Exam Details

Subject commerce
Paper paper 2
Exam / Course ugc net national eligibility test
Department
Organization university grants commission
Position
Exam Date September, 2013
City, State ,


Question Paper

1. Government regulation of business is basically intended to

make sure all business units have the opportunity to be successful.

warn consumers against unfair business practices

make sure business firms are socially responsible.

protect the public from the negative consequences of business behaviour.



2. What is not the advantage of SEZ

Improvement of infrastructure in the hinterland.

Diversion of large tracts of farm land.

Attracting foreign investment.

All of the above.



3. Which type of the complaints are not to be entertained by Consumer Forums under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986

A defective product purchased 1½ years back.

Misleading advertisement in a newspaper.

Services provided free of cost.

Tie in sales.



4. Which of the following is a WTO procedure to promote globalisation

Promotion of free trade.

Reduction of budgetary subsidies.

Reduction in shipping costs.

Promotion of foreign portfolio investment.

5. Match the following regarding disinvestment in India
List I List II
Disinvestment Policy by the Chandrashekhar Government I. 1999
Rangarajan Committee on disivestment in public sector enterprises II. 1996
Strategic and nonstrategic classification of public enterprises for disinvestment III. 1991-92
Formation of Disinvestment Commission IV. 1993
Codes
I II III IV










6. When a partnership is dissolved and the following claims need to be met out piece-meal of the cash released, which is the correct sequence in which these claims have to be met
Any partner's loan
Capital and Current account balances
Expenses of dissolution
Outsider's claim (both payable and accrued)
Codes











7. In practice, accountants consider revenue from sales if a transaction meets the following condition(s)

The seller has passed the legal or economic ownership of the goods to the buyer.

The seller and the buyer have agreed on the price of the goods.

The buyer has paid the price of the goods or it is certain that he will pay the price.

All of the above.



8. The main difference between marginal costing and absorption costing lies in the treatment of

Direct cost

Fixed overhead

Variable overhead

Semi-variable overhead



9. Which of the following items is not an appropriation of profit for a limited company

Corporate tax payable

Ordinary dividend payable

Debenture interest payable

Preference dividend payable



10. Which of the following is not applicable to responsibility accounting

Accounting Centre

Cost Centre

Investment Centre

Profit Centre



11. Which one of the following is not the basic assumption of Cardinal Utility analysis

Rationality of Consumer.

Utility cardinally measurable.

Diminishing marginal utility of money.

Hypothesis of independent utilities.



12. Which one of the following is not a property of indifference curve

Negatively sloping.

Convex to the point of origin.

Indifference curves necessarily have to be parallel.

Two indifference curves do not intersect each other.


13. Find the correct matching between items of List-I and the items of List-II.
List I List II
Increase in demand Leftward movement along the demand curve.
Contraction of demand Rightward shift of the demand curve.
Cross demand Demand of more than one commodity to satisfy one specific want.
Joint demand Demand of one commodity with changes in the prices of another related commodity

Codes











14. According to the Law of Variable Proportions, the second stage of production ends when

Marginal productivity of the variable input becomes maximum.

Both marginal productivity and average productivity of the variable input are equal.

Marginal productivity of the variable input becomes zero and average productivity is positive.

Marginal productivity of the variable input is negative but average productivity is positive.



15. Total Revenue function and the Total Cost function of a perfectly competitive market firm are as follows
TR 480 Q 8Q2
TC 400 8Q2
The profit maximizing output would be

60

15

50

None of the above



16. From a population with mean of 220 and standard deviation of 30, a sample of 36 was drawn at random. Calculate the standard error of the sampling distribution and choose the correct answer from the following options.

7.3

6.2

6.0

5.0



17. A committee of six people is to be formed from a group of seven men and four women. What is the probability that the committee will have exactly two women

0.456

0.803

0.962

None of the above



18. From the following Anova table, calculate the value and select the correct answer from the options given below
<img src='./qimages/18.jpg'>

22.2

31.5

33.3

36.2

19. For a hypothesis test, alpha is 0.05 and beta is 0.10. The power of this test is

0.95

0.90

0.80

0.15


20. Which one(s) of the following statements is correct with respect to Decision Support System
It is used by middle level management.
DSS applies to mostly structured problems.
DSS relies on mathematical models for analysis.
DSS is largely heuristics based.
Codes

and are correct.

and are correct.

and are correct.

All the four are correct.


21. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason Select the correct answer using the code given below
Assertion Strategies necessarilyneed to be changed over timeto suit environmental changes.
Reason To remain competitive,organisations develop those strategies that create value for customers.
Codes

is correct, but is incorrect.

Both and are correct.

is incorrect, but is correct.

Both and are incorrect.



22. Which of the following is not true about proactive planning

Way of thinking about managing the future risks.

Anticipating future contingencies.

Reacting to external events.

Getting ready with alternative routes for unforseen situations.



23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-programmed decisions

Problems are unique and novel.

There are no pre-establishedpolicies or procedures to rely on.

The conditions for non-programmed decisions are highly certain.

These are the responsibility of top-management.



24. Which of the following is an ethical behaviour of a manager

Trading stocks on the basis of inside information.

Padding expense accounts.

Not divulging trade secrets to competitors.

