1. Which of the following pair are unsaturated fatty acids?

Oleic acid and stearic acid

Palmitic acid and linoleic acid

Myristic acid and oleic acid

Oleic acid and linolenic acid

2. The relation of D-Glucose with D-Galactose and D-Mannose are respectively

C-4 anomer and C-2 anomer

C-4 epimer and C-2 epimer

C-2 epimer and C-4 epimer

C-2 anomer and C-4 anomer

3. The difference in structure between dCMP and CMP is

CMP has group while dCMP does not

dCMP has group while CMP does not

CMP has a purine base while dCMP has pyrimidine

dCMP has one phosphate group while CMP has three

4. Assuming the oligopeptide PLVEANDWHITE forms one continuous a-helix, the carbonyl oxygen of the asparagine residue is hydrogen bonded to the amide nitrogen of which of the following residues?

Leucine.

Alanine.

Isoleucine.

Histidine.

5. Which of the following is true about enzymes

All enzymes contain a cofactor

Without the cofactor, the enzyme is called a holoenzyme

Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction

There are five main classes of enzymes

6. Which of the following is incorrect about the function of the corresponding cofactor

NAD+ as an oxidizing agent

Pyridoxal phosphate helps in transfer of amino group

Tetrahydrofolate transfers a two carbon unit

Biotin helps in carboxylation

7. The first component of Complex I of electron transport chain that receives electrons from NADH+H+

Fe-S cluster

FAD

FMN

CoQ

8. How many ATP molecules are generated for one complete rotation of motor subunits ofFoFI ATP synthase?

2.5

4

3

3.5

9. Which of the following statements is correct?

Phosphorylated glycogen synthase is the active form of the enzyme

Unphosphorylated glycogen synthase is the active form of the enzyme

Glycosylated glycogen synthase is the active form of the enzyme

Monomeric glycogen synthase is the active form of the enzyme

10. Pyruvate decarboxylase and pyruvate dehydrogenase both contain

Biotin

Pantothenic acid

Thiamine pyrophosphate

Pyridoxal phosphate

11. Conversion of ribonucleic acid to deoxyribonucleic acid requires primarily

Hydrolysis

Reductase system

Replacement of ribose by deoxyribose

Oxidase system

12. Which of the following sequence of products formed in urea cycle is correct

Citrulline----Arginosuccinic

Arginosuccinic acid----Citrulline-----Arginine

Homocitrulline---Arginosuccinic acid---Arginine---Urea

Citrulline---Arginine--Argino succinic acid---Urea

13. The activity of which of the following DNA polymerase is template independent?

Reverse Transcriptase

Telomerase

DNA Polymerase I

Terminal transferase

14. Which of the promoter in lambda phage expresses genes for recombination as well as antiterminator N and the cIll Protein?

PRM

PR



PL

15. Polynucleotide phosphorylase is an enzyme that has been used primarily to

Synthesize artificial DNA

Synthesize artificial RNA

Hydrolyze DNA

Hydrolyze typically tRNA

16. The energy for the addition of an incoming monomer to a growing polypeptide comes from

ATP hydrolysis

GTP hydrolysis

From the hydrolysis of the incoming monomer

From the last monomer of the growing polypeptide

17. Which of the following techniques can not be used to study the loss of gene function?

RNAi technology

CRISPR-cas9 technology

Homologous recombination mediated gene knock in

Zinc Finger Nuclease technology

18. Which of the following method is best suited to study the de novo synthesis of mRNA?

Real-time RT-PCR

Nuclear run-on assay

Nuclear run-off transcription assay

Northern hybridization

19. Which of the following techniques is best suited to study transcription?

DNase foot print

EMSA

Luciferase assay

S1 nuclease mapping

20. Hybridization of single-stranded RNA or DNA is facilitated by

I. high temperature

II. low temperature

III. high salt

IV. low salt

Options I and III are correct

Options I and IV are correct

Options II and III are correct

Options II and IV are correct

21. Fragmented DNA from a bacterial strain of genotype trp+leu+arg+sty ura+ was transformed into a trp-Ieu-arg-str ura-bacteria. Transformants ofthe following genotypes could be recovered.

