B.C.
C. just prior to the Bronze Age, around 3000 B.C.
D. the invention ofthe alphabet in the middle-east around 1700 B.C.

74.
Human beings can learn to speak

A. only ifthey can listen B. only ifthey have vocal apparatus
C. only ifthey are not deaf D. all ofthe above

75.
Maximum number of minority languages are spoken in the ofIndia.

A. Central India B. North-West
C. South-West D. North-East

76.
Identify the most widely spoken language across the world?

A. Russian B. Chinese C. English D. Hindi

77.
An Endangered language is that

A. which is extinct B. which is going to be extinct
C. has no native speakers D. has its speakers diffused

78.
The Official language of Israel is

A. Yiddish B. Hebrew C. Walloon D. Afrikaans

79.
Human beings have the ability to speak any human language because

A. they share the same speech organs B. they are born on the same planet
C. they share the same sensory organs D. none ofthe these

80.
the Official language of the State of Jammu Kashmir.



A. Hindi B. Urdu C. Dogri D. Kashmiri
SECTION
Questions on Language Problems (20 Marks)

Study the following data from the Congo Swahili language and answer the questions numbered 81-100:
ninasema speak' wunasema 'you speak'
anasema speaks' munasema 'you speak'
wanasema 'they speak' ninapika hit'
ninanupika hit you ninakupika hit you
ninawapika hit them' ananipika hits
ananupika hits you nilipika have hit'
nilimupika have hit him' nitakanupika will hit you
nitakapikiwa will be hit' ninaona see'
alitaka 'she wanted' ninarnupika hit him'
tunasema speak' watafika 'they will come'
wutakapikiwa 'you will be hit' ninapikiwa am hit'
nilipikiwa have been hit' nilipikaka hit (remote
wunapikizwa 'you cause being hit' wunanipikizwa 'you cause me to be hit'
wutakanipikizwa 'you will cause me to be hit'
sitanupika do not hit you hatanupika does not hit you
hatutanupika do not hit you hawatatupika 'they do not hit

81.
In Swahili, what is the word for'speak'?

A.ana B.wuna C. serna D. pika

82.
In Swahili, what is the word for

A. serna B.wuna C. peana D. pika

83.
In Swahili, what is the word for' A.ana B. ana C.ema D. dika

84.
The past tense marker in Swahili is A.pi B.li C. tu D.ka

85.
The present tense marker in Swahili is A.an B.wu C. pi D.na

86.
The future tense marker in Swahili is A.na B. se C. ta D.ka

87.
In Swahili, is indicated by A.wu B.na C.ma D.ha

88.
In Swahili, is indicated by

A. ta B.ha C.a D.ka

89.
In Swahili, is indicated by

A. ta B.na C. se D.a

90.
In Swahili, is indicated by

A. ta B.wu C.ma D.ka

91.
In Swahili, is indicated by A.tu B.u C.a D. ta

92.
In Swahili, is indicated by A.na B.wu C.mu D.ka

93.
In Swahili, is indicated by A.na B.si C.se D.pi

94.
In Swahili, is indicated by



A. is B.zw C. iz D.zwa

95. In Swahili, is indicated by
A.na B.wu C.ma D.pi
96. In Swahili, is indicated by
A. ni B.·li C.mu D.pi
97. In Swahili, is indicated by
A.na B.wu C.ma D.wa
98. In Swahili, what is the word for
A.ni B.li C.mu D.ni
99. In Swahili, is indicated by
A. fika B.wuna C. serna D. pika
100. In Swahili, what is the word for
A. ana B. taka C. serna D. pika