Being severely critical of competitors.



25. Which of the following is suggested by Blake and Mouton as the best leadership behaviour

Low concern for people but high concern for production.

Low concern for both people and production.

High concern for both people and production.

High concern for people and low concern for production.


26. Which segmentation approach is the most compatible with the spirit of the marketing concept

Benefit sought

Income

Social class

Family size


27. Which of the stages of new product development process can be skipped

Business analysis

Idea screening

Product testing

Test marketing


28. The price-setting method which most closely corresponds to the concept of product positioning is

cost-plus pricing

going-rate pricing

perceived value pricing

psychological pricing


29. The most important retail marketing decision a retailer has to make is to

select the product assortment.

identify its target market.

choose the desired service level.

develop an effective store atmosphere.


30. Which element of the promotion mix do wholesalers primarily use

Advertising

Personal selling

Public relations

Trade show



31. Out of the following alternative methods of project evaluation and selection used in capital budgeting, which one of the combinations in the code corresponds to discounted cash flow methods
Internal Rate of Return
Pay Back Period
Profitability Index
Net Present Value
Codes











32. When the expected level of EBIT exceeds the indifferent point for two alternative financial plans, (Equity­financing and Debt-financing), then

The use of debt financing would be advantageous to increase EPS.

the use of equity financing would be advantageous to maximize EPS.

the use of debt-financing would reduce EPS.

the use of equity financing would keep the EPS constant.



33. Which one of the following is not the assumption of the Modigliani-Miller Irrelevance Theory of Dividend Policy

No personal or corporate income taxes.

Dividend policy has its effect on firm's cost of equity.

Capital investment policy is independent of its dividend policy.

Stock floatation or transaction cost does not exist.


34. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II.

List I List II
Financial Breakeven- point Rate of discount at which NPV is zero.
Cost- Volume- Profit Analysis Cost of capital remains the same for different degrees of financial leverage. Internal Rate of Return Analysis to study relationship among fixed costs, variable costs, sales volume and profits.
Net Operating Income Approach The minimum level of EBIT needed to satisfy all fixed financial charges.

Codes











35. Assertion The focus of working capital management revolves around managing the operating cycle of the working capital.
Reason It is because the concept is useful to ascertain the requirements of cash to meet the operating expenses of a going concern.
Codes

Both and are true, but is not the explanation of working capital management.

Both(A) and are false.

is true, but is false.

is false, but is true.



36. Which of the following terms, includes the task, duties and responsibilities of a particular job

Job Evaluation

Job Enrichment

Job Analysis

Job Enlargement



37. Match the following lists and indicate the correct pairing

List I List II
Simple Ranking a. Evaluation by Superiors, Peers and Subordinates.
Paired Comparison b. Order of rating from best to worst.
360-Degree Appraisal c. Standardised quantitative rating.
Graphic Rating d. Comparing ratings to one another.

The correct pairing is
1 2 3 4

b d a c

a b c d

c d a b

d a b c



38. In which method of performance appraisal, the evaluator keeps a written record of significant events and how difficult employees behaved during such events

Field Review Method

BARS Method

Critical Incidents Method

Assessment Centre Method


39. In connection with HRD, what is incorrect

It is a reactive function.

It develops total organisation.

It focuses on autonomous work groups.

It is an integrated system.


40. In which method of training, job conditions are duplicated with equipments and machines which are identical with those used at the work place

On the job training

Apprenticeship training

Vestibule training

Internship training


41. Which one of the following techniques is used by the Commercial Banks in India to measure the risk arising from trading activity

Network Analysis

Sensitivity Analysis

Value at risk methodology

E.V.A.


42. Which of the following schemes introduced by NABARD is intended to provide credit to farmers

Rural Infrastructure Development Fund

Kisan Credit Card

Micro-Finance

Co-Operative Development Fund

43. Which one of the following is a recent E-Banking initiative in Commercial Banks in India

RTGS

NEFT

NECS

NET Banking

44. Which of the following fee-based services are provided by IDBI
Credit syndication
Corporate trustee services
Custodial services
Foreign services
Identify the correct code

Codes

and

and

and

and

45. SIDBI provides financial assistance in the following forms
Bills financing
Project financing
Re-finance assistance
Resource support to institutions
Which of the following sequence is correct

and

and

and

and

46. BOP problems in India cannot be attributed only to

Large trade deficit

Increase in invisible surplus

Sensitive behaviour of foreign creditors, including NRI foreign-currency depositors.

The declining role of concessional external finance.

47. Arrange the stages in anti-dumping investigation process in right sequence.
Initiation
Preliminary screening
Rejection of unsubstantiated information
Provisional findings
Final findings and measures
Permitting the exporting country to modify the practices
Codes









48. A situation where any advantage given by one member of the WTO to another member is extended to all WTO members is referred to as

Trade Diversion

Inter Regional Principle

Most Favoured Nation

Least Traded Nation

49. The collapse of which of the following systems is related to the Triffin Paradox

Gold Standard

Exchange rate mechanism (in 1992)

Bretton Woods

None of the above

50. Which of the following is/are the assumptions of the Law of One Price
Restriction on the movement of goods between countries.
No transportation costs.
No tariffs

Both and

Only

Both and

and


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