I. sty

II. arg+ ura+

III.styleu+

IV. trp+ ura+

The most likely order of genes on the bacterial chromosome is:

sty-leu-arg -trp-ura

trp-sty-arg -ura -leu

trp-ura-arg-stY-leu

arg-ura-trp-str-leu

22. In cattle, heterozygous condition for Black and White produces a grey coat colour. Iftwo grey cattle are mated, what is the expected frequency of parental coat colour?



50%



100%

23. A transition mutation in a gene X introduced a premature stop codon. In order to obtain wild type product, additional mutagenesis was carried out and wild type products of gene X were obtained. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred to produce the wild type product?

Insertion of a single base pair

Deletion of a single base

tRNA suppresor mutation

Deletion of two nucleotides

24. In coffee plants, red berry colour is dominant over yellow colour and round is dominant over wrinkled The two traits are on different chromosomes. What are the types of gametes produced by a heterozygous plant that produces round red berries?

RW, Rw, wR, wr in equal proportions

RW, Rw, wR in the ratio of2:1:1

Rw and wR in equal proportions

RWand wr in equal proportions

25. In electrophoresis, the electrophoretic mobility determines the characteristics of migration of different biomolecules. Which of the following is not having any influence on

Size of molecules

Stereochemistry of molecules

Shape of molecules

Net charge of molecules

26. Select the true statement about fluorescence spectroscopy of molecules in the UV-visible region.

Emission usually occurs at energies that are greater than the energies of excitation

Emission usually occurs at energies that are less than the energies of excitation

Emission usually occurs at energies that are equal to the energies of excitation.

None of the above is accurate

27. Which of the following is not a multiple sequence alignment tools?

CLUSTAL OMEGA

MUSCLE

T-COFFEE

AUGUSTUS

28. A research scholar raised antibodies against the idiotypic determinants of a human IgG. She then checked for the specificity of this antibody in an ELISA based assay. She observed that some of the wells of ELISA plate showed cross reactivity. Given below are the antigens that she used to check cross reactivity of this antibody preparation with. With which all of the following this antibody may show cross-reactivity?

Whole IgM produced by the same plasma cell that produced the IgG.

The Fc part of papain digested IgG produced by the same plasma cell that produced the IgG.

The kappa chain of IgM produced from another plasma cell

The Fab part of papain digested IgG produced from another plasma cell

29. The tool used to perform sequence alignment of a protein amino acid sequence against a protein database is called:

BLASTp

BLASTn

TBLASTn

None of these

30. Which two of the following statements are true?

1. PAMI00 and BLOSUMI00 amino acid substitution matrices are comparable

II. PAM100 and BLOSUM90 amino acid substitution matrices are comparable

III. Smith-Watennan algorithm is used for global alignment

IV. Smith-Watennan algorithm is used for local alignment

I and III

II and IV

I and IV

II and III

31. The sedimentation coefficient of a particular DNA molecule is 22 S. How far will DNA molecule move at 40,000 rpm in 20 min at a distance of 6.0 cm from the axis of rotation?

1.75 cm

0.28 cm

0.38 cm

2.80 cm

32. Which of the following component(s) of complement could be missing and still with the remainder of the complement proteins the alternative pathway of the complement system can be activated?

Cl, C2, and C3

C3 only

C2, C3, and C4

Cl, C2, and C4

33. You injected H-2k mouse with LCM virus and collected the cytotoxic T cells (Tc-cells) and macrophages from spleen. The macrophages (Met», either treated with IFN-y or IL-l0, were then co-cultured with the isolated Tc-cells in combination with uninfected and LCM virus infected fibroblast cells from H-2k mouse and uninfected and LCM virus infected fibroblast cells from H-2b mouse. Which combination of co-cultured cells will have the highest target cell lysis by Tc-cells?

Met> treated with IFN-y Tc-cells co-cultured with LCM virus infected fibroblast from H-2b mouse.

M<D treated with IFN-y Tc-cells co-cultured with LCM virus infected fibroblast from H-2k mouse.

Met> treated with IL-I0 Tc-cells co-cultured with LCM virus infected fibroblast from H-2b mouse.

M<D treated with IFN-y Tc-cells co-cultured with uninfected fibroblast from H-2k mouse.

34. If you require to test for congenital absence of a complement component, which of the following screening tests will be most suitable?

Quantitation of serum opsonic activity

Quantitation of serum hemolytic activity

Quantitation of C4 content of serum

Electrophoretic analysis of patient's serum

35. The following feature does not represent apoptosis

Pycnosis

Activation of PARP protein

Cytochrome C release from the mitochondria

Bax translocation to mitochondria

36. Increased levels of human chorionic gondotropin hormone during first trimester of pregnancy is to

Control the pregnancy by regulating estrogen secretion

Maintain progesterone synthesis

Diagnose the pregnancy

Enhance the oxygen supply to the fetus

37. All the following physiological stress conditions stimulate vasopressin release into blood circulation EXCEPT for

Increased osmolarity in the plasma

Hypovolemia

Decreased body temperature

Fall in blood volume

38. Aging men is associated with the following physiological manifestations EXCEPT for

Increased bone resorption

Sarcopenia

Muscle degeneration

Increased androgen secretion

39. The brown color of faces is due to which pigment

Stecobilirubin

Stercobilinogen

Stecobilin

Stercobilin

40. Inappropriate ADH secretion can be associated with

I. Diabetes mellitus

II. Diabetes incipidus

III. Hyponatremia

IV. Water intoxication

II, III, IV

II, III

II, III, IV

III

41. P and Q together can complete a job in 8 days and 16 days respectively. They work on alternative days with Q starting the job. In how many days will the job be completed?

9

10

11

12

42. If,

I. 'min fin bin gin' means 'trains are always

II. 'gin din cin hin' means 'drivers were always punished';

III. cin vin rin' means 'drivers stopped all trains'; and

IV. 'din kin fin vin' means 'all passengers were late'.

'Drivers were late' would be written as:

min cin bin

fin cin din

fin din gin

gin hin min

43. A clock is set right at 5 am. The clock looses 16 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the right time when the clock indicates 10 pm on the 3rd day?

11:15 pm

11 pm

12 pm

12:30 pm

44. Find the missing number in the following figure.

<img src='./qimages/16040-44.jpg'>

36

38

40

42

45. A large cube is painted on all six faces and then cut into a certain number of smaller but identical cubes. It was found that among the smaller cubes, there were eight cubes which have no face painted at all. How many small cubes have exactly two faces painted?

6

12

18

24

46. What is the standard deviation for the following series of numbers?


10

1.66

1.20

1

47. How many triangles are there in the following figure?

<img src='./qimages/16040-47.jpg'>

10

11

12

13

48. The angle sum of all interior angles of a convex polygon having seven sides is









49. If e^z then dz/dy is e^z means exp

x/y

l/x

I/lnx

l/y

50. Which number is not the mean, median, or mode of the data set 15,









51. You attempted to sequence a DNA fragment with the Sanger dideoxy method and obtained a gel as depicted below. You observed that the A sequence lane contains few bands at the bottom of the gel and a large "blob" of radioactivity at the top of the gel. The other three lanes T and appeared normal.

<img src='./qimages/16040-51.jpg'>

What could be the reason behind the abnormal A lane?

The processivity of DNA pol is high.

The fidelity of DNA pol is low.

The concentration of ddATP is too low.

The concentration of ddTTP is too high.

52. You wanted to knockout your favourite gene by two sites homologous recombination that would allow you to replace gene YFG with a selectable marker KANMX. After generating the knockout strain you wanted to confirm it by Southern hybridization using the entire KANMX DNA fragment as the probe. For Southern blot you have digested the genomic DNA isolated from the KO strain by a restriction enzyme whose sites are indicated as vertical bars in the accompanying figure. You have noted that there is one RE site within YFG and two RE sites flanking YFG. There is a RE site in the KANMX selectable marker gene. The spacing between the RE sites and the sizes of YFG and KANMX are given.

<img src='./qimages/16040-52.jpg'>

Which of the following banding pattern would you expect on the Southern blot?

5 kb and 3 kb bands.

4.5 kb and 3.1 kb bands.

4.1 kb and 3.5 kb bands.

1 kb and 0.6 kb bands.

53. DNA sizes can be determined by gel electrophoresis. A DNA size standard and a DNA of unknown size are run in two lanes of a gel, depicted schematically. The migration of DNAs of known size in the standard is graphed to create a standard curve.

<img src='./qimages/16040-53-i.jpg'>

Which of the following graphs is most suitable for determining the size of DNA?

<img src='./qimages/16040-53-ii.jpg'>

54. DNA repair pathways can be activated when Migration distance Migration distance an organism is subjected to mutagen which causes DNA damage. The type of repair pathway activated depends upon the kind of DNA damage caused. The preliminary idea of which mutagen leads to activation of which DNA repair pathway can be elucidated by quantifying the change in expression of gene known to be involved in that particular pathway. So to find out which mutagen is responsible for activation of which repair pathway, organism was subjected to three different mutagen and the expression level of gene 01 involved in repair pathway R1 and 02 involved in repair pathway R2 was monitored through real time PCR.
Given below is the Ct value obtained though real time PCR for gene involved in repair pathway in control and experimental conditions.

Control Mutagen Mutagen Mutagen
Gene 32 26 31 26
Gene 16 8 17 12
House keeping gene 24 18 26 20

On basis of above value predict which of the following statement made is correct

M1 leads to activation of repair pathway R2 since expression ofG2 is up-regulated 4 folds.

M1 leads to activation of repair pathway R2 since expression of G2 is up-regulated 2 folds.

M2 leads to activation ofonly repair pathway Rl since expression ofG1 is up-regulated 8 folds and pathway R2 is not activated as expression of G2 remains unchanged.

M3 leads to activation of repair pathway Rl since expression ofGl is up-regulated 2 folds.

55. Protein moon and protein night are known to co-localize into nucleus upon cellular stress. In silico studies also provided hint pointing that they may interact with each other. Co­immunoprecipitation (CoIP) was used to check interaction between protein M and protein N. In order to perform CoIP protein M and protein N was tagged with 6X-HA and Ty respectively and transfected into the cells. CoIP was done with cell lysate in the presence of anti-HA antibody and in the presence of pre-immune IgG (that acts as a negative control). Blots were probed with anti-Ty and anti-HA antibody as shown in the accompanying figure.

<img src='./qimages/16040-55.jpg'>

Which is the correct inference drawn on the basis of above western blot and description?

Protein N gets precipitated with protein M when pull down was done using Anti-HA antibody, proving that they interact with each other.

Protein M gets precipitated with protein N when pull down was done using Anti-Ty antibody, proving that they interact with each other.

Protein M and protein N do not interact with each other.

Interaction between the two proteins is not strong enough to be detected by Co-IP.

56. In a particular group of butterfly it was observed that most of them have bright orange coloured wings but few among them are unable to develop the orange colour in their wings and have white coloured wings. When their gene expression profile was compared it was found that butterfly with white wings failed to express the gene eLR known to be involved in pigment synthesis. Then it was hypothesized that differential epigenetic modification of that gene might be the possible cause. To test this hypothesis Chromatin Immunoprecipitation (ChIP) was done using following antibodies:

H3K9me3 (known repressive mark)

H3K27me (known repressive mark)

H3K9ac (known activation mark)

IgG (control)

Given below is the gel picture of PCR done using primer specific to eLR promoter from IP DNA of listed antibodies. On basis of it following statements are made. Which of the statements is correct?

<img src='./qimages/16040-56.jpg'>

Absence of trimethylation on H3K9 at UAS CLR might be the possible cause for repression of eLR expression in white winged butterfly.

Methylation of H3K27 at UAS CLR is possibly not responsible for repression of eLR expression in white winged butterfly

Presence of methylation on H3K27 and absence of acetylation on H3K9 might be reason for euchromatinisation of eLR promoter leading to repression of eLR in white winged butterfly

Presence of methylation on H3K27 and absence of acetylation on H3K9 might be reason for heterochromatinisation of eLR promoter leading to repression of eLR in white winged butterfly.

57. The gel electrophoresis mobility shift assay (EMSA) is used to detect protein complexes with nucleic acids. EMSA was performed to map at which motif of Promoter X is bound by protein

Analyze the autoradiogram below and select the correct conclusion give below.

<img src='./qimages/16040-57.jpg'>

[Figure legends:-NE-nuclear extract; Probe:-32p labeled polynucleotide sequence; A binding competition was performed using competitive probe (cold probe) or mutated competitive probe (ll cold probe); Protein A Ab; antibody against Protein

Protein A binds to both the motif ofpromoter X

Protein A binds to motif 1 of promoter X not on motif 2

Protein A binds to motif2 not on motif 1 of promoter X

Protein A does not bind to the promoter X

58. For an enzyme which follows simple Michaelis-Menten kinetics, the following parameters were measured:

E S k1 k2 ES E P

kl and k-1are very fast, k2 100 sec^-1 and M at 280 K.
For 0.1 M and what is Vo at 280

mM sec^-1.

10^1 mM sec^-1.

mM sec^-1

10° mM sec^-1.

59. In case of an enzyme inhibition study for an enzyme, the following data were obtained for a competitive inhibition in which the 3 MM for each determination of Vo in the presence of inhibitor and Vmax 200 MM of Product/min for both data sets. What will be the Ki for this enzyme?

<img src='./qimages/16040-59.jpg'>

1.5 MM

10 MM

30 MM

3.0 MM

60. One hundred Units of a protein contained in a crude extract are chromatographed on an ion exchanger. Twenty, 5-ml fractions are taken. Fraction 3 has 1.5 unit enzymatic activities. No other fraction has any enzymatic activity and no enzymatic activity was found by extensive washing of the column. When Fraction 8 and 12 are mixed together yielded a solution having 250 units of activity. What was in fractions 8 and 12?

The fractions 8 and 12 contain two degraded part of a protein.

The protein contains two different polypeptide chains that are separated into fraction 8 and 12.

The protein contains two different domains that are separated into fraction 8 and 12.

The same protein eluted at different rates into the fraction 8 and 12.

61. The following experimental data have been obtained for the fluorescence intensity and circular dichroism intensity of a protein solution at different temperatures.

T F (arbitrary units) CD (arbitrary units)
20 65.0 -1310
30 65.0 -1310
40 64.7 -1304
46 58.8 -1186
50 40.0 -810
56 17.8 -366
60 15.5 -320
70 15.0 -310
80 15.0 -310

What fraction of the protein might be unfolded at 46°C?

0.124

0.248

0.214

0.482

62. A researcher used fluorescein labeled anti-CD4 and rhodamine-labeled anti-CD8 antibodies to stain thymocytes and lymph node cells from normal mice and from RAG-l knockout mice. He then subjected these to FACS analyses. However, by mistake, he forgot to label the tubes. The FACS plots for tube and 4 are shown below.

<img src='./qimages/16040-62.jpg'>

With the FACS plots shown above, select the correct match of the tubes with their respective possible FACS profile.

Tubel: Thymus of RAG-l KO; Tube Lymph node ofNormal mice; Tube Thymus of RAG-l KO; Tube Lymph node of Normal mice

Tubel: Thymus of normal mice; Tube Lymph node of RAG-l KO; Tube Thymus of Normal mice; Tube Lymph node of RAG-l KO

Tubel: Thymus of normal mice; Tube Lymph node of RAG-l KO; Tube Thymus of RAG-l KO; Tube Lymph node ofNormal mice

Tubel: Thymus of normal mice; Tube Lymph node ofNormal mice; Tube Thymus of RAG-l KO; Tube Lymph node of RAG-l KO

63. You wanted to develop a conventional sandwich ELISA diagnostic kit to test for the presence of protein from a new strain of pathogenic bacteria in infected cattle sera. You started with using a monoclonal antibody specific for a single epitope of the bacterial protein, both to sensitize the wells of the ELISA plate and as the enzyme-labeled detecting antibody. The ELISA failed to detect the antigen despite the use of a wide range of antibody concentrations. What is the most probable cause of this problem?

The antigen is too large.

The antibody has a low affinity for the antigen.

The enzyme-labeled antibody used should have been a different isotype than the sensitizing antibody.

The monoclonal antibody used to sensitize the wells is blocking access to the epitope, thus when the same antibody is enzyme-labeled, it cannot bind to the antigen.

64. A salicylic acid (pKa solution with was found to have pH=5. The ratio of salicylic acid to its conjugate base i.e. salicylate is (salicylic acid: salycylate)

0.01: 100

100

100: 1

100: 0.01

65. Absolute configuration of the following two mirror images of threonine II) are respectively:

<img src='./qimages/16040-65.jpg'>

3R) and 38)

38) and 3R)

3R) and 38)

38) and 3R)